Month: September 2023

Section 1 – Questions 1-10

Questions 1-5

Complete the information below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

City Library

Head Librarian	Example: Mrs. Phillips
Hours	(1) to 4: 30
Books
Ground floor	(2)……………………………………….
Second floor	Adult collection
Third floor	(3)……………………………………….
Book carts
Brown cart	books to re-shelve
Black cart	books to (4)……………………………………….
White cart	books to (5)……………………………………….

Questions 6-10

Complete the library schedule below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Activity	Location	Day and Time
Story Time	Children’s Room	(6) ……………………at 11:00
Family (7) ……………………	Reference Room	Saturday at (8) ……………………
Lecture Series	(9) ……………………Room	Friday at (10)……………………

SECTION 2 – Questions 11-20

Questions 11-15

Choose FIVE letters, A-I.

Which FIVE activities are available at Golden Lake Resort?

1. swimming
2. boating
3. waterskiing
4. fishing
5. tennis
6. golf
7. horseback riding
8. hiking
9. arts and crafts

Questions 16-20

Complete the schedule below.

Write NO MORE THAN ONE WORD for each answer.

Night	Activity
Sunday	(16)………………………..
Monday	Dessert Night
Tuesday	(17)……………………….. Night
Wednesday	(18)………………………..
Thursday	(19)………………………..
Friday	Talent Show
Saturday	(20)………………………..

SECTION 3 – Questions 21 – 30

Questions 21-23

Choose THREE letters, A-E.

Which THREE thing are the students required to submit to their professor?

1. a written summary maps
2. a case study
3. charts and graphs
4. a list of resources used
5. a video

Questions 24-25

Answer the questions below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

What two sources of information will the students use when preparing their presentation?

(24)…………………………………

What will the students show during their presentation?

(25)…………………………………

Questions 26-30

Choose the correct letter, A, B, or C.

26. Only rescue birds that are
    1. all alone.
    2. obviously hurt.
    3. sitting on the ground.
27. Protect yourself by wearing
    1. gloves
    2. a hat
    3. protective glasses
28. Put the bird in a
    1. cage
    2. box
    3. bag
29. Keep the bird calm by
    1. Petting it
    2. talking to it
    3. leaving it alone
30. When transporting the bird
    1. speak quietly.
    2. play music.
    3. drive very slowly

SECTION 4 – Questions 31 – 40

Questions 31-33

Complete the information about the Great Barrier Reef.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

The Great Barrier Reef is made up of 3.000 (31)……………………….. and 600 (32)…………………………………

Over 400 kinds of (33)………………………….. can be found there.

Questions 34-38

Choose FIVE letters, A-I.

Which FIVE of these kinds of animals inhabiting the Great Barrier Reef are mentioned?

1. sharks
2. starfish
3. seahorses
4. clams
5. whales
6. dolphins
7. sea turtles
8. crocodiles
9. frogs

Questions 39-40

Answer the questions below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

39. What causes coral bleaching?
    • …………………………..
40. What has been one response to this problem?
    • ………………………..

Section 1 Answers Cambridge 10 Listening Test 1

1. 8:30
2. reference books
3. children’s books
4. be repaired/repair
5. be sold/sell
6. Thursday
7. movies
8. 2:30
9. meeting
10. 6:30

Section 2 Answers Cambridge 10 Listening Test 1

11. A, B, D, G, I (In any order)
12. A, B, D, G, I (In any order)
13. A, B, D, G, I (In any order)
14. A, B, D, G, I (In any order)
15. A, B, D, G, I (In any order)
16. film/movie
17. discussion
18. lectures
19. games
20. dance

Section 3 Answers Cambridge 10 Listening Test 1

21. A, C, E (In any order)
22. A, C, E (In any order)
23. A, C, E (In any order)
24. interviews, journal articles
25. photos (of birds)
26. B
27. A
28. B
29. C
30. A

Section 4 Answers Cambridge 10 Listening Test 1

31. individual reefs / coral reefs
32. islands
33. coral(s)
34. A, D, E, H, I (in any order)
35. A, D, E, H, I (in any order)
36. A, D, E, H, I (in any order)
37. A, D, E, H, I (in any order)
38. A, D, E, H, I (in any order)
39. rising sea temperatures
40. shading the reef/shading

Section 1: Questions 1-10

Questions 1-4

Complete the table below.

Write ONE WORD ONLY.

HEALTH CENTRES

Name of centre	Doctors’ name	Advantage
The Harvey Clinic	Dr. Green	especially good with (1) …………………………
The (2) ………………………… Health Practice	Dr. Fuller	offers (3) ………………………… appointments
The Shore Lane Health Centre	Dr. (4) …………………………

Questions 5 and 6

Choose TWO letters A-E.

Which TWO of the following are offered free of charge at Shore Lane Health Centre?

1. acupuncture
2. employment medicals
3. sports injury therapy
4. travel advice
5. vaccinations

Questions 7-10

Complete the table below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS OR A NUMBER.

Talks for patients at Shore Lane Health Centre

Subject of talk	Date/ time	Location	Notes
Giving up smoking	25th Feb at 7 pm	room 4	useful for people with asthma or (7) …………………………problems
Healthy eating	1st March at 5 pm	the (8)…………………………(Shore Lane)	anyone welcome
Avoiding injuries during exercise	9th March at (9) …………………………	room 6	for all (10) …………………………

Section 2: Questions 11-20

Label the diagram below.

Choose THREE answers from the box and write the correct letters A-E.

Questions 14-18

Where can each of the following items be found?

Choose FIVE answers from the options and write the correct letter A-G.

Locations

1. in box on washing machine
2. in cupboard on landing
3. in chest of drawers
4. next to window in living room
5. on shelf of back door
6. on top of television
7. under kitchen sink

14. Pillows
15. Washing powder
16. Key
17. Light bulbs
18. Map

Questions 19 and 20

Complete the notes below.

Write ONE WORD OR A NUMBER.

The best place to park in town – next to station
Phone number for takeaway pizzas – (19) …………………………
Railway museum closed on (20) …………………………

Section 3: Questions 21 and 22

Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

21. In her home country, Kira had
    1. completed a course
    2. done two years of a course
    3. found her course difficult
22. To succeed with assignments, Kira had to
    1. read faster
    2. write faster
    3. change her way of thinking

Questions 23-25

Complete the sentences below.

Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

23. Kira says that lecturers are easier to than those in her home country.
24. Paul suggests that Kira may be more than when she was studying before.
25. Kira says that students want to discuss things that worry them or that them very much.

Questions 26-30

Answer the questions below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

26. How did the students do their practical sessions?
27. In the second semester how often did Kira work in a hospital?
28. How much full-time work did Kira do during the year?
29. Having completed the year, how does Kira feel?
30. In addition to the language, what do overseas students need to become familiar with?

Section 4: Questions 31-40

Questions 31-36

Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

Wildlife in city gardens

31. What led the group to choose their topic?
    1. They were concerned about the decline of one species
    2. They were interested in the effects of city growth
    3. They wanted to investigate a recent phenomenon
32. The exact proportion of land devoted to private gardens was confirmed by
    1. consulting some official documents
    2. taking large-scale photos
    3. discussions with town surveyors
33. The group asked garden owners to
    1. take part in formal interviews
    2. keep a record of animals they saw
    3. get in contact when they saw a rare species
34. The group made their observations in gardens
    1. which had a large number of animal species
    2. which they considered to be representative
    3. which had stable populations of rare animals
35. The group did extensive reading on
    1. wildlife problems in rural areas
    2. urban animal populations
    3. current gardening practices
36. The speaker focuses on three animal species because
    1. a lot of data has been obtained about them
    2. the group were most interested in them
    3. they best indicated general trends

Questions 37-40

Complete the table below. Write ONE WORD ONLY.

Animals	Reason for population increase in gardens	Comments
(37)………………	suitable stretches of water	massive increase in urban population
Hedgehogs	safe from (38)…………….when in cities	easy to (39)………………..them accurately
Song Thrushes	– a variety of (40)………………to eat – more nesting places available	large survey starting soon

Section 1 Answers Cambridge 9 Listening Test 4

1. babies
2. Eschol
3. evening
4. Gormley
5. B
6. E
7. heart
8. primary school
9. 4.30
10. ages

Section 2 Answers Cambridge 9 Listening Test 4

11. B
12. C
13. E
14. B
15. E
16. D
17. A
18. C
19. 732281
20. thursday

Section 3 Answers Cambridge 9 Listening Test 4

21. A
22. C
23. approach
24. mature
25. interest
26. groups
27. every 2 days
28. 2 weeks
29. confident
30. education system

Section 4 Answers Cambridge 9 Listening Test 4

31. C
32. A
33. B
34. B
35. A
36. C
37. frogs
38. predators
39. count
40. seeds

Section 1: Questions 1-10

Questions 1-5

Complete the table below.

Write ONE WORD OR A NUMBER.

Apartments	Facilities	Other information	Cost
Rose Garden Apartments	studio flat	entertainment programme: Greek dancing	£ 219
Blue Bay Apartments	large salt water swimming pool	– just (1)…………….meters from beach – near shops	£ 275
(2)………………Apartments	terrace	watersports	£ 490
The Grand	Greek paintings and (3)…………..	– overlooking (4)…………. – near a supermarket and disco	(5) £…………

Questions 6-10

Complete the table below.

Write ONE WORD OR A NUMBER.

GREEK ISLAND HOLIDAYS

Insurance benefits	Maximum amount
Cancellation	(6) £………………….
Hospital	£ 600, additional benefit allows a (7)………………to travel to resort
(8)……………………departure	up to £ 1000 depends on reason
Personal belongings	up to £ 3000, £ 500 for one (9)……………

Name of Assistant Manager: Ben (10)………………..

Section 2: Questions 11-20

Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

WINRIDGE FOREST RAILWAY PARK

11. Simon’s idea for a theme park came from
    1. his childhood hobby
    2. his interest in landscape design
    3. his visit to another park
12. When they started, the family decided to open the park only when
    1. the weather was expected to be good
    2. the children weren’t at school
    3. there were fewer farming commitments
13. Since opening, the park has had
    1. 50,000 visitors
    2. 1,000,000 visitors
    3. 1,500,000 visitors

Questions 14-18

What is currently the main area of work of each of the following people?

Choose FIVE answers from the box and write the correct letter A-H next to questions 14-18.

Area of work

A advertising	B animal care	C building	D educational links
E engine maintenance	F food and drink	G sales	H staffing

People

14. Simon
15. Liz
16. Sarah
17. Duncan
18. Judith

Questions 19 and 20

Complete the table below.

Write ONE WORD OR A NUMBER.

Feature	Size	Biggest challenge	Target age group
Railway	1.2 km	making tunnels
Go-kart arema	(19)…………..sq mt	removing mounds on the track	(20)……………..year olds

Section 3: Questions 21-30

Complete the notes below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS OR A NUMBER.

Study Skills Tutorial – Caroline Benning

Dissertation topic: the (21) …………………………
Strengths: (22) ………………………… and Computer modeling
Weaknesses: lack of background information
Poor (23) ………………………… skills

Possible strategy	Benefits	Problems
Peer group discussion	increase (24) …………………………	dissertations tend to contain the same (25) …………………………
Use the (26) ………………………… service	provides structured programme	limited (27) …………………..
Consult study skills books	are a good source of reference	can be too (28)……………….

Recommendations: use a card index and Real all notes (29) …………………………
Next tutorial date: (30) ………………………… January

Section 4: Questions 31-40

31. The owners of the underground house
    1. had no experience of living in a rural area
    2. were interested in environmental issues
    3. wanted a professional project manager
32. What does the speaker say about the site of the house?
    1. The land was quite cheap
    2. Stone was being extracted nearby
    3. It was in a completely unspoilt area

Questions 33-40

Complete the notes below.

Write ONE WORD OR A NUMBER.

THE UNDERGROUND HOUSE

Design
• Built in the earth, with two floors
• The south-facing side was constructed of two layers of (33) …………………………
• Photovoltaic tiles were attached
• A layer of foam was used to improve the (34) ………………………… of the building

Special features
• To increase the light, the building has many internal mirrors and (35) …………………………
• In future, the house may produce more (36) ………………………… than it needs
• Recycled wood was used for the (37) ………………………… of the house
• The system for processing domestic (38) ………………………… is organic

Environmental issues
• The use of large quantities of (39) ………………………… in construction was environmentally harmful
• But the house will have paid its ‘environmental debt’ within (40) …………………………

Section 1 Answers Cambridge 9 Listening Test 3

1. 300
2. sunshade
3. balcony
4. forests
5. 319
6. 10,000
7. relative
8. missed
9. item
10. Ludlow

Section 2 Answers Cambridge 9 Listening Test 3

11. C
12. A
13. C
14. E
15. H
16. F
17. C
18. G
19. 120
20. 5 to 12

Section 3 Answers Cambridge 9 Listening Test 3

21. fishing industry
22. statistics
23. note-taking
24. confidence
25. ideas
26. student support
27. places
28. general
29. 3 times
30. 25

Section 4 Answers Cambridge 9 Listening Test 3

31. B
32. A
33. glass
34. insulation
35. windows
36. electricity
37. floors
38. waste
39. concrete
40. 15 years

Section 1: Questions 1-10

Complete the form below.

Write ONE WORD OR A NUMBER.

ACCOMODATION FORM – STUDENT INFORMATION

Type of accommodation: hall of residence
Name: Anu (1) …………………………………..
Date of birth: (2) …………………………………..
Country of origin: India
Course of study: (3) …………………………………..
Number of years planned in hall: (4) …………………………………..
Preferred catering arrangement: half board
Special dietary requirements: no (5) ………………………………….. (red)
Preferred room type: a single (6) …………………………………..
Interests: the (7) ………………………………….. and badminton
Priorities in choice of hall: to be with other students who are (8) …………………………………..
To live outside the (9) …………………………………..
To have a (10) ………………………………….. area for socializing

Section 2: Questions 11-20

Questions 11-13

Complete the table below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS.

PARKS AND OPEN SPACES

Name of place	Of particular interest	Open
Halland Common	source of river Ouse	24 hours
Hot Island	many different (11) …………………………………..	between (12) ………………………………….. and …………………………………..
Longfield Country Park	reconstruction of a 2,000 year old (13) ………………………………….. with activities for children	daylight hours

Questions 14-16

Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

Longfield Park

14. As part of Monday’s activity, visitors will
    1. prepare food with herbs
    2. meet a well-known herbalist
    3. dye cloth with herbs
15. For the activity on Wednesday,
    1. only group bookings are accepted
    2. visitors should book in advance
    3. attendance is free
16. For the activity on Saturday, visitors should
    1. come in suitable clothing
    2. make sure they are able to stay for the whole day
    3. tell the rangers before the event what they wish to do

Questions 17-20

Label the map below.

Write the correct letter A-I next to questions 17-20.

17. bird hide …………………………
18. dog-walking area …………………………
19. flower garden …………………………
20. wooded area …………………………

Section 3: Questions 21-24

Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

Self-Access Centre

21. Students want to keep the Self-Access Centre because
    1. they enjoy the variety of equipment
    2. they like being able to work on their own
    3. it is an important part of their studies
22. 22. Some teachers would prefer to
    1. close the Self-Access Centre
    2. move the Self-Access Centre elsewhere
    3. restrict access to the Self-Access Centre
23. The students’ main concern about using the library would be
    1. the size of the library
    2. difficulty in getting help
    3. the lack of materials
24. The Director of Studies is concerned about
    1. the cost of upgrading the centre
    2. the lack of space in the centre
    3. the difficulty in supervising the centre

Questions 25-30

Complete the notes below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS.

Necessary improvements to the existing Self-Access Centre
Equipment
Replace computers to create more space
Resources
The level of the (25) ………………………… materials, in particular, should be more clearly shown.
Update the (26) ………………………… collection.
Buy some (27) ………………………… and divide them up.
Use of the room
Speak to the teachers and organize a (28) ………………………… for supervising the centre.
Install an (29) …………………………
Restrict personal use of (30) ………………………… on computers.

Section 3: Questions 31-40

Complete the notes below.

Write ONE WORD ONLY.

Business Culture

Power Culture
Characteristics of organisation:	– small – (31) ………………………… power source – few rules and procedures – communication by (32) …………………………
Advantages:	– can act quickly
Disadvantages:	– might not act (33) …………………………
Suitable employee:	– not afraid of (34) ………………………… – does not need job security
Role Culture
Characteristics of organisation:	– large, many (35)……………. – specialized departments – rules and procedures e.g. job (36) ………………………… and rules for discipline
Advantages:	– economies of scale – successful when (37) ………………………… ability is important
Disadvantages:	– slow to see when (38) ………………………… is needed – slow to react
Suitable employee:	– does not want (39) …………………………
Task Culture
Characteristics of organisation:	– project oriented – in competitive market or making product with short life
Advantages:	– (40) …………………………

Section 1 Answers Cambridge 9 Listening Test 2

1. Bhatt
2. 31 March
3. nursing
4. 2
5. meat
6. bedsit
7. theatre
8. mature/ older
9. town
10. shared

Section 2 Answers Cambridge 9 Listening Test 2

11. trees
12. Friday/ Sunday
13. farm
14. C
15. B
16. A
17. A
18. I
19. F
20. E

Section 3 Answers Cambridge 9 Listening Test 2

21. C
22. B
23. B
24. C
25. reading
26. CD
27. workbooks
28. timetable
29. alarm
30. emails

Section 4 Answers Cambridge 9 Listening Test 2

31. central
32. conversations
33. effectively
34. risks
35. levels
36. descriptions
37. technical
38. change
39. responsibility
40. flexible

Section 1: Questions 1-10

Complete the notes below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer

JOB ENQUIRY

Example:

• Works at ……a restuarant………

• Type of work: (1) ………………………….
• Number of hours per week: 12 hours
• Would not need work permit
• Work in the: (2) …………………………….branch
• Nearest bus stop: next to (3) …………………………
• Pay (4) ￡ ………………………. an hour
• Extra benefits
  • a free dinner
  • extra pay when you work on (5)…………………………….
  • transport home when you work (6)……………………………..
• Qualities required
  • (7) …………………………………
  • ability to (8) ………………………………..
• Interview arranged for: Thursday (9) ………………………………….. at 6 p.m.
• Bring the names of two referees
• Ask for: Samira (10) …………………………….

Section 2: Questions 11-20

Questions 11-16

Complete the notes below.

Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

SPORTS WORLD

• a new (11) …………………………………..of an international sports goods company
• located in the shopping centre to the (12) ………………………………….. of Bradcaster
• has sports (13) ………………………………….. and equipment on floors 1 – 3
• can get you any item within (14) ………………………………….. days
• shop specialises in equipment for (15) …………………………………..
• has a special section which just sells (16) …………………………………..

Questions 17 and 18

Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

17. A champion athlete will be in the shop
    1. on Saturday morning only
    2. all day Saturday
    3. for the whole weekend
18. The first person to answer 20 quiz questions correctly will win
    1. gym membership
    2. a video
    3. a calendar

Questions 19 and 20

Choose TWO letters, A-E.

Which TWO pieces of information does the speaker give about the fitness test?

1. You need to reserve a place
2. It is free to account holders
3. You get advice on how to improve your health
4. It takes place in a special clinic
5. It is cheaper this month

Section 3: Questions 21-30

Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

Course Feedback

21. One reason why Spiros felt happy about his marketing presentation was that
    1. he was not nervous
    2. his style was good
    3. the presentation was the best in his group
22. What surprised Hiroko about the other students’ presentations?
    1. Their presentations were not interesting ‘
    2. They found their presentations stressful
    3. They didn’t look at the audience enough
23. After she gave her presentation, Hiroko felt
    1. delighted
    2. dissatisfied
    3. embarrassed
24. How does Spiros feel about his performance in tutorials?
    1. not very happy
    2. really pleased
    3. fairly confident
25. Why can the other students participate so easily in discussions?
    1. They are polite to each other
    2. They agree to take turns in speaking
    3. They know each other well
26. Why is Hiroko feeling more positive about tutorials now?
    1. She finds the other students’ opinions more interesting
    2. She is making more of a contribution
    3. The tutor includes her in the discussion
27. To help her understand lectures, Hiroko
    1. consulted reference materials
    2. had extra tutorials with her lecturers
    3. borrowed lecture notes from other students
28. What does Spiros think of his reading skills?
    1. He reads faster than he used to
    2. It still takes him a long time to read
    3. He tends to struggle with new vocabulary
29. What is Hiroko’s subject area?
    1. environmental studies
    2. health education
    3. engineering
30. Hiroko thinks that in the reading classes the students should
    • A learn more vocabulary
    • B read more in their own subject areas
    • C develop better reading strategies

Section 4: Questions 31-40

Complete the notes below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS.

Mass Strandings of Whales and Dolphins

Mass strandings: situations where groups of whales, dolphins, etc. swim onto the beach and die
Common in areas where the (31) ………………………………….. can change quickly
Several other theories:

Parasites
e.g. some parasites can affect marine animals’ (32) ………………………………….. ,which they depend on for navigation

Toxins
Poisons from (33) ………………………………….. or are commonly consumed by whales
e.g. Cape Cod (1988) – whales were killed by saxitoxin
Accidental Strandings
Animals may follow prey ashore, e.g. Thurston (1995)
Unlikely because the majority of animals were not (34) ………………………………….. when they stranded

Human Activity
(35) ………………………………….. from military tests are linked to some recent strandings
The Bahamas (2000) stranding was unusual because the whales
• were all (36) …………………………………..
• were not in a (37) …………………………………..

Group Behaviour
• More standings in the most (38) ………………………………….. species of whales
• 1994 dolphin stranding – only the (39) ………………………………….. was ill
Further Reading
Marine Mammals Ashore (Connor) – gives information about stranding (40) …………………………………..

Section 1 Answers Cambridge 9 Listening Test 1

1. answering the phone
2. hillsdunne road
3. library
4. 4.45
5. national holidays
6. after 11’o clock
7. clear voice
8. think quickly
9. 22 october
10. Manuja

Section 2 Answers Cambridge 9 Listening Test 1

11. branch
12. west
13. clothing
14. 10
15. running
16. bags
17. A
18. A
19. A
20. E

Section 3 Answers Cambridge 9 Listening Test 1

21. B
22. C
23. B
24. A
25. C
26. B
27. A
28. B
29. C
30. B

Section 4 Answers Cambridge 9 Listening Test 1

31. tides
32. hearing/ ears
33. plants and animals
34. feeding
35. noises
36. healthy
37. group
38. social
39. leader
40. networks

Part 1: Questions 1-10

Complete the notes below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS OR A NUMBER.

WEST BAY HOTEL – DETAILS OF JOB

• Newspaper advert for temporary staff
• Vacancies for (1) ……………………
• Two shifts
• Can choose your (2) …………………… (must be the same each week)
• Pay: £5.50 per hour including a (3) ……………………
• A (4) …………………… is provided in the hotel
• Total weekly pay: £231
• Dress: a white shirt and (5) …………………… trousers (not supplied), a (6) …………………… (supplied)
• Starting date: (7) ……………………
• Call Jane (8) …………………… (service manage) before (9) …………………… tomorrow (Tel: 832009)
• She will require a (10) ……………………

Part 2: Questions 11-13

Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

Improvements to Red Hill Suburb

11. Community groups are mainly concerned about
    1. pedestrian safety
    2. traffic jams
    3. increased pollution
12. It has been decided that the overhead power lines will be
    1. extended
    2. buried
    3. repaired
13. The expenses related to the power lines will be paid by
    1. the council
    2. the power company
    3. local businesses

Questions 14-20

Label the map below.

Write the correct letter A-H next to questions 14-20.

14. Trees
15. Wider footpaths
16. Coloured road surface
17. New sign
18. Traffic lights
19. Artwork
20. Children’s playground

Part 3: Questions 21 and 22

Choose TWO letters A-E.

In which TWO ways is Dan financing his course?

1. He is receiving money from the government
2. His family are willing to help him
3. The college is giving him a small grant
4. His local council is supporting him for a limited period
5. A former employer is providing partial funding

Questions 23 and 24

Choose TWO letters, A-E.

Which TWO reasons does Jeannie give for deciding to leave some college clubs?

1. She is not sufficiently challenged
2. The activity interferes with her studies
3. She does not have enough time
4. The activity is too demanding physically
5. She does not think she is any good at the activity

Questions 25 and 26

Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

25. What does Dan say about the seminars on the course?
    1. The other students do not give him a chance to speak
    2. The seminars make him feel inferior to the other students
    3. The preparation for seminars takes too much time
26. What does Jeannie say about the tutorials on the course?
    1. They are an inefficient way of providing guidance
    2. They are more challenging than she had expected
    3. They are helping her to develop her study skills

Questions 27-30

Complete the flow chart below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS OR A NUMBER.

Advice on exam preparation
Make sure you know the exam requirements
Find some past papers
Work out your (27)………………..for revision and write them on a card
Make a (28)……………….and keep it in view
Divide revision into (29)…………….about each topic
Write one (30)…………….about each topic
Practice writing some exam answers

Part 4: Questions 31-36

Australian Aboriginal Rock Paintings

Which painting styles have the following features?

Write the correct letter A, B or C next to questions 31-36.

Features

31. figures revealing bones
32. rounded figures
33. figures with parts missing
34. figures smaller than life size
35. sea creatures
36. plants

Painting Styles

1. Dynamic
2. Yam
3. Modern

Questions 37-40

Complete the notes below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS.

RAINBOW SERPENT PROJECT

Aim of project: to identify the (37) …………………… used as the basis for the Rainbow Serpent
Yam Period:
• Environmental changes led to higher (38) ……………………
• Traditional activities were affected especially (39) ……………………

Rainbow Serpent Image
• Similar to a sea horse
• Unusual because it appeared in inland areas
• Symbolises (40) …………………… in Aboriginal culture

Section 1 Answers Cambridge 8 Listening Test 4

1. waiters
2. day off
3. break
4. meal
5. dark (colored)
6. jacket
7. 28 June
8. Urwin
9. noon
10. reference

Section 2 Answers Cambridge 8 Listening Test 4

11. A
12. B
13. B
14. C
15. D
16. G
17. B
18. F
19. A
20. E

Section 3 Answers Cambridge 8 Listening Test 4

21. B
22. E
23. A
24. C
25. B
26. C
27. priorities
28. timetable
29. (small) tasks
30. (single) paragraph

Section 4 Answers Cambridge 8 Listening Test 4

31. C
32. B
33. C
34. A
35. B
36. B
37. animal
38. sea level
39. hunting
40. creation

Part 1: Questions 1-3

Complete the form below.

Write ONE WORD OR A NUMBER.

Rented Properties Customer’s Requirements
Name: Steven Godfrey
No. of bedrooms: 4
Preferred location: in the (1) …………………… area of town
Maximum monthly rent: (2) …………………… £
Length of let required: (3) ……………………
Starting: September 1st

Questions 4-8

Complete the table below.

Write ONE WORD OR A NUMBER.

Address	Rooms	Monthly Rent	Problem
Oakington Avenue	living/ dining room, separate kithche	£ 550	no (4)……………
Mead Street	large living room and kitchen, bathroom and a cloakroom	£ 580	the (5)………….is too large
Hamilton Road	living room, kitchen, diner and a (6)………………..	£ 550	too (7)…………..
Devon Close	living room, dining room, small kitchen	(8) £…………..	none

Questions 9 and 10

Choose TWO letters, A-E.

Which TWO facilities in the district of Devon Close are open to the public at the moment?

1. museum
2. concert hall
3. cinema
4. sports centre
5. swimming pool

Part 2: Questions 11-16

Complete the notes below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS OR A NUMBER.

THE NATIONAL ARTS CENTER
Well known for: (11) …………………..
Complex consists of: concert rooms, theatres, cinemas, art galleries, public library, restaurants and
a (12) …………………..
Historical background: 1940-area destroyed by bombs
1960s-1970s – centre was (13)………………….. and built in (14) …………………..– opened to public
Managed by: the (15)…………………..
Open: (16)………………….. days per year

Questions 17-20

Complete the table below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER.

Day	Time	Event	Venue	Ticket price
Monday and Tuesday	7.30 pm	The Magic Flute	(17)………..	from £ 8
Wednesday	8.00 pm	(18)……………(Canadian Film)	Cinema 2	(19) £………..
Saturday and Sunday	11 am to 10 pm	(20)…………..(art exhibition)	Gallery 1	free

Part 3: Questions 21-26

Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

Latin American Studies

21. Paul decided to get work experience in South America because he wanted
    1. to teach English there
    2. to improve his Spanish
    3. to learn about Latin American life
22. What project work did Paul originally intend to get involved in?
    1. construction
    2. agriculture
    3. tourism
23. 23 Why did Paul change from one project to another?
    1. His first job was not well organized
    2. He found doing the routine work very boring
    3. The work was too physically demanding
24. In the village community, he learnt how important it was to
    1. respect family life
    2. develop trust
    3. use money wisely
25. What does Paul say about his project manager?
    1. He let Paul do most of the work
    2. His plans were too ambitious
    3. He was very supportive of Paul
26. Paul was surprised to be given
    1. a computer to use
    2. so little money to live on
    3. an extension to his contract

Questions 27-30

What does Paul decide about each of the following modules?

Write the correct letter A, B or C next to questions 27-30.

Module
27. Gender studies in Latin America
28. Second language acquisition
29. Indigenous women’s lives
30. Portuguese language studies

A He will do this.
B He might do this.
C He won’t do this.

Part 4: Questions 31-34

Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

Trying to repeat success

31. Compared to introducing new business processes, attempts to copy existing processes are
    1. more attractive
    2. more frequent
    3. more straightforward
32. Most research into the repetition of success in business has
    1. been done outside the United States
    2. produced consistent findings
    3. related to only a few contexts
33. What does the speaker say about consulting experts?
    1. Too few managers ever do it
    2. It can be useful in certain circumstances
    3. Experts are sometimes unwilling to give advice
34. An expert’s knowledge about a business system may be incomplete because
    1. some details are difficult for workers to explain
    2. workers choose not to mention certain details
    3. details are sometimes altered by workers

Questions 35-40

Complete the notes below.

Write ONE WORD ONLY.

Setting up systems based on an existing process
Two mistakes:
Manager tries to:
• Improve on the original process
• Create an ideal (35) ………………….. from the best parts of several processes

Cause of problems
• Information was inaccurate
• Comparison between the business settings was invalid
• Disadvantages were overlooked e.g. effect of changes on (36) …………………..

Solution
• Change (37) …………………..
• Impose rigorous (38) …………………..
• Copy original very closely:
o Physical features of the (39) …………………..
o The (40) ………………….. of original employees

Section 1: Questions 1-10

Questions 1-3
Complete the form below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER.

TOTAL INSURANCE INCIDENT REPORT

Name:	Michael Alexander
Address:	24 Mainly Street, (1) ……………………………, Sydney
Shipping agent:	(2)……………………………..
Place of origin:	China
Date of arrival:	(3)……………………………….
Reference number:	601ACK

Questions 4-10
Complete the table below.

Write ONE WORD OR A NUMBER.

Item	Damage	Cost to repair/ replace
Television	the (4)…………….needs to be replaced	not known
The (5)…………..cabinet	the (6)…………..of the cabinet is damaged	(7) $……………
Dining room table	a (8)……………..is split	$ 200
Set of china	six (9)…………….were broken	about (10) $……………in total

Part 2: Question 11-20
Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

11. According to the speaker, the main purposes of the park are
    1. education and entertainment
    2. research and education
    3. research and entertainment

Questions 12-14
Label the plan below.

Write NO MORE THAN WORDS.

(12)……………………………………
(13)……………………………………
(14)……………………………………

Questions 15-20
Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

15. When are the experimental areas closed to the public?
    1. all the year round
    2. almost all the year
    3. a short time every year16.
16. How can you move around the park?
    1. by tram, walking or bicycle
    2. by solar car or bicycle
    3. by bicycle, walking or bus
17. The rare breed animals kept in the park include
    1. hens and horses
    2. goats and cows
    3. goats and hens
18. What is the main purpose of having the Rare Breeds Section?
    1. to save unusual animals
    2. to keep a variety of breeds
    3. to educate the public
19. What can you see in the park at the present time?
    1. the arrival of wild birds
    2. fruit tree blossom
    3. a demonstration of fishing
20. The shop contains books about
    1. animals
    2. local traditions
    3. the history of the park

Part 3: Questions 21-30
Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

Questions 21-24

Honey Bees in Australia

21. Where in Australia have Asian honey bees been found in the past?
    1. Queensland
    2. New South Wales
    3. several states
22. A problem with Asian honey bees is that they
    1. attack native bees
    2. carry parasites
    3. damage crops
23. What point is made about Australian bees?
    1. Their honey varies in quality
    2. Their size stops them from pollinating some flowers
    3. They are sold to customers abroad
24. Grant Freeman says that if Asian honey bees got into Australia,
    1. the country’s economy would be affected
    2. they could be used in the study of allergies
    3. certain areas of agriculture would benefit

Questions 25-30
Complete the summary below. Write ONE WORD ONLY.

LOOKING FOR ASIAN HONEY BEES

Birds called Rainbow Bee Eaters eat only (25) ……………………………….and cough up small bits of skeleton and other products in a pellet.
Researchers go to the locations the bee eaters like to use for (26) ……………………………….
They collect the pellets and take them to a (27) ………………………………. for analysis.
Here (28) ………………………………. is used to soften them, and the researchers look for the (29) ………………………………. of Asian bees in the pellets.
The benefit of this research is that the result is more (30) ………………………………. than searching for live Asian bees.

Section 4: Questions 31-40

Questions 31-36
Choose the correct letter A, B or C..

Research on questions about doctors
31. In order to set up her research programme, Shona got
A advice from personal friends in other countries
B help from students in- other countries
C information from her tutor’s contacts in other countries

32. What types of people were included in the research?
A young people in their first job
B men who were working
C women who were unemployed

33. Shona says that in her questionnaire her aim was
A to get a wide range of data
B to limit people’s responses
C to guide people through interviews.

34. What do Shona’s initial results show about medical services in Britain?
A Current concerns are misrepresented by the press
B Financial issues are critical to the government
C Reforms within hospitals have been unsuccessful

35. Shona needs to do further research in order to
A present the government with her findings
B decide the level of extra funding needed
C identify the preferences of the public

36. Shona has learnt from the research project that
A it is important to plan projects carefully
B people do not like answering questions
C colleagues do not always agree

Questions 37-40
Which statement applies to each of the following people who were interviewed by Shona?

Choose FOUR answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-F, next to questions 37-40.

A gave false data	B decided to stop participating	C refusal to tell Shona about their job
D kept changing their mind about participating	E became very angry with Shona	F was worried about confidentiality

People interviewed by Shona

37. a person interviewed in the street…………..

38. an undergraduate at the university…………..

39. a colleague in her department…………..

40. a tutor in a foreign university

(37)                  (38)
(39)                  (40)