Author: Admin

  • Cambridge IELTS 9 General Reading Test 2

    Section 1

    Read the text below and answer questions 1-7.

    The Young Person’s Railcard

    A Young Person’s Railcard gives young people the opportunity to purchase discounted rail tickets across Britain. Just imagine where it could take you – to festivals, to see distant friends or to London for a weekend break.

    Who can apply?
    Absolutely anybody between 16 and 25 can apply. You will need to provide proof that you are under 26 years of age. For this, only your birth certificate, driving licence, passport or medical card will be acceptable. Alternatively, if you are a mature student over this age but in full-time education, you can also apply. In order to prove your eligibility, you will need to get your headteacher, tutor, or head of department to sign the application form as well as one of your photos, the latter also needing to be officially stamped. ‘Full-time education’ is defined as over 15 hours per week for at least 20 weeks a year.

    Then go along to any major railway station, rail-appointed travel agent or authorised student travel office with your completed application form from this leaflet, together with £28, two passport-sized photos and proof of eligibility.

    Using your railcard
    You can use it at any time – weekends, Bank Holidays or during the week. But if you travel before 10 am Monday to Friday (except during July and August) minimum fares will apply. For full details of these, please ask at your local station or contact a rail-appointed travel agent.

    Conditions
    In cases where a railcard does not bear the user’s signature, it will be treated as invalid. Neither your railcard nor any tickets bought with it may be used by anybody else. Unless there are no purchase facilities available at the station where you began your journey, you will be required to pay the full fare if you are unable to produce a valid ticket for inspection during a journey.

    Reduced rate tickets are not available for first-class travel or for Eurostar links to France and Belgium. Passengers will be charged the full rate if they want to use these services.

    Questions 1-7

    Complete the sentences below.

    Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the text for each answer.

    Write your answers in boxes 1-7 on your answer sheet.

    1. Railcard applicants over 25 need to be involved in ………….
    2. For mature, full-time students, one of the photographs submitted must be signed and ……………
    3. At certain times of the year, there are no for………….. railcard holders at any time of day.
    4. If your railcard doesn’t have your……………… it will be impossible to use it for travel.
    5. The benefits of a railcard are not transferable to ……………
    6. If you have no ticket but boarded a train at a station without any…… you will still be eligible for a discounted ticket.
    7. If railcard holders wish to use the Eurostar network they must pay the ……………….

    Read the text below and answer Questions 8-14.

    TRAIN TRAVEL INFORMATION

    We offer several distinct options for you to choose the ticket that suits you best.
    TICKET TYPE DISCOUNT* NOTES
    standard returns 20% return within 60 days of outward trip
    same day returns 25% ticket cannot be altered or refunded
    children 40% children between 4 and 11
    students 25% student card Trust be shown
    senior citizens 25% seniors card must be shown
    groups (10-25 people) 15% discount on each section of the trip
    globe-trotter tickets according to ticket Railpass, Tourist Card, Econopass
    * Only one discount may apply to each fare.

    CHANGES AND REFUNDS
    Tickets may be refunded not later than 5 minutes before the departure of the train for a charge of 15% of the ticket price, or the journey may be changed to another day for a charge of 10% of the ticket price. (Not applicable to same day returns.)

    CHANGES FOR SAME DAY TRAVEL
    You may change your ticket once without charge for a journey on the same day as the original ticket.

    INFORMATION OF INTEREST TO TRAVELLERS
    • When you buy your ticket it is up to you to check that the dates and times of the journey on it are exactly as you requested.
    • Ticket control and access to each train platform will be open until 2 minutes before departure of the train.
    • Each traveller may take one suitcase and one item of hand Luggage. You may also check in 15kgs. of luggage not later than 30 minutes before departure, at no extra charge.
    • If you would like to charter a train, or make reservations for over 25 passengers travelling together, call the Sales Department.

    OUR TIMETABLE IS GUARANTEED
    If the arrival of your train at your destination is delayed by more than 5 minutes according to the timetable, we will refund the full price of your ticket if the delay is caused by our company

    Questions 8-14

    Complete the summary below.

    Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the text for each answer.

    Write your answers in boxes 8-14 on your answer sheet.

    An elderly person who is also studying full-time receives a concession of (8)………………. Large groups people who want to reserve seats should get in touch with the (9)……………..If travellers cancel their trip, they will usually receive back the ticket price less (10)………………… or they may change the date of their trip by paying (11)……………… of the original value. These concessions do not apply in the case of 12………… It is the passenger’s responsibility to make sure the (13)……………. and ……….. are correct.

    Travellers should ensure they are ready to board the train with a: least (14)………………. to spare. They may take a suitcase with them in the carriage as well as hand luggage. A traveller may check in 15 kilos maximum weight of luggage but his must be done at least 30 minutes before the train leaves.

    SECTION 2

    Read the text below and answer Questions 15-20.

    Professional Credentials: Advice for Immigrants

    As an immigrant to North America, you will need to ensure that employers and organisations such as colleges and universities properly recognise your international credentials. These may be trade certificates, but also educational qualifications such as degrees or diplomas, that you have completed or partially-completed.

    It is common for hiring personnel to have little or no training in evaluating an academic background earned outside of North America. But at the same time, employers see formal education as very important when hiring. Education is a hiring requirement for 60% of employment opportunities, but 40% of human resources staff say that if they do not know a lot about the value of documents attained elsewhere, they will not recognise them.

    Research has shown that sometimes immigrants start with a lower salary level than people who have completed their training in North America. You may want to apply for employment opportunities with companies whose staff understands your situation or, more importantly, who know where to send you to get your North American qualifications. If you need to complete your training in North America, apprenticeships leading to skilled trades are in high demand. Apprenticeship training is a hands-on program where about 10% is in a classroom setting at community colleges, and 90% of the training is at-the-job. The training involves working for an employer and earning income during the training period. Sometimes there is a limit of 5 years for training. You may be able to use this training toward college or university credits or education. There is a good potential for long-term job security after completion of apprenticeship training.

    If you earned your papers outside of North America, you will need to get them translated if you want to work or study. It is important for you that your education is assessed by an accredited assessment service when you are applying for jobs, and particularly if the job posting has an education requirement. As well, it is recommended that you include a copy of the report with your cover letter. It is suggested that you provide this information early and do not wait until the time you actually meet with the employer. Getting job interviews is more than 50% of the whole process of securing employment; and with an evaluation report, you want to make sure that employers are screening you ‘in rather than ‘out’.

    Establishing yourself in North America is a difficult process, but companies do consider integrating immigrants into the workforce important to the workplace mosaic. Employers are making significant progress in improving diversity at work

    Questions 15-20

    Complete the sentences below.

    Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the text for each answer.

    Write your answers in boxes 15-20 on your answer sheet.

    1. New arrivals to North America need to make sure that their academic qualifications or their…………… are accepted.
    2. A significant number of companies view…..…. as a major requirement.
    3. People educated in North America may initially be offered a higher………. than immigrants.
    4. ………… courses often provide more job stability.
    5. Most of the effort to find work is spent trying to obtain………
    6. As more newcomers enter the workforce………… increases.

    Read the text below and answer Questions 21-27.

    How to Prepare for a Presentation

    The first time your boss suggests that you formally present something to your department or a client, your reaction may be to panic. But remember that being asked to present is a compliment. Someone believes that you have valuable information to share with the group, and wants to listen to your ideas.

    You need to decide exactly what you will say during the allotted time. Condense your topic into one sentence. What do you want your audience to remember or learn from your talk? This is your big Idea’. Remember that you are dealing with the short attention spans of individuals who tend to have many things on their minds.

    Think of three main points you want to make to support your overall topic. Develop a story to demonstrate each of those concepts. This could be something that happened to you or someone you know, or something you read in a newspaper or magazine.

    We have all heard the saying A picture Is worth a thousand words. Think about how your presentation can be more interesting to watch. Props are a wonderful way to make your talk come alive. You could do something as simple as holding up a toy phone receiver when talking about customer service or putting on a hat to signal a different part of your talk.

    Think of a dynamic and unusual way to start your presentation. This might involve telling anecdotes that relate to your topic. Never begin with, ‘Thank you for inviting me here to talk with you today: You will put your audience to sleep right away. Start off enthusiastically so they will listen with curiosity and interest. After your energetic introduction, identify yourself briefly and thank the audience for taking the time to listen to you.

    Plan your ending, and finish in a memorable way. Your listen-s remember best what they hear at the beginning and end of a speech, so conclude with a game in which they can participate, or tell a humorous story and your audience will leave laughing.

    Don’t try to memorise your talk or read it word-for-word. It will sound stilted and boring. Instead, practise your dynamic Introduction and conclusion until you can deliver them effortlessly. If you do this you’ll feel a burst of confidence that will help you sail through the whole of the speech.

    Questions 21-27

    Complete the sentences below. Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the text for each answer.

    Write your answers in boxes 21-27 on your answer sheet.

    How to Prepare for a Presentation
    • You should regard an invitation to speak as a 21…………
    • Express your main idea in a 22……
    • Try using a……… 23 to support the major points you are making.
    • Add visual excitement to your talk by using 24………..
    • Express appreciation to your listeners for their 25………….
    • A 26……….. will get the audience to interact.
    • It is important to prepare well as this will increase your 27………….

    Section 3

    Read the text below and answer Questions 28-40.

    The Birdmen

    Will people finally be able to fly long distances without a plane?
    John Andres investigates

    People have dreamt of flying since written history began. In the 1400s, Leonardo da Vinci drew detailed plans for human flying machines. You might have thought the invention of mechanised flight would have put an end to such ideas. Far from it. For many enthusiasts, the ultimate flight fantasy is the jet pack, a small piece of equipment on your back which enables you to climb vertically into the air and fly forwards, backwards and turn. Eric Scott was a stuntman in Hollywood for about a decade and has strapped jet packs to his back more than 600 times and propelled himself hundreds of metres into the air. Now he works for an energy-drink company that pays him to travel around the world with his jet pack. As Scott says: ‘I get to do what I love and wherever I go I advertise Go Fast drinks. Existing packs work for little more than 30 seconds, but people are working on designs which let you fly around for 20 minutes. That would be amazing,’ says Scott.

    Paramotoring is another way of getting into the air. It combines the sort of parachute used in paragliding with a small engine and propeller and is now becoming popular. Chris Clarke has been flying a paramotor for five years. ‘Getting about is roughly comparable with driving a petrol-powered car in terms of expense. The trouble is that paramotoring is ill-suited to commuting because of the impossibility of taking off in strong winds,’ says Clarke.

    Another keen paramotorist recently experienced a close call when in the air. ‘I started to get a warm feeling in my back,’ says Patrick Vandenbulcke. ‘I thought I was just sweating. But then I started to feel burning and I realized I had to get to the ground fast. Aker an inspection of the engine later, I noticed that the exhaust pipe had moved during the flight and the harness had started melting.’ This hasn’t put Vandenbulcke off, however, and he is enthusiastic about persuading others to take up paramotoring. However he warns: ‘Although it seems cheaper to try to teach yourself, you will regret it later as you won’t have a good technique.’ A training course will cost over £1,000, while the equipment costs a few thousand pounds. You may pick up cheaper equipment secondhand, however. There was one pre-used kit advertised on a website, with a bit of damage to the cage and tips of the propellers due to a rough landing. ‘Scared myself to death,’ the seller reported, ‘hence the reason for this sale.’

    Fun though it is, paramotoring is not in the same league as the acrobatics demonstrated by Yves Rossy. He has always enjoyed being a daredevil showman. He once parachuted from a plane above Lake Geneva and, intentionally skimming the top of a fountain as he landed, he descended to the lake where he grabbed some water ski equipment and started waterskiing while the crowd watched open-mouthed.

    Rossy, who has been labelled ‘the Birdman, was born in 1959 in Switzerland. After flying planes for the air force from the ages of 20 to 28, he went on to do a job as a pilot with a commercial airline from 1988 to 2000. ‘The cockpit of a plane is the most beautiful office in the world,’ he says, ‘but I didn’t have any contact with the air around me. It was a bit like being in a box or a submarine under water.’ From then on, he therefore concentrated on becoming the first jet-powered flying man.

    In May 2008, he stepped out of an aircraft at about 3000 metres. Within seconds he was soaring and diving at over 290 kph, at one point reaching 300 kph, about 104 kph faster than the typical falling skydiver. His speed was monitored by a plane flying alongside. Rossy started his flight with a free fall, then he powered four jet turbines to keep him in the air before releasing a parachute which enabled him to float to the ground. The jet turbines are attached to special wings which he can unfold. The wings were manufactured by a German firm called JCT Composites. Initially he had approached a company called Jet-Ki: which specialised in miniature planes, but the wings they made for him weren’t rigid enough to support the weight of the engines. Rossy says he has become ‘the first person to maintain a stable horizontal flight, thanks to aerodynamic carbon foldable wings.’ Without these special wings, it is doubtful he would have managed to do this.

    Rossy’s ambitions include flying down the Grand Canyon. To do this, he will have to fit his wings with bigger, more powerful jets. The engines he currently uses already provide enough thrust to allow him to climb through the air, but then he needs the power to stay there. In terms of the physical strength involved, Rossy insists it’s no more difficult than riding a motorbike. ‘But even the slightest change in position can cause problems. I have to focus hard on relaxing in the air, because if you put tension in your body, you start to swing round.’ If he makes it, other fliers will want to know whether they too will some day be able to soar. The answer is yes, possibly, but it is unlikely to be more than an expensive hobby.

    Questions 28-30

    Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D. Write the correct letter in boxes 28-30 on your answer sheet.

    1. What information is given about Vandenbulcke in paragraph 3?
      1. He narrowly avoided a dangerous situation.
      2. He did not understand the equipment he was using.
      3. He did not react fast enough to the situation.
      4. He was fortunate to get the help he needed.
    2. When the writer refers to some second-hand paramotoing equipment which was for sale, he is emphasising that
      1. paramotoring equipment is in short supply
      2. paramotoring equipment needs to be carefully tested.
      3. paramotoring is a very expensive hobby.
      4. paramotoring can be a dangerous pastime.
    3. The description of what happened at Lake Geneva is given to suggest that Rossy
      1. frequently changes his plans.
      2. likes to do what appears impossible.
      3. is an excellent overall sportsman.
      4. knows the area very thoroughly.
    Questions 31-35

    Complete the summary below.

    Choose ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER from the text for each answer.

    Write your answers in boxes 31-35 on your answer sheet.

    Yves Rossy

    Yves Rossy was born in 1959. He worked as both a military and 31…….. pilot before focusing on his ambition of becoming a jet-powered flying man. First he asked a firm which made 32……….. planes to construct some 33…………. for him, but these proved unsuitable. The second company he approached was able to help him, however. On a flight in May 2008, he managed to achieve a top speed of 34………. easily exceeding the speed achieved by the average 35………… He lad engines to keep him in the air and then used a parachute when it was time to come down.

    Questions 36-40

    Look at the following statements (Questions 36-40) and the list of people below.

    Match each statement with the correct person, A, B, C or D.

    Write the correct letter, A, B, C or D, in boxes 36-40 on your answer sheet.

    1. He acknowledges the role of his equipment in enabling him to set a flying record.
    2. He explains how he uses his flying expertise to promote a product.
    3. He explains what led him to experiment with different ways of flying.
    4. He describes a mistake some beginners might make.
    5. He mentions circumstances which prevent you from leaving the ground.

    People

    1. Eric Scott
    2. Chris Clarke
    3. Patrick Vandenbulcke
    4. Yves Rossy
    Section 1 The Young Person’s Railcard Questions 1-7 Answers
    1. full-time education
    2. (officially) stamped
    3. minimum fares
    4. signature
    5. anybody else
    6. purchase facilities
    7. full fare/ rate
    Section 1 Questions 8-14 TRAIN TRAVEL INFORMATION Answers
    1. 25%
    2. sales department
    3. 15%
    4. 10%
    5. same day returns
    6. dates, times
    7. 2 minutes
    Section 2 Questions 15-20 Professional Credentials: Advice for Immigrants Answers
    1. trade certificates
    2. (formal) education
    3. salary (level)
    4. apprenticeship (training)
    5. (job) interview
    6. (workplace/workforce) diversity
    Section 2 Questions 21-27 How to Prepare for a Presentation Answers
    1. compliment
    2. sentence
    3. story
    4. props
    5. time
    6. game
    7. confidence
    Section 3 Questions 28-40 The Birdmen Answers
    1. A
    2. D
    3. B
    4. commercial
    5. miniature
    6. wings
    7. 300 kph
    8. skydivers
    9. D
    10. A
    11. D
    12. C
    13. B
  • Cambridge IELTS 9 General Reading Test 1

    Section 1

    Read the text below and answer questions 1-6.

    A
    HELP- snack bar serving person

    – Bright, friendly, experience not essential
    – Energy and enthusiasm an absolute must
    – Sat & Sun only
    – Call or drop in at Kingway Centre, Melbourne/ Royston
    – Tel: 01763 24272 and ask for the manager
    B
    Granta Hotel

    – Requires part time silver service waiter/ waitress
    – only applicants with experience and good references need apply
    – excellent wages, meals on duty
    – Tel: 01223 51468 (office hours)
    C
    WANTED from January till July a nanny/carer for Toby, 2 years
    – formal qualifications not as important as a sensible, warm and imaginative approach
    – Hours: 8.50 – 5.00 Mon-Fri
    – car driver essential, non-smoker
    -references required
    – for further details phone: 01480 88056 after 6 pm
    D
    Cleaner required for 12 floor modern office block in the Station road area St. Ives

    – 2 hours per day, Mondays to Fridays
    – to finish work before the office opens

    Wages: $80 per week
    Tel: 01223 93292
    E
    Mature, experienced administrator/ secretary for soft furnishing company, working within hotel industry

    Hours: 1 pm – 5 pm, Mon-Fri
    Phone: Mr. S Quinn 01353 71251
    F
    FULL – TIME COOK for a new and exciting cafe venture
    – good conditions
    – pay and hours can be negotiated

    Apply Red Cafe (01863) 72052
    G
    50 – SEATER REATAURANT TO LET
    – ideal for very experienced person looking to start up on their own
    – located on busy A10 road
    – reply Box No. P762, New Market Newspaper Ltd., 51 Cambridge Road, New Market, CB8 3BN
    Questions 1-6

    Look at the seven job advertisements, A-G, and read the descriptions of people below.

    Which is the most suitable job for each person?

    1. a person with two small children who wants a few hours a week of unskilled work in the early mornings
    2. a person with no experience or qualifications who is looking for a short term full¬time job, Monday to Friday
    3. a lively student with no experience, who cannot work on weekdays
    4. a person with more than 20 years’ experience in catering who would like to run a business
    5. a catering college graduate who is now looking for his first full-time job
    6. a person with many years’ experience working in hotels who is now looking for well- paid part-time employment in a hotel

    Read the text below and answer Questions 7-14.

    INTERCITY Sleeper between London and Scotland

    Most tickets may be used for travel by Sleeper, subject to availability, and a reservation in a two- berth cabin can be made for £25, except in the case of Solo and Special tickets, which include Sleeper reservations in the fare. The price includes early morning tea or coffee and biscuits. A continental or hot breakfast can be ordered if you wish.
    Choose from a range of tickets to suit your journey.

    A – SuperApex
    Only available for travel after 9am. Book at least 2 weeks ahead and travel between Edinburgh or Glasgow and London for the unbeatable price of £59 return. This ticket is non-refundable unless the service is cancelled.

    B – Apex
    Areal bargain fare. Only £69 return between Edinburgh or Glasgow and London. Great value Sleeper travel available by booking at least a week before outward travel. Ticket refundable on payment of a 25% administrative charge.

    C – SuperSaver
    Available right up to the day of travel and valid any day except these peak days: all Fridays, also 18-30 December, 31 March and 28 May. Departures between midnight and 2am count as previous day’s departures. London to Glasgow or Edinburgh £82.

    D – Saver
    This flexible ticket is valid every day and can be bought on the day of travel. Your ticket allows standard class travel on any train between 10am and midnight. No seat reservations available. London to Glasgow or Edinburgh £95.

    E – Solo
    Treat yourself and enjoy exclusive use of a Standard cabin. Solo is an inclusive return travel ticket with Sleeper reservations for one or both directions. Outward and return reservations should be made at the time of booking. The journey must include a Saturday night away. £140-£160 London to Edinburgh/Glasgow return.

    F – Special
    Special is an inclusive return travel package for two people including sleeper reservations for one or both directions. It can mean savings for both of you. Outward and return reservations should be made at the time of booking. From £120.

    G – Standard
    Not the cheapest option but available up to the time of travel and valid for all trains and at all times. You are advised to turn up early for travel on a Friday.

    Questions 7-14

    Look at the seven types of train ticket, A-G, in the previous text.

    For which type of train ticket are the following statements true?

    Write the correct letter, A-G, in boxes 7-14 on your answer sheet.

    NB You may use any letter more than once.

    1. There are advantages if you book a journey with a friend.
    2. You cannot use this on a Friday.
    3. This can be used without restriction.
    4. This can only be booked up to 7 days before departure.
    5. It’s the cheapest ticket available but there is a restriction on departure time.
    6. If you decide not to travel after you have bought the ticket, you cannot get your money back.
    7. This is not available if you’re travelling out on a Monday and back the next day.
    8. You cannot use this ticket for departures between midnight and 10am.

    Read the text below and answer Questions 15-21

    Formal Dress Code For Company Employees

    At Transit European, the company’s objective in establishing a formal dress code is to enable our employees to project the professional image that is in keeping with the needs of our clients and customers who seek our guidance, input, and professional services. Because our industry requires the appearance of trusted business professionals and we serve clients at our site on a daily basis, a more formal dress code is necessary for our employees.

    Formal Dress Code Guidelines
    In a formal business environment, the standard of dressing for men and women is a suit. Alternatively a jacket may be worn with appropriate accessories. Torn, dirty, or frayed clothing is unacceptable. Clothing should be pressed and never wrinkled. No dress code can cover all contingencies so employees must exert a certain amount of judgement in their choice of clothing to wear to work. If you experience uncertainty, please ask your supervisor for advice.

    Shoes and Footwear
    Conservative walking shoes, dress shoes, loafers, boots, flats, dress heels, and backless shoes are acceptable for work. Not wearing stockings or socks is inappropriate. Tennis shoes and any shoe with an open toe are not acceptable in the office.

    Accessories and Jewellery
    The wearing of ties, scarves, belts, and jewellery is encouraged, provided they are tasteful. Items which are flashy should be avoided.

    Makeup, Perfume, and Cologne
    A professional appearance is encouraged and excessive makeup is unprofessional. Remember that some employees may have allergic reactions to the chemicals in perfumes and makeup, so wear these substances in moderation.

    Hats and Head Covering
    Hats are not appropriate in the office. Head covers that are required for reasons of faith or to honour cultural tradition are permitted.

    Dress Down Days
    Certain days can be declared dress down days, generally Fridays. On these days, business casual clothing is allowed. Clothing that has our company logo is strongly encouraged. Sports team, university, and fashion brand names on clothing are generally acceptable. However, you may wish to keep a jacket in your office in case a client unexpectedly appears.

    Violation of Dress Code
    If clothing fails to meet these standards, as determined by the employee’s supervisor, the employee will be asked not to wear the inappropriate item to work again. If the problem persists, the employee will receive a verbal warning and may be sent home to change clothes.

    Question 15-21

    Complete the notes below.

    Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the text for each answer.

    Write your answers in boxes 15-21 on your answer sheet.

    NOTES ON COMPANY DRESS CODE

    Aim of formal dress code: to present a (15)……………….to clients
    Acceptable types of formal clothing: jacket or suit
    State of clothes: they must be (16)……………………….and in good condition
    Footwear: tennis shoes and open toe shoes are not allowed
    Accessories: ties, scarves, belts and jewellery may be worn
    -these must be (17)………………and not brightly coloured
    Make up: avoid wearing too much make up and perfume.
    -these sometimes cause (18)………………………
    Hats: hats should not be worn
    -head covers in line with religious reasons or (19)…………………..are allowed
    Dressing down: casual clothing is allowed on some Fridays
    -clothing with the (20)………………………..on it is recommended
    Breaking the dress code: if advice is repeatedly ignored, a (21)………………………..is given

    Read the text below and answer Questions 22-27

    JLP Retail: Staff Benefits

    Whatever your role, your pay range will be extremely competitive and reviewed in the light of your progress. In addition to your salary, you will enjoy an array of excellent benefits from the moment you join the company.

    Paid holiday
    The holiday entitlement is four weeks per year, rising to five weeks after three years (or in the case of IT graduate trainees, after promotion to programmer or trainee analyst). There are further long-service increases for most staff after ten or fifteen years. Managers, including graduate trainees, receive five weeks’ holiday from the outset.

    Pension scheme
    We offer a non-contributory final salary pension scheme, payable from the age of 60, to most staff who have completed the qualifying period of five years.

    Life assurance
    Our life assurance scheme pays a sum equivalent to three times your annual salary to your nominated beneficiary.

    Discounts
    After three months’ service, all staff are entitled to a 12% discount on most purchases from the company’s stores. This rises to 25% after one year’s service.

    Subsidised dining room
    In most sites, we provide a dining room where you can enjoy excellent food at very reasonable prices.

    Holiday and leisure facilities
    The business owns a number of residential clubs which offer subsidised holiday accommodation for staff with at least three years’ service.

    Sports clubs
    We support an extensive range of sports activities including football, netball, golf, skiing, sailing, squash, riding and gliding.

    Ticket subsidies
    Ticket subsidies of 50% of the cost of plays or concerts are available. Staff may also take advantage of corporate membership to bodies such as the Science Museum.

    Education subsidies
    We give generous financial support to staff who wish to acquire leisure skills or continue their education, e.g. through the Open University or evening classes.

    Extended leave
    Staff who complete 25 years’ service can enjoy paid sabbatical leave of up to six months.

    Health services
    We have an occupational health service staffed by full-time doctors and health advisers.

    Financial help, benefits and discounted deals
    In cases of particular hardship, we will help staff with a loan. We have also negotiated a range of benefits for staff such as discounted private healthcare and a car purchase scheme, along with a number of one-off deals with hotels and amusement parks.

    Questions 22-27

    Complete the sentences below.

    Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER from the text for each answer.

    Write your answers in boxes 22-27 on your answer sheet.

    1. Pay increases depend on the that each member of staff makes.
    2. Employees must work a minimum of to be eligible for a pension.
    3. Staff may take a holiday at one of the provided by the company.
    4. The company pay half the seat price for and plays.
    5. The company gives financial assistance for both educational courses and as part of staff development.
    6. Employees may be entitled to a if they find themselves in difficult circumstances.

    Section 3

    A On the afternoon of 30th August 1989, fire broke out at Uppark, a large eighteenth- century house in Sussex. For a year builders had been replacing the lead on the roof, and by a stroke of irony, were due to finish the next day, on August 31st. Within fifteen minutes of the alarm being sounded, the fire brigade had arrived on the scene, though nothing was to survive of the priceless collection on the first floor apart from an oil painting of a dog which the firemen swept up as they finally retreated from the blaze. But due to the courage and swift action of the previous owners, the Meade-Featherstonhaugh family, and the staff, stewards and visitors to the house, who formed human chains to pass the precious pieces of porcelain, furniture and paintings out on to the lawn, 95 per cent of the contents from the ground floor and the basement were saved. As the fire continued to rage, the National Trust’s conservators were being mobilised, and that evening local stationers were especially opened to provide the bulk supplies of blotting paper so desperately needed in the salvage operation.

    B The following morning, Uppark stood open to the sky. A sludge of wet charcoal covered the ground floor and basement, and in every room charred and fallen timbers lay amongst the smoke. It was a scene of utter devastation.

    C After the initial sense of shock, the days which followed the fire were filled with discoveries. Helped by volunteers, the National Trust’s archaeologists and conservators swung into action, first of all marking the site out into a grid and then salvaging everything down to the last door handle. The position of each fragment was recorded, and all the debris was stored in countless dustbins before being shifted and categorised.

    D There was great excitement as remnants of the lantern from the Staircase Hall were pulled out from the debris of two fallen floors, and also three weeks later when the Red Room carpet, thought to have been totally lost, was found wrapped around the remains of a piano. There was a lucky reprieve for the State Bed too. Staff who had left the scene at 3am on the night of the fire had thought its loss was inevitable, but when they returned the next morning it had escaped largely undamaged. Firemen, directed by the National Trust’s conservators from outside the Tapestry Room window, dismantled the silk-hung bed and passed it out piece by piece. Twenty minutes later the ceiling fell in.

    E The scale of the task to repair Uppark was unprecedented in the National Trust. The immediate question was whether it should be done at all. A decision had to be whatever had not been damaged by the fire was exposed to the elements. Within a month, after consulting many experts and with the agreement of the National Trust’s Executive Committee, the restoration programme began. It was undertaken for three main reasons. After the fire it had become apparent just how much remained of the structure with its splendidly decorated interiors; to have pulled the house down, as one commentator suggested, would have been vandalism. Also the property was covered by insurance, so the repairs would not call upon the National Trust’s own funds. Lastly, much had been saved of the fine collection acquired especially for Uppark from 1747 by Sir Matthew Featherstonhaugh and his son Harry. These objects belonged nowhere else, and complete restoration of the house would allow them to be seen and enjoyed again in their original setting.

    F The search for craftsmen and women capable of doing the intricate restoration work was nation-wide. Once the quality and skill of the individual or company had been ascertained, they had to pass an economic test, as everyjob was competitively tendered. This has had enormous benefits because not only have a number of highly skilled people come to the fore – woodcarvers for example, following in the footsteps of Grinling Gibbons – but many of them, for example plasterers, have relearnt the skills of the seventeenth and eighteenth centuries which can now be of use to other country house owners when the need arises.

    G In june 1994 the building programme was completed, on time and on budget. The total cost of the work to repair the house and its contents came to be nearly £20 million, largely met from insurance. In addition, it made economic sense for the National Trust to invest time and money in upgrading water and heating systems, installing modern environmental controls, and updating fire and security equipment.

    H The final stages of restoration and the massive programme of reinstallation took eight months. The family and the room stewards were visibly moved when returning to their old haunts, perhaps the best testament that the spirit of Uppark had not died. But the debate will no doubt continue as to whether or not it was right to repair the house after the fire. The National Trust has done its best to remain true to Uppark; it is for others to judge the success of the project.

    Note: The National Trust is a charitable organisation in Britain set up over a hundred years ago to preserve the national heritage.

    Question 28-33

    The text below has eight paragraphs A-H.

    Write the appropriate letters, A-H, in boxes 28-33 on your answer sheet.

    Which paragraphs contain the following information?

    1. the procedure for sorting through the remains of the fire
    2. how Uppark looked after the fire
    3. improvements made to the rebuilt Uppark
    4. the selection of people to carry out the repair work
    5. why the National Trust chose to rebuild Uppark
    6. how people reacted to the rebuilt Uppark
    Questions 34-37

    Answer the questions below.

    Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the text for each answer.

    Write your answers in boxes 34-37 on your answer sheet.

    1. On what date in 1989 should the original repairs to the roof have been completed?
    2. By what method were things rescued immediately from the burning house?
    3. After the fire, what did the conservators require large quantities of immediately?
    4. Into what did the conservation put material recovered from the fire?
    Question 38-40

    Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.

    Write the correct letter in boxes 38-40 on your answer sheet.

    1. The fire destroyed
      1. all the contents of the ground floor.
      2. most of the contents of the basement.
      3. the roof of the house.
      4. all the contents of the first floor.
    2. One of the reasons the National Trust decided to rebuild Uppark was that
      1. the Meade-Featherstonhaugh family wanted them to.
      2. the building as it stood was unsound.
      3. they wouldn’t have to pay for the repairs.
      4. nothing on this scale had been tried before.
    3. Some of the craftsmen and women employed in the restoration of Uppark have benefited because
      1. they were very well paid for doing intricate work.
      2. their businesses have become more competitive.
      3. they were able to work with Grinling Gibbons
      4. they acquired skills they did not have previously.
    Section 1 Questions 1-6 Answers
    1. D
    2. C
    3. A
    4. G
    5. F
    6. B
    Section 1 Questions 7-14 INTERCITY Sleeper between London and Scotland Answers
    1. F
    2. C
    3. G
    4. B
    5. A
    6. A
    7. E
    8. D
    Section 2 Questions 15-21 Formal Dress Code For Company Employees Answers
    1. Professional IMAGE
    2. Pressed
    3. Tasteful
    4. allergic reactions
    5. cultural tradition
    6. company logo
    7. verbal warning
    Section 2 Questions 22-27 JLP Retail: Staff Benefits Answers
    1. progress
    2. five years
    3. (residential) clubs
    4. concerts
    5. leisure skills
    6. loan
    Section 3 Questions 28-40 Section 3 Answers
    1. C
    2. B
    3. G
    4. F
    5. E
    6. H
    7. august 31st
    8. human chain/chains
    9. blotting paper
    10. (countless) dustbins
    11. C
    12. C
    13. D
  • Cambridge IELTS 10 General Reading Test 2

    Section 1

    Read the text below and answer questions 1-7.

    Passport Application

    You will need to fill in an application for a passport in the following circumstances: if you are applying for a passport for the first time, if you wish to replace your current passport, if your passport has expired, or if it has been lost or stolen. Your application form must be completed in your own handwriting.

    As proof of your citizenship and identity, you must enclose either your passport or your birth certificate. All documents must be originals; these will be returned with your passport.

    The standard time to process an application is up to 10 working days. The processing begins from when we have received the completed application form. Applicants should expect delays if the Passport Office receives a form with missing information. Extra time should be allowed for delivery to and from the Passport Office.

    Please provide two identical passport photos of yourself. Both photos must be the same in all respects and must be less than 12 months old.

    Ask someone who can identify you to fill in the ‘Proof of Identity’ information and identify one of your photos. This person will be called your witness and needs to meet the following requirements: a witness must be aged 1 6 years or over, be contactable by phone during normal office hours and be the holder of a valid passport. A witness should fill in the ‘Proof of Identity’ page in their own handwriting. A witness must also write the full name of the person applying for the passport on the back of one of the photos, sign their own name and date the back of the same photo. Photos with this identifying information written in the applicant’s own handwriting will not be accepted.

    Questions 1-7

    Do the following statements agree with the information given in the text above?

    In boxes 1-7, write

    • TRUE                if the statement agrees with the information
    • FALSE              if the statement contradicts the information
    • NOT GIVEN        if there is no information on this
    1. A husband can fill in an application form for his wife.
    2. Photocopies of documents are acceptable in some circumstances.
    3. An incomplete application will affect processing time.
    4. The passport photos included with your application must be in colour.
    5. A witness can be a relative of the applicant.
    6. Anyone acting as a witness must have a passport.
    7. The passport applicant must sign their name on the back of both photos.

    Read the text below and answer questions 8-14.

    Auckland International Airport Services

    A The second floor of the international terminal offers a view of the airfield and all incoming and outgoing flights. There is a cafe situated here as well as a restaurant, which is available for all airport visitors to use.

    B We are open for all international flights and provide a comprehensive service for visitors to the city. Brochures on a range of attractions are available, and we also offer a booking service for accommodation and transport. Shuttle buses into the city centre are provided at a competitive price.

    C Passengers who require urgent medical attention should dial 9877 on any public telephone in the terminal. The airport pharmacy is located on the ground floor near the departure lounge, and stocks a comprehensive range of products.

    D Departing passengers can completely seal their luggage or packages in recyclable polythene to protect them from damage. Luggage storage, charged at $10 per hour, is available on the first floor. Transit passengers have free access to storage facilities.

    E Every international passenger, with the exception of children under 12 years of age and transit passengers in Auckland for less than 24 hours, is required to make a payment of $25 when leaving the country. This can be arranged at the National Bank on the ground floor.

    F As Auckland International Airport has adopted the ‘quiet airport’ concept, there are usually no announcements made over the public address system. Details of all arrivals and departures are displayed on the monitors located in the terminal halls and lounge areas.

    G The airport caters for the needs of business travellers and has several rooms available for seminars or business gatherings. These are located adjacent to the airport medical centre on the first floor. For information and bookings please contact the Airport Business Manager on extension 3294.

    Questions 8-14

    The reading passage “Auckland International Airport Services” has seven sections, A-G.

    Choose the correct heading for each section from the list of headings below.

    1. Section A
    2. Section B
    3. Section C
    4. Section D
    5. Section E
    6. Section F
    7. Section G

    List of Headings

    1. Departure procedures
    2. Observation area
    3. Baggage services
    4. Meeting facilities
    5. Healthcare services
    6. Flight information
    7. Currency exchange
    8. Health and safety advice
    9. Departure fees
    10. Tourist travel centre

    Section 2

    Read the text below and answer the questions 15-20.

    Planning a gap year

    The best reason to take a gap year between school and work or higher education is to improve your CV with experience overseas. This is why some school leavers in Britain now consider a year out to be essential. Many want to travel, with Sydney the favourite destination. Shooting Star is an organisation that helps school leavers by offering training followed by appropriate employment.

    We at Shooting Star offer much more than a trip abroad. At Shooting Star you acquire skills that lead to interesting jobs both for your gap year and future holidays. Magazines are full of ‘Wanted’ adverts for washing up in a restaurant. Well, we don’t do that it’s not our idea of excitement. We offer school leavers the chance for outdoor adventure, to teach things like sailing and snowboarding. No choice, really! In your year out you train, travel and work; you can combine work with pleasure and reap the rewards. You could become an experienced yacht skipper or instructor and many people go on to spend their future holidays being paid to enjoy their favourite sport.

    Australians and New Zealanders travel to Europe and North America in large numbers to gain overseas experience. Those who qualify with Shooting Star are very soon using their skills in jobs they could only dream about before, working outdoors and seeing more of the world. Wherever you come from, a gap year with Shooting Star means professional training and international adventure.

    Top tips for a successful gap year:
    • Design your gap year in outline before applying for a permanent job or a college place. Human Resources officers or Admissions tutors will be impressed by a thought-out plan.
    • What’s more important to you – travel or work experience? You can be flexible with travel plans but you must research job opportunities in advance. Go to our website and click on Recruitment for ideas.
    • Who do you know who has taken a gap year before? Shooting Star can put you in touch with someone who has just completed one.
    • Sort out the admin in plenty of time – air tickets, visas, insurance and medical matters such as vaccinations for some destinations. These are your responsibility.
    • Who is in charge of your affairs while you are away? There will be forms to fill and letters to answer.
    • Allow plenty of time to settle back home on your return – and don’t be surprised if it takes some time to readjust to everyday life!

    Questions 15-20

    Do the following statements agree with the information given in the text above?

    In boxes 15-20, write

    • TRUE             if the statement agrees with the information
    • FALSE             if the statement contradicts the information
    • NOT GIVEN        if there is no information on this
    1. For some young British people, the purpose of a gap year is to improve their academic qualifications.
    2. Shooting Star finds employment for young people in the catering industry.
    3. Training with Shooting Star can be expensive.
    4. New trainees find it easy to get the sort of work they want.
    5. New trainees who want work experience should check out vacancies before they depart.
    6. Shooting Star helps with travel arrangements.

    Read the text below and answer questions 21-27.

    Succeeding at Interviews

    A Getting invited to an interview means you have passed the first hurdle- your application must have made a good impression. Now you need to prepare yourself for the interview to make sure you make the most of this opportunity. There are a number of things you can do.

    B Firstly you can do some research. Find out about the employer and the job, ask for an information pack or speak to people you know who work for the company. Try to plan for the interview by asking who will be interviewing you and whether there will be a test to take.

    C Prepare for questions you might be asked. Some common ones are the reason why you want the job, whether you have done this kind of work before, what your strengths and weaknesses are, and which leisure pursuits you enjoy.

    D Another important point is never to run the risk of arriving late. For example, consider making a ‘dummy run’ in advance to see how long the journey will take. Check out public transport or, if you are going by car, the nearest parking. Aim to arrive about 10 minutes before the interview is due to start.

    E It is also crucial to give plenty of thought to what you are going to wear. This will depend on the job you are going for. There is no need to buy a new outfit, but aim to look neat and tidy. Remember, if you look good it will help you feel good.

    F You need to make a good impression. Interviews can vary from a relatively informal ‘one-to-one’ chat to a very formal panel situation. Whatever the circumstances, you will give yourself an advantage by being friendly and polite, by making eye contact with the interviewer and by selling yourself by focusing on your strengths.

    G There are also things you should avoid doing at your interview. First of all, don’t exaggerate. For example, if you don’t have the exact experience the employer is looking for, say so and explain you are willing to learn. Don’t simply give ‘yes’ and ‘no’ answers, but answer questions as fully as you can. And lastly, don’t forget to ask questions as well as answering them.

    H One final thing to remember: it is important to show good team spirit that you possess good people skills and that you are friendly and approachable. Finally, remember to be enthusiastic and show that you can be flexible.

    Questions 21-27

    Which section mentions the following?

    The text has eight sections, A-H. Write the correct letter, A-H, in boxes 22 27.

    NB You may use any letter more than once.

    1. The importance of good manners.
    2. Using your contacts
    3. Giving adequate responses
    4. Getting on well with colleagues
    5. The information you may need to provide
    6. Being honest with the interviewer
    7. Being punctual

    Section 3

    Read the text below and answer the questions 28-40.

    The History of Cinema

    The history of the cinema in its first thirty years is one of major and, to this day, unparalleled expansion and growth. Beginning as something unusual in a handful of big cities – New York, London, Paris and Berlin the new medium quickly found its way across the world, attracting larger and larger audiences wherever it was shown and replacing other forms of entertainment as it did so. As audiences grew, so did the places where films were shown, finishing up with the ‘great picture palaces’ of the 1920s, which rivalled, and occasionally superseded, theatres and opera-houses in terms of opulence and splendour. Meanwhile, films themselves developed from being short ‘attractions only a couple of minutes long. to the full-length feature that has dominated the world’s screens up to the present day.

    Although French, German, American and British pioneers have all been credited with the invention of cinema, the British and the Germans played a relatively small role in its worldwide exploitation. It was above all the French, followed closely by the Americans, who were the most passionate exporters of the new invention, helping to start cinema in China, Japan, Latin America and Russia. In terms of artistic development it was again the French and the Americans who took the lead, though in the years before the First World War, Italy, Denmark and Russia also played a part.

    In the end, it was the United States that was to become, and remain, the largest single market for films. By protecting their own market and pursuing a vigorous export policy, the Americans achieved a dominant position in the world market by the start of the First World War. The centre of film-making had moved westwards, to Hollywood, and it was films from these new Hollywood studios that flooded onto the world’s film markets in the years after the First World War, and have done so ever since. Faced with total Hollywood domination, few film industries proved competitive. The Italian industry, which had pioneered the feature film with spectacular films like Quo vadis (1913) and “Cabiria” (1914), almost collapsed.

    In Scandinavia, the Swedish cinema had a brief period of glory, notably with powerful epic films and comedies. Even the French cinema found itself in a difficult position. In Europe, only Germany proved industrially capable, while in the new Soviet Union and in Japan, the development of the cinema took place in conditions of commercial isolation.

    Hollywood took the lead artistically as well as industrially. Hollywood films appealed because they had better-constructed narratives, their special effects were more impressive, and the star system added a new dimension to the screen acting. If Hollywood did not have enough of its own resources, it had a great deal of money to buy up artists and technical innovations from Europe to ensure its continued dominance over present or future competition.

    From early cinema, it was only American slapstick comedy that Successfully developed in both short and feature format. However, during this Silent Filmiera, animation, comedy, serials and dramatic features continued to thrive, along with factual films or documentaries, which acquired an increasing distinctiveness as the period progressed. It was also at this time that the avant-grade film first achieved commercial success, this time thanks almost exclusively to the French and the occasional German film.

    Of the countries which developed and maintained distinctive national cinemas in the silent period, the most important were France, Germany and the Soviet Union. Of these, the French displayed the most continuity, in spite of the war and post-war economic uncertainties. The German cinema, relatively insignificant in the pre-war years, exploded onto the world scene after 1919. Yet even they were both overshadowed by the Soviets after the 1917 Revolution. They turned their back on the past, leaving the style of the pre-war Russian cinema to the emigres who fled westwards to escape the Revolution.

    The other countries whose cinemas changed dramatically are: Britain, which had an interesting but undistinguished history in the silent period; Italy, which had a brief moment of international fame just before the war; the Scandinavian countries, particularly Denmark, which played a role in the development of silent cinema quite out of proportion to their small population, and Japan, where a cinema developed based primarily on traditional theatrical and, to a lesser extent, other art forms and only gradually adapted to western influence.

    Questions 28–30

    Which THREE possible reasons for American dominance of the film industry are given in the text ‘The history of cinema’?

    Write answers A-F in boxes 28-30.

    1. plenty of capital to purchase what it didn’t have
    2. making films dealing with serious issues
    3. being first to produce a feature film
    4. well-written narratives
    5. the effect of the First World War
    6. excellent special effects
    1. …………………
    2. …………………
    3. …………………
    Questions 31 – 33

    Answer the questions below using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the above reading passage for each answer.

    Write your answers in boxes 31-33.

    1. Which TWO types of films were not generally made in major studios?
    2. Which type of film did America develop in both short and feature films?
    3. Which type of film started to become profitable in the ‘silent period?
    Questions 34 – 40

    Look at the following statements (Questions 34-40) and the list of countries below.

    Match each statement with the correct country. Write the correct letter A-J in boxes 34-40.

    NB You may use any letter more than once.

    1. It helped other countries develop their own film industry.
    2. It was the biggest producer of films.
    3. It was first to develop the ‘feature’ film.
    4. It was responsible for creating stars.
    5. It made the most money from ‘avant-garde’ films.
    6. It made movies based more on its own culture than outside influences.
    7. It had a great influence on silent movies, despite its size.

    List of countries

    1. France
    2. Germany
    3. USA
    4. Denmark
    5. Sweden
    6. Japan
    7. Soviet Union
    8. Italy
    9. Britain
    10. China
    Section 1 Questions 1-7 Passport Application Answers
    1. False
    2. False
    3. True
    4. NG
    5. NG
    6. True
    7. False
    Section 1 Questions 8-14 Auckland International Airport Services Answers
    1. ii
    2. x
    3. v
    4. iii
    5. ix
    6. vi
    7. iv
    Section 2 Questions 15-20 Planning a gap year Answers
    1. False
    2. False
    3. NG
    4. True
    5. True
    6. False
    Section 2 Questions 21-27 Succeeding at Interviews Answers
    1. F
    2. B
    3. G
    4. H
    5. C
    6. G
    7. D
    Section 3 Questions 28-40 The History of Cinema Answers
    1. A, D, F
    2. A, D, F
    3. A, D, F
    4. Cartoons, serials
    5. Slapstick/ slapstick comedy/ comedy
    6. (the) avant-grade (films)
    7. A
    8. C
    9. H
    10. C
    11. A
    12. F
    13. D
  • Cambridge IELTS 10 General Reading Test 1

    Section 1

    Read the text below and answer questions 1-7.

    Smoke Alarms in the Home

    Smoke alarms are now a standard feature in Australian homes and are required by the National Building Code in any recently built properties. They are installed to detect the presence of smoke and emit a clear sound to alert you in the event of fire to give you time to escape.

    There are two principal types of smoke alarms. Ionization alarms are the cheapest and most readily available smoke alarms. They are also very sensitive to ‘flaming fires’ – fires that burn fiercely – and will detect them before the smoke gets too thick. However, photoelectric alarms are more effective at detecting slow-burning fires. They are less likely to go off accidentally and so are best for homes with one floor. For the best protection, you should install one of each.

    Most battery-powered smoke alarms can be installed by the home owner and do not require professional installation. For the installation of hard-wired smoke alarms, powered from the mains electricity supply, however, you will need the services of a licensed professional. Smoke alarms are usually most effective when located on the ceiling, near or in the middle of the room or hall.

    Photoelectric smoke alarms in any quantity may be disposed of in domestic waste. If you have fewer than ten ionization alarms to get rid of, you may put them in your domestic waste. If you have more than ten to dispose of, you should contact your local council.

    Your battery-powered smoke alarm will produce a short beep every 60 second to alert you when the battery is running out and needs replacing. Nevertheless, it should be tested every month to ensure that the battery and the alarm sounder are working. Note that the sensitivity in all smoke alarms will reduce over time.

    Questions 1-7
    Do the following statements agree with the information given in the text? In boxes 1-7 on your answer sheet, write

    TRUE                      if the statement agrees with the information
    FALSE                    if the statement contradicts the information
    NOT GIVEN        if there is no information on this

    1. All new houses in Australia must have smoke alarms.
    2. Photoelectric smoke alarms cost less than ionization smoke alarms.
    3. It takes a short time to fit most smoke alarms.
    4. Any hard-wired smoke alarm must be fitted by a specialist technician.
    5. You should get in touch with your local council before placing any ionisation smoke alarms in household rubbish.
    6. Smoke alarms give a warning sound to indicate that battery power is low.
    7. Old smoke alarms need to be checked more than once a month.

    Read the text below and answer questions 8-14.

    Sydney Opera House Tours

    A The Essential Tour brings to life the story behind the design and construction of one of the world’s most famous landmarks. Using interactive audio-visual technology, your guide will take you on a memorable journey inside the youngest building ever to be World Heritage listed.

    B Afterwards, why not stay around and eat at the Studio Cafe, with its modern Australian menu? Not only can you enjoy the best views in Sydney, you can claim a 20% reduction on the total cost of your meal. (Don’t forget to show your ticket in order to claim your discount.)

    C Languages: English, French, German
    Takes place: Daily between 9am and 5pm
    Prices: Adults $35 / Online $29.75
    Concessions: Australian seniors and pensioners; students and children of 16 and under $24.50.
    Prior bookings are not essential.

    D The Backstage Tour gives you backstage access to the Sydney Opera House. It is a unique opportunity to experience the real-life dramas behind the stage! You might even get to stand on the concert hall stage, take up a conductor’s baton in the orchestra pit and imagine you are leading the performance. You will also get to see inside the stars’ dressing rooms. The tour concludes with a complimentary breakfast in the Green Room, the private dining area of performers past and present.

    E Takes place: Daily at 7am
    Prices: $155-No concessions.
    To purchase: Bookings are essential.
    Limited to 8 people per tour.
    Online sales expire at 4.30pm two days prior.

    Notes:
    The tour includes up to 300 steps.
    Flat, rubber-soled shoes must be worn.
    For safety reasons, children of 12 years old and under are not permitted.

    F Opera High Tea consists of a tour where you will walk in the footsteps of world- class singers, dancers and musicians, followed by fine food and music in the spectacular surroundings of the Bennelong Dining Room. What could be better than a treat of delicious light snacks and soft drinks followed by a live recital by a leading Australian singer? An unforgettable treat for young and old!

    G Takes place: Every second Wednesday, 2pm
    Duration: 1.5 hours
    Prices: $145 per person
    Book online or visit the Guided Tours Desk.

    Questions 8-14

    The text has seven sections A-G.

    Which section mentions the following? Write the correct letter A-G.

    in boxes 8-14 on your answer sheet.

    NB You may use any letter more than once.

    1. discounts available to younger visitors
    2. the need for suitable footwear
    3. the opportunity to pretend you are taking part in a concert
    4. a restriction on the number of participants
    5. a reduction that applies to purchases using the internet
    6. the need to book your ticket in advance
    7. the length of one of the tours

    Section 2

    Read the text below and answer Questions 15-21.

    Using Direct Mail To Sell Your Product

    When you have set up your own business, you must, of course, start selling your goods or services. One way is by using direct mail – in other words, sending a sales letter (or email) directly to companies that might want to do business with you.

    One important factor is your mailing list – that is, who you contact. You can build this up from your own market research, existing clients and advertising responses, or you can contact list brokers and rent or buy a compiled list. If you are contacting a business, it is important to address the letter to the decision maker, ideally by name or at least by job title.

    While the desirability and price of the product on offer will obviously influence sales, you also need to gain the maximum impact from your sales letter. To achieve that, bear the following points in mind:
    • You have no more than two seconds from when the reader starts the letter to convince them to continue. If you fail, they will throw it away. The opening is crucial to attract their attention. And so that they don’t lose interest, avoid having too much text.
    • Try to send each mailing in a white envelope. It might be cheaper to use a brown envelope but it doesn’t make for such good presentation.
    • Include a brochure. Depending on the volume and on whether you can afford the cost, try to use at least two-colour printing for this. If practicable, it may be worth enclosing a free sample – this is a much greater incentive than photographs.
    • However interested your potential clients are in buying, they will only do so if it can be done easily. So, include an order form (and of course details of how to return it) with your letter.
    • When you receive your replies, assess your response rate and monitor the sales.
    If necessary, the sales letter can then be amended to attract other clients on subsequent mail shots; make sure each different letter is coded so that monitoring is easy and effective.
    • Ensure that each reply is dealt with quickly and professionally. If further details are requested, these must be sent out promptly. There is no point in encouraging potential customers to contact you if your service is slow or non-existent.

    Questions 15-21
    Complete the sentences below. Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the text for each answer. Write your answers in boxes 15-21 on your answer sheet.

    1. Sales letters should be sent to the…………………in a company.
    2. Your letter should make as much……………………as possible.
    3. The reader’s attention needs to be caught by the……………….of your letter.
    4. Letters should be sent in a…………………
    5. It is best to print the…………………..in two or more colours.
    6. Consider sending a…………………as this is more effective than a picture.
    7. You should calculate the………………….to your letter.

    Read the text below and answer Questions 22-27.

    IFCES, the International Federation of Chemical Engineering Societies
    Job Specification: Communications Manager

    Contract: Permanent (with 3-month probationary period)
    Reports to: Chief Executive
    Hours: 9:15am – 5:30pm with 1 hour for lunch
    Holidays: 23 days per annum + statutory public holidays

    Job Summary
    To raise the international profile of IFCES. To communicate our objectives, programmes and services to members, the chemical engineering community, the media and the wider public.

    Key Responsibilities
    • Develop and implement a programme of communications to member associations, the chemical engineering industry, sponsors and the media
    • Plan and implement marketing strategies for all IFCES programmes including the World Chemical Engineering Congress
    • Write and edit copy for publications intended for internal and external use including Chemical Engineer Monthly
    • Work with design agencies, web developers and other external contractors to produce high quality corporate and marketing materials
    • Research, write and distribute news releases as required, often at short notice and under pressure
    • Deal with media enquiries and interview requests. Ensure that good relationships with both mainstream and chemical engineering media are developed and maintained
    • Assist in the production of presentations and speeches for board members
    • Ensure website content is up to date and consistent
    • Develop a consistent corporate identity and ensure its application by all member associations and partner organisations
    • Carry out specific duties and projects as directed from time to time

    Employee Specification
    Essential
    • Degree (any discipline)
    • Minimum 4 years’ experience in a communications role
    • Excellent copy writing skills with strong attention to detail, a keen sense of audience and an ability to tailor writing to its particular purpose
    • Demonstrable track record of producing high quality corporate publications and marketing materials
    • Excellent interpersonal and organisational skills
    • Sound IT skills, including working knowledge of Microsoft Office applications
    • Willingness to travel internationally

    Desirable
    • Recognised post-graduate qualification in public relations / journalism / marketing communications
    • Knowledge of the global chemical engineering industry and the production of new materials in particular
    • Understanding of the concerns surrounding sustainability in chemical engineering
    • Ability to speak a foreign language

    Questions 22-27

    Complete the notes below.

    Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the text for each answer.

    Write your answers in boxes 22-27 on your answer sheet.

    Position: Communications Manager
    Summary of role: to improve IFCES’s (22)………………..around the world

    Responsibilities include:
    • writing for a number of (23)……………….., produced for both IFCES and a wider readership
    • producing news releases quickly when necessary
    • making sure the (24)………………….contains current information.

    Employee specification (essential) includes:
    • high level skill in writing appropriately
    – for the (25)………………..to read
    – to achieve a specific (26)………………….
    • good IT skills.

    Employee specification (desirable) includes:
    • relevant qualification at a (27)……………….level
    • awareness of issues of sustainability in relation to the industry
    • knowledge of a foreign language.

    Section 3

    Read the text below and answer questions 28-40.

    KAURI GUM – a piece of New Zealand’s history

    A The kauri tree is a massive forest tree native to New Zealand. Kauri once formed vast forests over much of the north of the country. Whereas now it is the wood of the kauri which is an important natural resource, in the past it was the tree’s sap (the thick liquid which flows inside a tree) which, when hardened into gum, played an important role in New Zealand’s early history.

    After running from rips or tears in the bark of trees, the sap hardens to form the lumps of gum which eventually fall to the ground and are buried under layers of forest litter. The bark often splits where branches fork from the trunk, and gum accumulates there also.

    The early European settlers in New Zealand collected and sold the gum. the tree was soft and of low value but most of the gum which was harvested had been buried for thousands of years. This gum came in a bewildering variety of colours, degree of transparency and hardness, depending on the length and location of burial, as well as the health of the original tree and the area of the bleeding. Highest quality gum was hard and bright and was usually found at shallow depth on the hills. Lowest quality gum was soft, black or chalky and sugary and was usually found buried in swamps, where it had been in contact with water for a long time. Long periods in the sun or bush fires could transform dull, cloudy lumps into higher quality transparent gum.

    B Virtually all kauri gum was found in the regions of New Zealand where kauri forests grow today – from the middle of the North Island northwards. In Maori and early European times up until 1850, most gum collected was simply picked up from the ground, but, after that, the majority was recovered by digging.

    C The original inhabitants of New Zealand, the Maori, had experimented with kauri gum well before Europeans arrived at the beginning of the nineteenth century. They called it kapia, and found it of considerable use. Fresh gum from trees was prized for its chewing quality, as was buried gum when softened in water and mixed with the juice of a local plant. A piece of gum was often passed around from mouth to mouth when people gathered together until it was all gone, or when they tired of chewing, it was laid aside for future use. Kauri gum burns readily and was used by Maori people to light fires. Sometimes it was bound in grass, ignited and used as a torch by night fishermen to attract fish.

    D The first kauri gum to be exported from New Zealand was part of a cargo taken back to Australia and England by two early expeditions in 1814 and 1815. By the 1860s, kauri gum’s reputation was well established in the overseas markets and European immigrants were joining the Maoris in collecting gum on the hills of northern New Zealand. As the surface gum became more scarce, spades were used to dig up the buried ‘treasure! The increasing number of diggers resulted in rapid growth of the kauri gum exports from 1,000 tons in 1860 to a maximum of over 10,000 tons in 1900.

    For fifty years from about 1870 to 1920, the kauri gum industry was a major source of income for settlers in northern New Zealand. As these would-be farmers struggled to break in the land, many turned to gum-digging to earn enough money to support their families and pay for improvements to their farms until better times arrived. By the 1890s, there were 20,000 people engaged in gum-digging. Although many of these, such as farmers, women and children, were only part-time diggers, nearly 7,000 were full-timers. During times of economic difficulty, gum-digging was the only job available where the unemployed from many walks of life could earn a living, if they were prepared to work.

    E The first major commercial use of kauri gum was in the manufacture of high-grade furniture varnish, a kind of clear paint used to treat wood. The best and purest gum that was exported prior to 1910 was used in this way. Kauri gum was used in 70% of the oil varnishes being manufactured in England in the 1890s. It was favoured ahead of other gums because it was easier to process at lower temperatures. The cooler the process could be kept the better, as it meant a paler varnish could be produced. About 1910, kauri gum was found to be a very suitable ingredient in the production of some kinds of floor coverings such as linoleum. In this way, a use was found for the vast quantities of poorer quality and less pure gum, that had up till then been discarded as waste. Kauri gum’s importance in the manufacture of varnish and linoleum was displaced by synthetic alternatives in the 1930s.

    F Fossil kauri gum is rather soft and can be carved easily with a knife or polished with fine sandpaper. In the time of Queen Victoria of England (1837-1901), some pieces were made into fashionable amber beads that women wore around their necks. The occasional lump that contained preserved insects was prized for use in necklaces and bracelets. Many of the gum-diggers enjoyed the occasional spell of carving and produced a wide variety of small sculptured pieces. Many of these carvings can be seen today in local museums. Over the years, kauri gum has also been used in a number of minor products, such as an ingredient in marine glue and candles. In the last decades it has had a very limited use in the manufacture of extremely high-grade varnish for violins, but the gum of the magnificent kauri tree remains an important part of New Zealand’s history.

    Questions 28-33

    The text has six sections, A-F.

    Which section contains the following information?

    Write the correct letter, A-F, in boxes 28-33 on your answer sheet.

    NB You may use any letter more than once.

    1. an example of a domestic product made of high-quality gum
    2. factors affecting gum quality
    3. how kauri gum is formed
    4. how gum was gathered
    5. the main industrial uses of the gum
    6. recent uses of kauri gum
    Questions 34-39

    Look at the following events in the history of kauri gum in New Zealand (Questions 34-39) and the list of time periods below.

    Match each event with the correct time period, A-l.

    1. Kauri gum was first used in New Zealand.
    2. The amount of kauri gum sent overseas peaked.
    3. The collection of kauri gum supplemented farmers’ incomes.
    4. Kauri gum was made into jewellery.
    5. Kauri gum was used in the production of string instruments.
    6. Most of the kauri gum was found underground.

    List of Time Periods

    1. before the 1800s
    2. in 1900
    3. in 1910
    4. between the late 1800s and the early 1900s
    5. between the 1830s and 1900
    6. in 1814 and 1815
    7. after 1850
    8. in the 1930s
    9. in recent times
    Question 40

    Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.

    40. What was most likely to reduce the quality of kauri gum?

    1. how long it was buried
    2. exposure to water
    3. how deep it was buried
    4. exposure to heat
    Section 1 Questions 1-7 Smoke Alarms in the Home Answers
    1. True
    2. False
    3. Not given
    4. True
    5. False
    6. True
    7. Not given
    Section 1 Questions 8-14 Sydney Opera House Tours Answers
    1. C
    2. E
    3. D
    4. E
    5. C
    6. E
    7. G
    Section 2 Questions 15-21 Using Direct Mail To Sell Your Product Answers
    1. Decision maker
    2. Impact
    3. Opening
    4. White envelope
    5. Brochure
    6. (free) samples
    7. Response rate
    Section 2 Questions 22-27 IFCES, the International Federation of Chemical Engineering Societies Answers
    1. (international) profile
    2. Publications
    3. Website content
    4. Audience
    5. Purpose
    6. Post-graduate
    Section 3 Questions 28-40 KAURI GUM – a piece of New Zealand’s history Answers
    1. E
    2. A
    3. A
    4. B
    5. E
    6. F
    7. A
    8. B
    9. D
    10. E
    11. I
    12. G
    13. B
  • Cambridge IELTS 10 Academic Reading Test 4

    Reading Passge 1

    The Megafires of California

    Wildfires are becoming an increasing menace in the western United States, with Southern California being the hardest hit area. There’s a reason fire squads battling more frequent blazes in Southern California are having such difficulty containing the flames, despite better preparedness than ever and decades of experience fighting fires fanned by the ‘Santa Ana Winds’. The wildfires themselves, experts say, are generally hotter, faster, and spread more erratically than in the past.

    Megafires, also called ‘siege fires’, are the increasingly frequent blazes that burn 500,000 acres or more – 10 times the size of the average forest fire of 20 years ago. Some recent wildfires are among the biggest ever in California in terms of acreage burned, according to state figures and news reports.

    One explanation for the trend to more superhot fires is that the region, which usually has dry summers, has had significantly below normal precipitation in many recent years. Another reason, experts say, is related to the century- long policy of the US Forest Service to stop wildfires as quickly as possible. The unintentional consequence has been to halt the natural eradication of underbrush, now the primary fuel for megafires.

    Three other factors contribute to the trend, they add. First is climate change, marked by a 1-degree Fahrenheit rise in average yearly temperature across the western states. Second is fire seasons that on average are 78 days longer than they were 20 years ago. Third is increased construction of homes in wooded areas.

    ‘We are increasingly building our homes in fire-prone ecosystems,’ says Dominik Kulakowski, adjunct professor of biology at Clark University Graduate School of Geography in Worcester, Massachusetts. ‘Doing that in many of the forests of the western US is like building homes on the side of an active volcano.’

    In California, where population growth has averaged more than 600,000 a year for at least a decade, more residential housing is being built. ‘What once was open space is now residential homes providing fuel to make fires burn with greater intensity,’ says Terry McHale of the California Department of Forestry firefighters’ union. ‘With so much dryness, so many communities to catch fire, so many fronts to fight, it becomes an almost incredible job.’

    That said, many experts give California high marks for making progress on preparedness in recent years, after some of the largest fires in state history scorched thousands of acres, burned thousands of homes, and killed numerous people. Stung in the past by criticism of bungling that allowed fires to spread when they might have been contained, personnel are meeting the peculiar challenges of neighborhood – and canyon- hopping fires better than previously, observers say.

    State promises to provide more up-to-date engines, planes, and helicopters to fight fires have been fulfilled. Firefighters’ unions that in the past complained of dilapidated equipment, old fire engines, and insufficient blueprints for fire safety are now praising the state’s commitment, noting that funding for firefighting has increased, despite huge cuts in many other programs. ‘We are pleased that the current state administration has been very proactive in its support of us, and [has] come through with budgetary support of the infrastructure needs we have long sought,’ says Mr. McHale of the firefighters’ union.

    Besides providing money to upgrade the fire engines that must traverse the mammoth state and wind along serpentine canyon roads, the state has invested in better command-and-control facilities as well as in the strategies to run them. ‘In the fire sieges of earlier years, we found that other jurisdictions and states were willing to offer mutual-aid help, but we were not able to communicate adequately with them,’ says Kim Zagaris, chief of the state’s Office of Emergency Services Fire and Rescue Branch.

    After a commission examined and revamped communications procedures, the statewide response ‘has become far more professional and responsive,’ he says. There is a sense among both government officials and residents that the speed, dedication, and coordination of firefighters from several states and jurisdictions are resulting in greater efficiency than in past ‘siege fire’ situations.

    In recent years, the Southern California region has improved building codes, evacuation procedures, and procurement of new technology. ‘I am extraordinarily impressed by the improvements we have witnessed,’ says Randy Jacobs, a Southern California- based lawyer who has had to evacuate both his home and business to escape wildfires. ‘Notwithstanding all the damage that will continue to be caused by wildfires, we will no longer suffer the loss of life endured in the past because of the fire prevention and firefighting measures that have been put in place,’ he says.

    Questions 1-6

    Complete the notes below.

    Choose ONE WORD OR A NUMBER from the passage.

    Wildfires
    Characteristics of wildfires and wildfire conditions today compared to the past:
    • Occurrence: more frequent
    • Temperature: hotter
    • Speed: faster
    • Movement: (1)……………………more unpredictably
    • Size of fires: (2)……………………….greater on average than two decades ago
    Reasons wildfires cause more damage today compared to the past:
    • Rainfall: (3)…………………..average
    • More brush to act as (4)…………………..
    • Increase in yearly temperature
    • Extended fire (5)…………………..
    • More building of (6)……………………….in vulnerable places

    Questions 7-13

    Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 1?

    In boxes 7-13 on your answer sheet, write

    • TRUE                           if the statement agrees with the information
    • FALSE                         if the statement contradicts the information
    • NOT GIVEN              if there is no information on this
    1. The amount of open space in California has diminished over the last ten years.
    2. Many experts believe California has made little progress in readying itself to fight fires.
    3. Personnel in the past have been criticised for mishandling fire containment.
    4. California has replaced a range of firefighting tools.
    5. More firefighters have been hired to improve fire-fighting capacity.
    6. Citizens and government groups disapprove of the efforts of different states and agencies working together.
    7. Randy Jacobs believes that loss of life from fires will continue at the same levels, despite changes made.

    Reading Passage 2

    Second Nature

    A Psychologists have long held that a person’s character cannot undergo a transformation in any meaningful way and that the key traits of personality are determined at a very young age. However, researchers have begun looking more closely at ways we can change. Positive psychologists have identified 24 qualities we admire, such as loyalty and kindness, and are studying them to find out why they come so naturally to some people. What they’re discovering is that many of these qualities amount to habitual behaviour that determines the way we respond to the world. The good news is that all this can be learned.

    Some qualities are less challenging to develop than others, optimism being one of them. However, developing qualities requires mastering a range of skills which are diverse and sometimes surprising. For example, to bring more joy and passion into your life, you must be open to experiencing negative emotions. Cultivating such qualities will help you realise your full potential.

    B ‘The evidence is good that most personality traits can be altered,’ says Christopher Peterson, professor of psychology at the University of Michigan, who cites himself as an example. Inherently introverted, he realised early on that as an academic, his reticence would prove disastrous in the lecture hall. So he learned to be more outgoing and to entertain his classes. ‘Now my extroverted behaviour is spontaneous,’ he says.

    C David Fajgenbaum had to make a similar transition. He was preparing for university, when he had an accident that put an end to his sports career. On campus, he quickly found that beyond ordinary counselling, the university had no services for students who were undergoing physical rehabilitation and suffering from depression like him. He therefore launched a support group to help others in similar situations. He took action despite his own pain – a typical response of an optimist.

    D Suzanne Segerstrom, professor of psychology at the University of Kentucky, believes that the key to increasing optimism is through cultivating optimistic behaviour, rather than positive thinking. She recommends you train yourself to pay attention to good fortune by writing down three positive things that come about each day. This will help you convince yourself that favourable outcomes actually happen all the time, making it easier to begin taking action.

    E You can recognise a person who is passionate about a pursuit by the way they are so strongly involved in it. Tanya Streeter’s passion is freediving – the sport of plunging deep into the water without tanks or other breathing equipment. Beginning in 1998, she set nine world records and can hold her breath for six minutes. The physical stamina required for this sport is intense but the psychological demands are even more overwhelming. Streeter learned to untangle her fears from her judgment of what her body and mind could do. ‘In my career as a competitive freediver, there was a limit to what I could do – but it wasn’t anywhere near what I thought it was,’ she says.

    F Finding a pursuit that excites you can improve anyone’s life. The secret about consuming passions, though, according to psychologist Paul Silvia of the University of North Carolina, is that ‘they require discipline, hard work and ability, which is why they are so rewarding.’ Psychologist Todd Kashdan has this advice for those people taking up a new passion: ‘As a newcomer, you also have to tolerate and laugh at your own ignorance. You must be willing to accept the negative feelings that come your way,’ he says.

    G In 2004, physician-scientist Mauro Zappaterra began his PhD research at Harvard Medical School. Unfortunately, he was miserable as his research wasn’t compatible with his curiosity about healing. He finally took a break and during eight months in Santa Fe, Zappaterra learned about alternative healing techniques not taught at Harvard. When he got back, he switched labs to study how cerebrospinal fluid nourishes the developing nervous system. He also vowed to look for the joy in everything, including failure, as this could help him learn about his research and himself.

    One thing that can hold joy back is a person’s concentration on avoiding failure rather than their looking forward to doing something well. ‘Focusing on being safe might get in the way of your reaching your goals,’ explains Kashdan. For example, are you hoping to get through a business lunch without embarrassing yourself, or are you thinking about how fascinating the conversation might be?

    H Usually, we think of courage in physical terms but ordinary life demands something else. For marketing executive Kenneth Pedeleose, it meant speaking out against something he thought was ethically wrong. The new manager was intimidating staff so Pedeleose carefully recorded each instance of bullying and eventually took the evidence to a senior director, knowing his own job security would be threatened. Eventually the manager was the one to go. According to Cynthia Pury, a psychologist at Clemson University, Pedeleose’s story proves the point that courage is not motivated by fearlessness, but by moral obligation. Pury also believes that people can acquire courage. Many of her students said that faced with a risky situation, they first tried to calm themselves down, then looked for a way to mitigate the danger, just as Pedeleose did by documenting his allegations. Over the long term, picking up a new character trait may help you move toward being the person you want to be. And in the short term, the effort itself could be surprisingly rewarding, a kind of internal adventure.

    Questions 14-18

    Complete the summary below.

    Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage.

    Psychologists have traditionally believed that a personality (14)………………………. was impossible and that by a (15)………………………., a person’s character tends to be fixed. This is not true according to positive psychologists, who say that our personal qualities can be seen as habitual behaviour. One of the easiest qualities to acquire is (16)…………………… However, regardless of the quality, it is necessary to learn a wide variety of different (17)…………………… in order for a new quality to develop; for example, a person must understand and feel some (18)…………………………… in order to increase their happiness.

    Questions 19-22

    Look at the following statements (Questions 19-22) and the list of people below.

    Match each statement with the correct person, A-G.

    1. People must accept that they do not know much when first trying something new.
    2. It is important for people to actively notice when good things happen.
    3. Courage can be learned once its origins in a sense of responsibility are understood.
    4. It is possible to overcome shyness when faced with the need to speak in public.

    List of People

    1. Christopher Peterson
    2. David Fajgenbaum
    3. Suzanne Segerstrom
    4. Tanya Streeter
    5. Todd Kashdan
    6. Kenneth Pedeleose
    7. Cynthia Pury
    Questions 23-26

    Reading Passage 2 has eight sections, A-H.

    Which section contains the following information?

    1. a mention of how rational thinking enabled someone to achieve physical goals
    2. an account of how someone overcame a sad experience
    3. a description of how someone decided to rethink their academic career path
    4. an example of how someone risked his career out of a sense of duty

    Reading Passage 3

    When Evolution Runs Backwards

    The description of any animal as an ‘evolutionary throwback’ is controversial. For the better part of a century, most biologists have been reluctant to use those words, mindful of a principle of evolution that says ‘evolution cannot run backwards’. But as more and more examples come to light and modern genetics enters the scene, that principle is having to be rewritten. Not only are evolutionary throwbacks possible, they sometimes play an important role in the forward march of evolution.

    The technical term for an evolutionary throwback is an ‘atavism’, from the Latin atavus, meaning forefather. The word has ugly connotations thanks largely to Cesare Lombroso, a 19th-century Italian medic who argued that criminals were born not made and could be identified by certain physical features that were throwbacks to a primitive, sub-human state.

    While Lombroso was measuring criminals, a Belgian palaeontologist called Louis Dollo was studying fossil records and coming to the opposite conclusion. In 1890 he proposed that evolution was irreversible: that ‘an organism is unable to return, even partially, to a previous stage already realised in the ranks of its ancestors’. Early 20th-century biologists came to similar conclusion, though they qualified it in terms of probability, stating that there is no reason why evolution cannot run backwards – it is just very unlikely. And so the idea of irreversibility in evolution stuck and came to be known as ‘Dollo’s law’.

    If Dollo’s law is right, atavisms should occur only very rarely, if at all. Yet almost since the idea took root, exceptions have been cropping up. In 1919, for example, a humpback whale with a pair of leg-like appendages over a metre long, complete with a full set of limb bones, was caught off Vancouver Island in Canada. Explorer Roy Chapman Andrews argued at the time that the whale must be a throwback to a land-living ancestor. ‘I can see no other explanation,’ he wrote in 1921.

    Since then, so many other examples have been discovered that it no longer makes sense to say that evolution is as good as irreversible. And this poses a puzzle: how can characteristics that disappeared millions of years ago suddenly reappear? In 1994, Rudolf Raff and colleagues at Indiana University in the USA decided to use genetics to put a number on the probability of evolution going into reverse. They reasoned that while some evolutionary changes involve the loss of genes and are therefore irreversible, others may be the result of genes being switched off. If these silent genes are somehow switched back on, they argued, long-lost traits could reappear.

    Raff’s team went on to calculate the likelihood of it happening. Silent genes accumulate random mutations, they reasoned, eventually rendering them useless. So how long can a gene survive in a species if it is no longer used? The team calculated that there is a good chance of silent genes surviving for up to 6 million years in at least a few individuals in a population, and that some might survive as long as 10 million years. In other words, throwbacks are possible, but only to the relatively recent evolutionary past.

    As a possible example, the team pointed to the mole salamanders of Mexico and California. Like most amphibians these begin life in a juvenile ‘tadpole’ state, then metamorphose into the adult form – except for one species, the axolotl, which famously lives its entire life as a juvenile. The simplest explanation for this is that the axolotl lineage alone lost the ability to metamorphose, while others retained it. From a detailed analysis of the salamanders’ family tree, however, it is clear that the other lineages evolved from an ancestor that itself had lost the ability to metamorphose. In other words, metamorphosis in mole salamanders is an atavism. The salamander example fits with Raff’s 10-million-year time frame.

    More recently, however, examples have been reported that break the time limit, suggesting that silent genes may not be the whole story. In a paper published last year, biologist Gunter Wagner of Yale University reported some work on the evolutionary history of a group of South American lizards called Bachia. Many of these have minuscule limbs; some look more like snakes than lizards and a few have completely lost the toes on their hind limbs. Other species, however, sport up to four toes on their hind legs. The simplest explanation is that the toed lineages never lost their toes, but Wagner begs to differ. According to his analysis of the Bachia family tree, the toed species re-evolved toes from toeless ancestors and, what is more, digit loss and gain has occurred on more than one occasion over tens of millions of years.

    So what’s going on? One possibility is that these traits are lost and then simply reappear, in much the same way that similar structures can independently arise in unrelated species, such as the dorsal fins of sharks and killer whales. Another more intriguing possibility is that the genetic information needed to make toes somehow survived for tens or perhaps hundreds of millions of years in the lizards and was reactivated. These atavistic traits provided an advantage and spread through the population, effectively reversing evolution.

    But if silent genes degrade within 6 to 10 million years, how can long-lost traits be reactivated over longer timescales? The answer may lie in the womb. Early embryos of many species develop ancestral features. Snake embryos, for example, sprout hind limb buds. Later in development these features disappear thanks to developmental programs that say ‘lose the leg’. If for any reason this does not happen, the ancestral feature may not disappear, leading to an atavism.

    Questions 27-31

    Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.

    1. When discussing the theory developed by Louis Dollo, the writer says that
      1. it was immediately referred to as Dollo’s law
      2. it supported the possibility of evolutionary throwbacks
      3. it was modified by biologists in the early twentieth century
      4. it was based on many years of research
    2. The humpback whale caught off Vancouver Island is mentioned because of
      1. the exceptional size of its body
      2. the way it exemplifies Dollo’s law
      3. the amount of local controversy it caused
      4. the reason given for its unusual features
    3. What is said about ‘silent genes’?
      1. Their numbers vary according to species
      2. Raff disagreed with the use of the term
      3. They could lead to the re-emergence of certain characteristics
      4. They can have an unlimited life span
    4. The writer mentions the mole salamander because
      1. it exemplifies what happens in the development of most amphibians
      2. it suggests that Raff’s theory is correct
      3. it has lost and regained more than one ability
      4. its ancestors have become the subject of extensive research
    5. Which of the following does Wagner claim?
      1. Members of the Bachia lizard family have lost and regained certain features several times
      2. Evidence shows that the evolution of the Bachia lizard is due to the environment
      3. His research into South American lizards supports Raff’s assertions
      4. His findings will apply to other species of South American lizards
    Questions 32-36

    Complete each sentence with the correct ending, A-G, below.

    1. For a long time biologists rejected
    2. Opposing views on evolutionary throwbacks are represented by
    3. Examples of evolutionary throwbacks have led to
    4. The shark and killer whale are mentioned to exemplify
    5. One explanation for the findings of Wagner’s research is
    1. the question of how certain long-lost traits could reappear.
    2. the occurrence of a particular feature in different species.
    3. parallels drawn between behaviour and appearance.
    4. the continued existence of certain genetic information.
    5. the doubts felt about evolutionary throwbacks.
    6. the possibility of evolution being reversible.
    7. Dollo’s findings and the convictions held by Lombroso.
    Questions 37-40

    Do the following statements agree with the claims of the writer in Reading Passage 3?

    • YES                          if the statement agrees with the claims of the writer
    • NO                            if the statement contradicts the claims of the writer
    • NOT GIVEN         if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this
    1. Wagner was the first person to do research on South American lizards.
    2. Wagner believes that Bachia lizards with toes had toeless ancestors.
    3. The temporary occurrence of long-lost traits in embryos is rare.
    4. Evolutionary throwbacks might be caused by developmental problems in the womb.
    Reading Passage 1 The Megafires of California Answers
    1. spread
    2. 10 times
    3. below
    4. fuel
    5. seasons
    6. homes
    7. true
    8. false
    9. true
    10. true
    11. not given
    12. false
    13. false
    Reading Passage 2 Second Nature Answers
    1. change
    2. young age
    3. optimism
    4. skills
    5. negative emotions
    6. E
    7. C
    8. G
    9. A
    10. E
    11. C
    12. G
    13. H
    Reading Passage 3 When Evolution Runs Backwards Answers
    1. C
    2. D
    3. C
    4. B
    5. A
    6. F
    7. G
    8. A
    9. B
    10. D
    11. not given
    12. yes
    13. no
    14. yes
  • Cambridge IELTS 10 Academic Reading Test 3

    Reading Passge 1

    The context, meaning and scope of tourism

    A Travel has existed since the beginning of time, when primitive man set out, often traversing great distances in search of game, which provided the food and clothing necessary for his survival. Throughout the course of history, people have travelled for purposes of trade, religious conviction, economic gain, war, migration and other equally compelling motivations. In the Roman era, wealthy aristocrats and high government officials also travelled for pleasure. Seaside resorts located at Pompeii and Herculaneum afforded citizens the opportunity to escape to their vacation villas in order to avoid the summer heat of Rome. Travel, except during the Dark Ages, has continued to grow and, throughout recorded history, has played a vital role in the development of civilisations and their economies.

    B Tourism in the mass form as we know it today is a distinctly twentieth-century phenomenon. Historians suggest that the advent of mass tourism began in England during the industrial revolution with the rise of the middle class and the availability of relatively inexpensive transportation. The creation of the commercial airline industry following the Second World War and the subsequent development of the jet aircraft in the 1950s signalled the rapid growth and expansion of international travel. This growth led to the development of a major new industry: tourism. In turn, international tourism became the concern of a number of world governments since it not only provided new employment opportunities but also produced a means of earning foreign exchange.

    C Tourism today has grown significantly in both economic and social importance. In most industrialised countries over the past few years the fastest growth has been seen in the area of services. One of the largest segments of the service industry, although largely unrecognised as an entity in some of these countries, is travel and tourism. According to the World Travel and Tourism Council (1992), ‘Travel and tourism is the largest industry in the world on virtually any economic measure including value-added capital investment, employment and tax contributions’. In 1992, the industry’s gross output was estimated to be $3.5 trillion, over 12 per cent of all consumer spending. The travel and tourism industry is the world’s largest employer with almost 130 million jobs, or almost 7 per cent of all employees. This industry is the world’s leading industrial contributor, producing over 6 per cent of the world’s gross national product and accounting for capital investment in excess of $422 billion in direct, indirect and personal taxes each year. Thus, tourism has a profound impact both on the world economy and, because of the educative effect of travel and the effects on employment, on society itself.

    D However, the major problems of the travel and tourism industry that have hidden, or obscured, its economic impact are the diversity and fragmentation of the industry itself. The travel industry includes: hotels, motels and other types of accommodation; restaurants and other food services; transportation services and facilities; amusements, attractions and other leisure facilities; gift shops and a large number of other enterprises. Since many of these businesses also serve local residents, the impact of spending by visitors can easily be overlooked or underestimated. In addition, Meis (1992) points out that the tourism industry involves concepts that have remained amorphous to both analysts and decision makers. Moreover, in all nations this problem has made it difficult for the industry to develop any type of reliable or credible tourism information base in order to estimate the contribution it makes to regional, national and global economies. However, the nature of this very diversity makes travel and tourism ideal vehicles for economic development in a wide variety of countries, regions or communities.

    E Once the exclusive province of the wealthy, travel and tourism have become an institutionalised way of life for most of the population. In fact, McIntosh and Goeldner (1990) suggest that tourism has become the largest commodity in international trade for many nations and, for a significant number of other countries, it ranks second or third. For example, tourism is the major source of income in Bermuda, Greece, Italy, Spain, Switzerland and most Caribbean countries. In addition, Hawkins and Ritchie, quoting from data published by the American Express Company, suggest that the travel and tourism industry is the number one ranked employer in the Bahamas, Brazil, Canada, France, (the former) West Germany, Hong Kong, Italy, Jamaica, Japan, Singapore, the United Kingdom and the United States. However, because of problems of definition, which directly affect statistical measurement, it is not possible with any degree of certainty to provide precise, valid or reliable data about the extent of world-wide tourism participation or its economic impact. In many cases, similar difficulties arise when attempts are made to measure domestic tourism.

    Questions 1-4

    Reading passage 1 has five paragraphs A-E.

    Choose the correct heading for paragraphs B-E from the list of heading below.

    List of headings

    1. Economic and social significance of tourism
    2. The development of mass tourism
    3. Travel for the wealthy
    4. Earning foreign exchange through tourism
    5. Difficulty in recognising the economic effects of tourism
    6. The contribution of air travel to tourism
    7. The world impact of tourism
    8. The history of travel

    Example

    Paragraph A    (answer)     viii
    1. Paragraph B
    2. Paragraph C
    3. Paragraph D
    4. Paragraph E
    Questions 5-10

    Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 1?

    In boxes 5-10 on your answer sheet, write

    • TRUE                         if the statement agrees with the information
    • FALSE                       if the statement contradicts the information
    • NOT GIVEN            if there is no information on this
    1. The largest employment figures in the world are found in the travel and tourism industry.
    2. Tourism contributes over six per cent of the Australian gross national product.
    3. Tourism has a social impact because it promotes recreation.
    4. Two main features of the travel and tourism industry make its economic significance difficult to ascertain.
    5. Visitor spending is always greater than the spending of residents in tourist areas.
    6. It is easy to show statistically how tourism affects individual economies.
    Questions 11-13

    Complete the sentences below.

    Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage.

    1. In Greece, tourism is the most important…….
    2. The travel and tourism industry in Jamaica is the major……….
    3. The problems associated with measuring international tourism are often reflected in the measurement of………

    Reading Passage 2

    Autumn Leaves

    A One of the most captivating natural events of the year in many areas throughout North America is the turning of the leaves in the fall. The colours are magnificent, but the question of exactly why some trees turn yellow or orange, and others red or purple, is something which has long puzzled scientists.

    B Summer leaves are green because they are full of chlorophyll, the molecule that captures sunlight and converts that energy into new building materials for the tree. As fall approaches in the northern hemisphere, the amount of solar energy available declines considerably. For many trees – evergreen conifers being an exception – the best strategy is to abandon photosynthesis until the spring. So rather than maintaining the now redundant leaves throughout the winter, the tree saves its precious resources and discards them. But before letting its leaves go, the tree dismantles their chlorophyll molecules and ships their valuable nitrogen back into the twigs. As chlorophyll is depleted, other colours that have been dominated by it throughout the summer begin to be revealed. This unmasking explains the autumn colours of yellow and orange, but not the brilliant reds and purples of trees such as the maple or sumac.

    C The source of the red is widely known: it is created by anthocyanins, water-soluble plant pigments reflecting the red to blue range of the visible spectrum. They belong to a class of sugar-based chemical compounds also known as flavonoids. What’s puzzling is that anthocyanins are actually newly minted, made in the leaves at the same time as the tree is preparing to drop them. But it is hard to make sense of the manufacture of anthocyanins – why should a tree bother making new chemicals in its leaves when it’s already scrambling to withdraw and preserve the ones already there?

    D Some theories about anthocyanins have argued that they might act as a chemical defence against attacks by insects or fungi, or that they might attract fruit-eating birds or increase a leaf’s tolerance to freezing. However there are problems with each of these theories, including the fact that leaves are red for such a relatively short period that the expense of energy needed to manufacture the anthocyanins would outweigh any anti-fungal or anti-herbivore activity achieved.

    E It has also been proposed that trees may produce vivid red colours to convince herbivorous insects that they are healthy and robust and would be easily able to mount chemical defences against infestation. If insects paid attention to such advertisements, they might be prompted to lay their eggs on a duller, and presumably less resistant host. The flaw in this theory lies in the lack of proof to support it. No one has as yet ascertained whether more robust trees sport the brightest leaves, or whether insects make choices according to colour intensity.

    F Perhaps the most plausible suggestion as to why leaves would go to the trouble of making anthocyanins when they’re busy packing up for the winter is the theory known as the ‘light screen’ hypothesis. It sounds paradoxical, because the idea behind this hypothesis is that the red pigment is made in autumn leaves to protect chlorophyll, the light-absorbing chemical, from too much light. Why does chlorophyll need protection when it is the natural world’s supreme light absorber? Why protect chlorophyll at a time when the tree is breaking it down to salvage as much of it as possible?

    G Chlorophyll, although exquisitely evolved to capture the energy of sunlight, can sometimes be overwhelmed by it, especially in situations of drought, low temperatures, or nutrient deficiency. Moreover, the problem of oversensitivity to light is even more acute in the fall, when the leaf is busy preparing for winter by dismantling its internal machinery. The energy absorbed by the chlorophyll molecules of the unstable autumn leaf is not immediately channelled into useful products and processes, as it would be in an intact summer leaf. The weakened fall leaf then becomes vulnerable to the highly destructive effects of the oxygen created by the excited chlorophyll molecules.

    H Even if you had never suspected that this is what was going on when leaves turn red, there are clues out there. One is straightforward: on many trees, the leaves that are the reddest are those on the side of the tree which gets most sun. Not only that, but the red is brighter on the upper side of the leaf. It has also been recognised for decades that the best conditions for intense red colours are dry, sunny days and cool nights, conditions that nicely match those that make leaves susceptible to excess light. And finally, trees such as maples usually get much redder the more north you travel in the northern hemisphere. It’s colder there, they’re more stressed, their chlorophyll is more sensitive and it needs more sunblock.

    I What is still not fully understood, however, is why some trees resort to producing red pigments while others don’t bother, and simply reveal their orange or yellow hues. Do these trees have other means at their disposal to prevent overexposure to light in autumn? Their story, though not as spectacular to the eye, will surely turn out to be as subtle and as complex.

    Questions 14-18

    Reading Passage 2 has nine paragraphs, A-l. Which paragraph contains the following information?

    Write the correct letter, A-l, in boxes 14-18 on your answer sheet.

    NB You may use any letter more than once.

    1. a description of the substance responsible for the red colouration of leaves
    2. the reason why trees drop their leaves in autumn
    3. some evidence to confirm a theory about the purpose of the red leaves
    4. an explanation of the function of chlorophyll
    5. a suggestion that the red colouration in leaves could serve as a warning signal
    Questions 19-22

    Complete the notes below.

    Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the passage.

    Why believe the ‘light screen’ hypothesis?

    • The most vividly coloured red leaves are found on the side of the tree facing the (19)…………..
    • The (20)…………………..surfaces of leaves contain the most red pigment.
    • Red leaves are most abundant when daytime weather conditions are (21)………………and sunny.
    • The intensity of the red colour of leaves increases as you go further (22)………………
    Questions 23-25

    Do the following statements agree with the information given in the passage?

    In boxes 23-25 write

    • TRUE                       if the statement agrees with the information
    • FALSE                     if the statement contradicts the information
    • NOT GIVEN          if there is no information on this
    1. It is likely that the red pigments help to protect the leaf from freezing temperatures.
    2. The ‘light screen’ hypothesis would initially seem to contradict what is known about chlorophyll.
    3. Leaves which turn colours other than red are more likely to be damaged by sunlight.
    Question 26

    Choose the correct letter A, B, C or D.

    For which of the following questions does the writer offer an explanation?

    1. why conifers remain green in winter
    2. how leaves turn orange and yellow in autumn
    3. how herbivorous insects choose which trees to lay their eggs in
    4. why anthocyanins are restricted to certain trees

    Reading Passage 3

    Beyond the blue horizon

    An important archaeological discovery on the island of Efate in the Pacific archipelago of Vanuatu has revealed traces of an ancient seafaring people, the distant ancestors of today’s Polynesians. The site came to light only by chance. An agricultural worker, digging in the grounds of a derelict plantation, scraped open a grave — the first of dozens in a burial ground some 3,000 years old. It is the oldest cemetery ever found in the Pacific islands, and it harbors the remains of an ancient people archaeologists call the Lapita.

    They were daring blue-water adventurers who used basic canoes to rove across the ocean. But they were not just explorers. They were also pioneers who carried with them everything they would need to build new lives – their livestock, taro seedlings and stone tools. Within the span of several centuries, the Lapita stretched the boundaries of their world from the jungle-clad volcanoes of Papua New Guinea to the loneliest coral outliers of Tonga.

    The Lapita left precious few clues about themselves, but Efate expands the volume of data available to researchers dramatically. The remains of 62 individuals have been uncovered so far, and archaeologists were also thrilled to find six complete Lapita pots. Other items included a Lapita burial urn with modeled birds arranged on the rim as though peering down at the human remains sealed inside. ‘It’s an important discovery,’ says Matthew Spriggs, professor of archaeology at the Australian National University and head of the international team digging up the site, for it conclusively identifies the remains at Lapita.

    DNA teased from these human remains may help answer one of the most puzzling questions in Pacific anthropology: did all Pacific islanders spring from one source or many? Was there only one outward migration from a single point in Asia, or several from different points? ‘This represents the best opportunity we’ve had yet,’ says Spriggs, ‘to find out who the Lapita actually were, where they came from, and who their closest descendants are today.’

    There is one stubborn question for which archaeology has yet to provide any answers: how did the Lapita accomplish the ancient equivalent of a moon landing, many times over? No-one has found one of their canoes or any rigging, which could reveal how the canoes were sailed. Nor do the oral histories and traditions of later Polynesians offer any insights, for they turn into myths long before they reach as far back in time as the Lapita.

    All we can say for certain is that the Lapita had canoes that were capable of ocean voyages, and they had the ability to sail them,’ says Geoff Irwin a professor of archaeology at the University of Auckland. Those sailing skills, he says, were developed and passed down over thousands of years by earlier mariners who worked their way through the archipelagoes of the western Pacific, making short crossings to nearby islands. The real adventure didn’t begin, however, until their Lapita descendants sailed out of sight of land, with empty horizons on every side. This must have been as difficult for them as landing on the moon is for us today. Certainly it distinguished them from their ancestors, but what gave them the courage to launch out on such risky voyages?

    The Lapita’s thrust into the Pacific was eastward, against the prevailing trade winds, Irwin notes. Those nagging headwinds, he argues, may have been the key to their success. ‘They could sail out for days into the unknown and assess the area, secure in the knowledge that if they didn’t find anything, they could turn about and catch a swift ride back on the trade winds. This is what would have made the whole thing work.’ Once out there, skilled seafarers would have detected abundant leads to follow to land: seabirds, coconuts and twigs carried out to sea by the tides, and the afternoon pile-up of clouds on the horizon which often indicates an island in the distance.

    For returning explorers, successful or not, the geography of their own archipelagoes would have provided a safety net. Without this to go by, overshooting their home ports, getting lost and sailing off into eternity would have been all too easy. Vanuaru, for example, stretches more than 500 miles in a northwest-southeast trend, its scores of intervisible islands forming a backstop for mariners riding the trade winds home.

    All this presupposes one essential detail, says Atholl Anderson, professor of prehistory at the Australian National University: the Lapita had mastered the advanced art of sailing against the wind. ‘And there’s no proof they could do any such thing,’ Anderson says, ‘There has been this assumption they did, and people have built canoes to re-create those early voyages based on that assumption. But nobody has any idea what their canoes looked like or how they were rigged.’

    Rather than give all the credit to human skill, Anderson invokes the winds of chance. El Nino, the same climate disruption that affects the Pacific today, may have helped scatter the Lapita, Anderson suggests. He points out that climate data obtained from slow-growing corals around the Pacific indicated a series of unusually frequent El Ninos around the time of the Lapita expansion. By reversing the regular east-to-west flow of the trade winds for weeks at a time, these ‘super El Ninos’ might have taken the Lapita on long unplanned voyages.

    However they did it, the Lapita spread themselves a third of the way across the Pacific, then called it quits for reasons known only to them. Ahead lay the vast emptiness of the central Pacific and perhaps they were too thinly stretched to venture farther. ‘They probably never numbered more than a few thousand in total, and in their rapid migration eastward they encountered hundreds of islands – more than 300 in Fiji alone.

    Questions 27-31

    Complete the summary using the list of words and phrases, A-J, below.

    The Éfaté burial site

    A 3,000-year-old burial ground of a seafaring people called the Lapita has been found on an abandoned (27)……………….on the Pacific island of Éfaté. The cemetery, which is a significant (28)……………….., was uncovered accidentally by an agricultural worker.

    The Lapita explored and colonized many Pacific islands over several centuries. They took many things with them on their voyages including (29)……………..and tools.

    The burial ground increases the amount of information about the Lapita available to scientists. A team of researchers, led by Matthew Spriggs from the Australian National University, are helping with the excavation of the site. Spriggs believes the (30)……………….which was found at the site is very important since it confirms that the (31)……………. found inside are Lapita.

    1. proof
    2. plantation
    3. harbor
    4. bones
    5. data
    6. archaeological discovery
    7. burial urn
    8. source
    9. animals
    10. maps
    Questions 32-35

    Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.

    1. According to the writer, there are difficulties explaining how the Lapita accomplished their journeys because
      1. the canoes that have been discovered offer relatively few clues.
      2. archeologists have shown limited interest in this area of research.
      3. little information relating to this period can be relied upon for accuracy.
      4. technological advances have altered the way such achievements are viewed.
    2. According to the sixth paragraph, what was extraordinary about the Lapita?
      1. They sailed beyond the point where land was visible.
      2. They cultural heritage discouraged the expression of fear.
      3. They were able to build canoes that withstood ocean voyages.
      4. Their navigational skills were passed on from one generation to the next.
    3. What does ‘This’ refer to in the seventh paragraph?
      1. the Lapita’s seafaring talent
      2. the Lapita’s ability to detect signs of land
      3. the Lapita’s extensive knowledge of the region
      4. the Lapita’s belief they would be able to return home
    4. According to the eighth paragraph, how was the geography of the region significant?
      1. It played an important role in Lapita culture
      2. It meant there were relatively few storms at sea
      3. It provided a navigational aid for the Lapita
      4. It made a large number of islands habitable
    Questions 36-40

    Do the following statements agree with the views of the writer in Reading Passage 3?

    In boxes 36-40 on your answer sheet, write

    • YES                           if the statement agrees with the views of the writer
    • NO                             if the statement contradicts the views of the writer
    • NOT GIVEN          if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this
    1. It is now clear that the Lapita could sail into a prevailing wind.
    2. Extreme climate conditions may have played a role in Lapita migration.
    3. The Lapita learnt to predict the duration of El Ninos.
    4. It remains unclear why the Lapita halted their expansion across the Pacific.
    5. It is likely that the majority of Lapita settled on Fiji.
    Reading Passage 1 The context, meaning and scope of tourism Answers
    1. ii
    2. i
    3. v
    4. vii
    5. true
    6. not given
    7. not given
    8. true
    9. not given
    10. false
    11. source of income
    12. employer
    13. domestic tourism
    Reading Passage 2 Autumn Leaves Answers
    1. C
    2. B
    3. H
    4. B
    5. E
    6. sun(light)
    7. upper
    8. dry
    9. north
    10. false
    11. true
    12. not given
    13. B
    Reading Passage 3 Beyond the blue horizon Answers
    1. B
    2. F
    3. I
    4. G
    5. D
    6. C
    7. A
    8. D
    9. C
    10. no
    11. yes
    12. not given
    13. yes
    14. not given
  • Cambridge IELTS 10 Academic Reading Test 2

    Reading Passge 1

    Tea and the Industrial Revolution

    A Alan Macfarlane, professor of anthropological science at King’s College, Cambridge, has, like other historians, spent decades wrestling with the enigma of the Industrial Revolution. Why did this particular Big Bang – the world-changing birth of industry – happen in Britain? And why did it strike at the end of the 18th century?

    B Macfarlane compares the puzzle to a combination lock. ‘There are about 20 different factors and all of them need to be present before the revolution can happen,’ he says. For industry to take off, there needs to be the technology and power to drive factories, large urban populations to provide cheap labour, easy transport to move goods around, an affluent middle-class willing to buy mass-produced objects, a market-driven economy and a political system that allows this to happen. While this was the case for England, other ‘ nations, such as Japan, the Netherlands and France also met some of these criteria but were not industrialising. All these factors must have been necessary but not sufficient to cause the revolution,’ says Macfarlane. After all, Holland had everything except coal, while China also had many of these factors. Most historians are convinced there are one or two missing factors that you need to open the lock.’

    C The missing factors, he proposes, are to be found in almost every kitchen cupboard. Tea and beer, two of the nation’s favourite drinks, fuelled the revolution. The antiseptic properties of tannin, the active ingredient in tea, and of hops in beer – plus the fact that both are made with boiled water – allowed urban communities to flourish at close quarters without succumbing to water-borne diseases such as dysentery. The theory sounds eccentric but once he starts to explain the detective work that went into his deduction, the scepticism gives way to wary admiration. Macfarlane’s case has been strengthened by support from notable quarters — Roy Porter, the distinguished medical historian, recently wrote a favourable appraisal of his research.

    D Macfarlane had wondered for a long time how the Industrial Revolution came about. Historians had alighted on one interesting factor around the mid-18th century that required explanation. Between about 1650 and 1740, the population in Britain was static. But then there was a burst in population growth. Macfarlane says: ‘The infant mortality rate halved in the space of 20 years, and this happened in both rural areas and cities, and across all classes. People suggested four possible causes. Was there a sudden change in the viruses and bacteria around? Unlikely. Was there a revolution in medical science? But this was a century before Lister’s revolution . Was there a change in environmental conditions? There were improvements in agriculture that wiped out malaria, but these were small gains. Sanitation did not become widespread until the 19th century. The only option left is food. But the height and weight statistics show a decline. So the food must have got worse. Efforts to explain this sudden reduction in child deaths appeared to draw a blank.’

    E This population burst seemed to happen at just the right time to provide labour for the Industrial Revolution. ‘When you start moving towards an industrial revolution, it is economically efficient to have people living close together/ says Macfarlane. ‘But then you get disease, particularly from human waste.’ Some digging around in historical records revealed that there was a change in the incidence of water-borne disease at that time, especially dysentery. Macfarlane deduced that whatever the British were drinking must have been important in regulating disease. He says, ‘We drank beer. For a long time, the English were protected by the strong antibacterial agent in hops, which were added to help preserve the beer. But in the late 17th century a tax was introduced on malt, the basic ingredient of beer. The poor turned to water and gin and in the 1720s the mortality rate began to rise again. 7ben it suddenly dropped again. What caused this?’

    F Macfarlane looked to Japan, which was also developing large cities about the same time, and also had no sanitation. Water-borne diseases had a much looser grip on the Japanese population than those in Britain. Could it be the prevalence of tea in their culture? Macfarlane then noted that the history of tea in Britain provided an extraordinary coincidence of dates. Tea was relatively expensive until Britain started a direct clipper trade with China in the early 18th century. By the 1740s, about the time that infant mortality was dipping, the drink was common. Macfarlane guessed that the fact that water had to be boiled, together with the stomach-purifying properties of tea meant that the breast milk provided by mothers was healthier than it had ever been. No other European nation sipped tea like the British, which, by Macfarlane’s logic, pushed these other countries out of contention for the revolution.

    G But, if tea is a factor in the combination lock, why didn’t Japan forge ahead in a tea-soaked industrial revolution of its own? Macfarlane notes that even though 17th-century Japan had large cities, high literacy rates, even a futures market, it had turned its back on the essence of any work-based revolution by giving up labour-saving devices such as animals, afraid that they would put people out of work. So, the nation that we now think of as one of the most technologically advanced entered the 19th century having ‘abandoned the wheel’.

    Questions 1-7

    Reading passage 1 has 7 paragraphs A-G.

    Choose the correct heading for each paragraph from the list of headings below.

    List of headings

    1. The search for the reasons for an increase in population
    2. Industrialisation and the fear of unemployment
    3. The development of cities in Japan
    4. The time and place of the Industrial Revolution
    5. The cases of Holland, France and China
    6. Changes in drinking habits in Britain
    7. Two keys to Britain’s industrial revolution
    8. Conditions required for industrialization
    9. Comparisons with Japan lead to the answer
    1. Paragraph A
    2. Paragraph B
    3. Paragraph C
    4. Paragraph D
    5. Paragraph E
    6. Paragraph F
    7. Paragraph G
    Questions 8-13

    Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 1?

    In boxes 8-13 on your answer sheet, write

    • TRUE                        if the statement agrees with the information
    • FALSE                      if the statement contradicts the information
    • NOT GIVEN           if there is no information on this
    1. China’s transport system was not suitable for industry in the 18th century.
    2. Tea and beer both helped to prevent dysentery in Britain.
    3. Roy Porter disagrees with Professor Macfarlane’s findings.
    4. After 1740, there was a reduction in population in Britain.
    5. People in Britain used to make beer at home.
    6. The tax on malt indirectly caused a rise in the death rate.

    Reading Passage 2

    Gifted Children and Learning

    A Internationally, ‘giftedness’ is most frequently determined by a score on a general intelligence test, known as an IQ test, which is above a chosen cutoff point, usually at around the top 2-5%. Children’s educational environment contributes to the IQ score and the way intelligence is used. For example, a very close positive relationship was found when children’s IQ scores were compared with their home educational provision (Freeman, 2010). The higher the children’s IQ scores, especially over IQ 130, the better the quality of their educational backup, measured in terms of reported verbal interactions with parents, number of books and activities in their home etc. Because IQ tests are decidedly influenced by what the child has learned, they are to some extent measures of current achievement based on age-norms; that is, how well the children have learned to manipulate their knowledge and know-how within the terms of the test. The vocabulary aspect, for example, is dependent on having heard those words. But IQ tests can neither identify the processes of learning and thinking nor predict creativity.

    B Excellence does not emerge without appropriate help. To reach an exceptionally high standard in any area very able children need the means to learn, which includes material to work with and focused challenging tuition – and the encouragement to follow their dream. There appears to be a qualitative difference in the way the intellectually highly able think, compared with more average-ability or older pupils, for whom external regulation by the teacher often compensates for lack of internal regulation. To be at their most effective in their self-regulation, all children can be helped to identify their own ways of learning – metacognition – which will include strategies of planning, monitoring, evaluation, and choice of what to learn. Emotional awareness is also part of metacognition, so children should be helped to be aware of their feelings around the area to be learned, feelings of curiosity or confidence, for example.

    C High achievers have been found to use self-regulatory learning strategies more often and more effectively than lower achievers, and are better able to transfer these strategies to deal with unfamiliar tasks. This happens to such a high degree in some children that they appear to be demonstrating talent in particular areas. Overviewing research on the thinking process of highly able children, (Shore and Kanevsky, 1993) put the instructor’s problem succinctly:
    ‘If they [the gifted] merely think more quickly, then we need only teach more quickly. If they merely make fewer errors, then we can shorten the practice’. But of course, this is not entirely the case; adjustments have to be made in methods of learning and teaching, to take account of the many ways individuals think.

    D Yet in order to learn by themselves, the gifted do need some support from their teachers. Conversely, teachers who have a tendency to ‘overdirect’ can diminish their gifted pupils’ learning autonomy. Although ‘spoon-feeding’ can produce extremely high examination results, these are not always followed by equally impressive life successes. Too much dependence on the teacher risks loss of autonomy and motivation to discover. However, when teachers help pupils to reflect on their own learning and thinking activities, they increase their pupils’ self-regulation. For a young child, it may be just the simple question ‘What have you learned today?’ which helps them to recognise what they are doing. Given that a fundamental goal of education is to transfer the control of learning from teachers to pupils, improving pupils’ learning to learn techniques should be a major outcome of the school experience, especially for the highly competent. There are quite a number of new methods which can help, such as child- initiated learning, ability-peer tutoring, etc. Such practices have been found to be particularly useful for bright children from deprived areas.

    E But scientific progress is not all theoretical, knowledge is also vital to outstanding performance: individuals who know a great deal about a specific domain will achieve at a higher level than those who do not (Elshout, 1995). Research with creative scientists by Simonton (1988) brought him to the conclusion that above a certain high level, characteristics such as independence seemed to contribute more to reaching the highest levels of expertise than intellectual skills, due to the great demands of effort and time needed for learning and practice. Creativity in all forms can be seen as expertise mixed with a high level of motivation (Weisberg, 1993).

    F To sum up, learning is affected by emotions of both the individual and significant others. Positive emotions facilitate the creative aspects of learning and negative emotions inhibit it. Fear, for example, can limit the development of curiosity, which is a strong force in scientific advance, because it motivates problem-solving behaviour. In Boekaerts’ (1991) review of emotion in the learning of very high IQ and highly achieving children, she found emotional forces in harness. They were not only curious, but often had a strong desire to control their environment, improve their learning efficiency, and increase their own learning resources.

    Questions 14-17

    Reading Passage 2 has six paragraphs, A-F.

    Which paragraph contains the following information?

    NB You may use any letter more than once.

    1. a reference to the influence of the domestic background on the gifted child
    2. reference to what can be lost if learners are given too much guidance
    3. a reference to the damaging effects of anxiety
    4. examples of classroom techniques which favour socially-disadvantaged children
    Questions 18-22

    Look at the following statements (Questions 18-22) and the list of people below.

    Match each statement with the correct person or people, A-E.

    1. Less time can be spent on exercises with gifted pupils who produce accurate work.
    2. Self-reliance is a valuable tool that helps gifted students reach their goals.
    3. Gifted children know how to channel their feelings to assist their learning.
    4. The very gifted child benefits from appropriate support from close relatives.
    5. Really successful students have learnt a considerable amount about their subject.

    List of people

    1. Freeman
    2. Shore and Kanevsky
    3. Elshout
    4. Simonton
    5. Boekaerts
    Questions 23-26

    Complete the sentences below.

    Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer.

    1. One study found a strong connection between children’s IQ and the availability of………………………….. and……………………..………at home.
    2. Children of average ability seem to need more direction from teachers because they do not have………………..
    3. Metacognition involves children understanding their own learning strategies, as well as developing………………
    4. Teachers who rely on what is known as…………………..often produce sets of impressive grades in class tests.

    Reading Passage 3

    Museum of Fine Art and their Public

    One of the most famous works of art in the world is Leonardo da Vinci’s Mona Lisa. Nearly everyone who goes to see the original will already be familiar with it from reproductions, but they accept that fine art is more rewardingly viewed in its original form.

    However, if Mona Lisa was a famous novel, few people would bother to go to a museum to read the writer’s actual manuscript rather than a printed reproduction. This might be explained by the fact that the novel has evolved precisely because of technological developments that made it possible to print out huge numbers of texts, whereas oil paintings have always been produced as unique objects. In addition, it could be argued that the practice of interpreting or ‘reading’ each medium follows different conventions. With novels, the reader attends mainly to the meaning of words rather than the way they are printed on the page, whereas the ‘reader’ of a painting must attend just as closely to the material form of marks and shapes in the picture as to any ideas they may signify.

    Yet it has always been possible to make very accurate facsimiles of pretty well any fine art work. The seven surviving versions of Mona Lisa bear witness to the fact that in the 16th century, artists seemed content to assign the reproduction of their creations to their workshop apprentices as regular ‘bread and butter’ work. And today the task of reproducing pictures is incomparably more simple and reliable, with reprographic techniques that allow the production of high-quality prints made exactly to the original scale, with faithful colour values, and even with duplication of the surface relief of the painting.

    But despite an implicit recognition that the spread of good reproductions can be culturally valuable, museums continue to promote the special status of original work.

    Unfortunately, this seems to place severe limitations on the kind of experience offered to visitors.

    One limitation is related to the way the museum presents its exhibits. As repositories of unique historical objects, art museums are often called ‘treasure houses’. We are reminded of this even before we view a collection by the presence of security guards, attendants, ropes and display cases to keep us away from the exhibits. In many cases, the architectural style of the building further reinforces that notion. In addition, a major collection like that of London’s National Gallery is housed in numerous rooms, each with dozens of works, any one of which is likely to be worth more than all the average visitor possesses. In a society that judges the personal status of the individual so much by their material worth, it is therefore difficult not to be impressed by one’s own relative ‘worthlessness’ in such an environment.

    Furthermore, consideration of the ‘value’ of the original work in its treasure house setting impresses upon the viewer that, since these works were originally produced, they have been assigned a huge monetary value by some person or institution more powerful than themselves. Evidently, nothing the viewer thinks about the work is going to alter that value, and so today’s viewer is deterred from trying to extend that spontaneous, immediate, self-reliant kind of reading which would originally have met the work.

    The visitor may then be struck by the strangeness of seeing such diverse paintings, drawings and sculptures brought together in an environment for which they were not originally created. This ‘displacement effect’ is further heightened by the sheer volume of exhibits. In the case of a major collection, there are probably more works on display than we could realistically view in weeks or even months.

    This is particularly distressing because time seems to be a vital factor in the appreciation of all art forms. A fundamental difference between paintings and other art forms is that there is no prescribed time over which a painting is viewed. By contrast, the audience encounters an opera or a play over a specific time, which is the duration of the performance. Similarly, novels and poems are read in a prescribed temporal sequence, whereas a picture has no clear place at which to start viewing, or at which to finish. Thus art works themselves encourage us to view them superficially, without appreciating the richness of detail and labour that is involved.

    Consequently, the dominant critical approach becomes that of the art historian, a specialised academic approach devoted to ‘discovering the meaning’ of art within the cultural context of its time. This is in perfect harmony with the museum’s function, since the approach is dedicated to seeking out and conserving ‘authentic’, ‘original’ readings of the exhibits. Again, this seems to put paid to that spontaneous, participatory criticism which can be found in abundance in criticism of classic works of literature, but is absent from most art history.

    The displays of art museums serve as a warning of what critical practices can emerge when spontaneous criticism is suppressed. The museum public, like any other audience, experience art more rewardingly when given the confidence to express their views. If appropriate works of fine art could be rendered permanently accessible to the public by means of high-fidelity reproductions, as literature and music already are, the public may feel somewhat less in awe of them. Unfortunately, that may be too much to ask from those who seek to maintain and control the art establishment.

    Questions 27-31

    Complete the summary using the list of words, A-L, below.

    The value attached to original works of art

    People go to art museums because they accept the value of seeing an original work of art. But they do not go to museums to read original manuscripts of novels, perhaps because the availability of novels has depended on (27)……………………….for so long, and also because with novels, the (28)…………………….are the most important thing. However, in historical times artists such as Leonardo were happy to instruct (29)………………….to produce copies of their work and these days new methods of reproduction allow excellent replication of surface relief features as well as colour and (30)…………………………. It is regrettable that museums still promote the superiority of original works of art, since this may not be in the interests of the (31)………………….

    1. institution
    2. mass production
    3. mechanical processes
    4. public
    5. paints
    6. artist
    7. size
    8. underlying ideas
    9. basic technology
    10. readers
    11. picture frames
    12. assistants
    Questions 32-35

    Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.

    1. The writer mentions London’s National Gallery to illustrate
      1. the undesirable cost to a nation of maintaining a huge collection of art
      2. the conflict that may arise in society between financial and artistic values
      3. the negative effect a museum can have on visitors’ opinions of themselves
      4. the need to put individual well-being above large-scale artistic schemes.
    2. The writer says that today, viewers may be unwilling to criticise a work because
      1. they lack the knowledge needed to support an opinion
      2. they fear it may have financial implications
      3. they have no real concept of the work’s value
      4. they feel their personal reaction is of no significance
    3. According to the writer, the ‘displacement effect’ on the visitor is caused by
      1. the variety of works on display and the way they are arranged
      2. the impossibility of viewing particular works of art over a long period
      3. the similar nature of the paintings and the lack of great works
      4. the inappropriate nature of the individual works selected for exhibition
    4. The writer says that unlike other forms of art, a painting does not
      1. involve direct contact with an audience
      2. require a specific location for a performance
      3. need the involvement of other professionals
      4. have a specific beginning or end
    Questions 36-40

    Do the following statements agree with the views of the writer in Reading Passage 3?

    In boxes 36-40 on your answer sheet, write

    • YES                                if the statement agrees with the views of the writer
    • NO                                  if the statement contradicts the views of the writer
    • NOT GIVEN               if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this
    1. Art history should focus on discovering the meaning of art using a range of media.
    2. The approach of art historians conflicts with that of art museums.
    3. People should be encouraged to give their opinions openly on works of art.
    4. Reproductions of fine art should only be sold to the public if they are of high quality.
    5. In the future, those with power are likely to encourage more people to enjoy art.
    Reading Passage 1 Tea and the Industrial Revolution Answers
    1. iv
    2. viii
    3. vii
    4. i
    5. vi
    6. ix
    7. ii
    8. not given
    9. true
    10. false
    11. false
    12. not given
    13. true
    Reading Passage 2 Gifted Children and Learning Answers
    1. A
    2. D
    3. F
    4. D
    5. B
    6. D
    7. E
    8. A
    9. C
    10. books and activities
    11. internal regulation
    12. emotional awareness
    13. spoon feeding
    Reading Passage 3 Museum of Fine Art and their Public Answers
    1. B
    2. H
    3. L
    4. G
    5. D
    6. C
    7. D
    8. A
    9. D
    10. not given
    11. no
    12. yes
    13. not given
    14. no
  • Cambridge IELTS 4 Academic Reading Test 2

    Reading Passage 1

    Lost for Words

    Part of the image by: pixabay.com

    In the Native American Navajo nation, which sprawls across four states in the American south-west, the native language is dying. Most of its speakers are middle-aged or elderly. Although many students take classes in Navajo, the schools are run in English. Street signs’, supermarket goods and even their own newspaper are all in English, Not surprisingly, linguists doubt that any native speakers of Navajo will remain in a hundred years’ time.

    Navajo is far from alone. Half the world’s 6,800 languages are likely to vanish within two generations – that’s one language lost every ten days. Never before has the planet’s linguistic diversity shrunk at such a pace. ‘At the moment, we are heading for about three or four languages dominating the world,’ says Mark Pagel, an evolutionary biologist at the University of Reading. ‘It’s a mass extinction, and whether we will ever rebound from the loss is difficult to know.’

    Isolation breeds linguistic diversity: as a result, the world is peppered with languages spoken by only a few people. Only 250 languages have more than a million speakers, and at least 3,000 have fewer than 2,500. It is not necessarily these small languages that are about to disappear. Navajo is considered endangered despite having 150,000 speakers. What makes a language endangered is not just the number of speakers, but how old they are. If it is spoken by children it is relatively safe. The critically endangered languages are those that are only spoken by the elderly, according to Michael Krauss, director of the Alassk Native Language Center, in Fairbanks.

    Why do people reject the language of their parents? It begins with a crisis of confidence, when a small community finds itself alongside a larger, wealthier society, says Nicholas Ostler, of Britain’s Foundation for Endangered Languages, in Bath. ‘People lose faith in their culture,’ he says. ‘When the next generation reaches their teens, they might not want to be induced into the old traditions.’

    The change is not always voluntary quite often, governments try to kill off a minority language by banning its use in public or discouraging its use in schools, all to promote national unity. The former US policy of running Indian reservation schools in English, for example, effectively put languages such as Navajo on the danger list. But Salikoko Mufwene, who chairs the Linguistics department at the University of Chicago, argues that the deadliest weapon is not government policy but economic globalisation. ‘Native Americans have not lost pride in their language, but they have had to adapt to socio-economic pressures,’ he says. ‘They cannot refuse to speak English if most commercial activity is in English.’ But are languages worth saving? At the very least, there is a loss of data for the study of languages and their evolution, which relies on comparisons between languages, both living and dead. When an unwritten and unrecorded language disappears, it is lost to science.

    Language is also intimately bound up with culture, so it may be difficult to preserve one without the other. ‘If a person shifts from Navajo to English, they lose something,’ Mufwene says. ‘Moreover, the loss of diversity may also deprive us of different ways of looking at the world,’ says Pagel. There is mounting evidence that learning a language produces physiological changes in the brain. ‘Your brain and mine are different from the brain of someone who speaks French, for instance,’ Pagel says, and this could affect our thoughts and perceptions. ‘The patterns and connections we make among various concepts may be structured by the linguistic habits of our community.’

    So despite linguists’ best efforts, many languages will disappear over the next century. But a growing interest in cultural identity may prevent the direst predictions from coming true. ‘The key to fostering diversity is for people to learn their ancestral tongue, as well as the dominant language,’ says Doug Whalen, founder and president of the Endangered Language Fund in New Haven, Connecticut. ‘Most of these languages will not survive without a large degree of bilingualism,’ he says. In New Zealand, classes for children have slowed the erosion of Maori and rekindled interest in the language. A similar approach in Hawaii has produced about 8,000 new speakers of Polynesian languages in the past few years. In California, ‘apprentice’ programmes have provided life support to several indigenous languages. Volunteer ‘apprentices’ pair up with one of the last living speakers of a Native American tongue to learn a traditional skill such as basket weaving, with instruction exclusively in the endangered language. After about 300 hours of training they are generally sufficiently fluent to transmit the language to the next generation. But Mufwene says that preventing a language dying out is not the same as giving it new life by using it every day. ‘Preserving a language is more like preserving fruits in a jar’ he says.

    However, preservation can bring a language back from the dead. There are examples of languages that have survived in written form and then been revived by later generations. But a written form is essential for this, so the mere possibility of revival has led many speakers of endangered languages to develop systems of writing where none existed before.

    Questions 1-4

    Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer.

    Write your answers in boxes 1-4 on your answer sheet.

    There are currently approximately 6,800 languages in the world. This great variety of languages came about largely as a result of geographical (1)……………………..But in today’s world, factors such as government initiatives and (2)…………………..are contributing to a huge decrease in the number of languages. One factor which may help to ensure that some endangered languages do not die out completely is people’s increasing appreciation of their (3)…………………….This has been encouraged through programmes of language classes for children and through ‘apprentice’ schemes, in which the endangered language is used as the medium of instruction to teach people a (4)…………………….Some speakers of endangered languages have even produced writing systems in order to help secure the survival of their mother tongue.

    Questions 5-9

    Look at the following statements (Questions 5-9) and the list of people in the box below.

    Match each statement with the correct person A-E.

    Write the appropriate letter A-E in boxes 5-9 on your answer sheet.

    NB You may use any letter more than once.

    1. Endangered languages cannot be saved unless people learn to speak more than one language.
    2. Saving languages from extinction is not in itself a satisfactory goal.
    3. The way we think may be determined by our language.
    4. Young people often reject the established way of life in their community.
    5. A change of language may mean a loss of traditional culture
    A Michael KraussB Salikoko MufweneC Nicholas Ostler
    D Mark PagelE Doug Whalen
    Questions 10-13

    Do the following statements agree with the views of the writer in the passage 1?

    In boxes 10-13 on your answer sheet write

    • YES                  if the statement agrees with the view of the writer
    • NO                  if the statement contradicts the view of the writer
    • NOT GIVEN    if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this
    1. The Navajo language will die out because it currently has too few speakers.
    2. A large number of native speakers fails to guarantee the survival of a language.
    3. National governments could do more to protect endangered languages.
    4. The loss of linguistic diversity is inevitable.

    Reading Passage 2

    Alternative Medicine in Australia

    Part of the image by: pixabay.com

    The first students to study alternative medicine at university level in Australia began their four-year, full-time course at the University of Technology, Sydney, in early 1994. Their course covered, among other therapies, acupuncture. The theory they learnt is based on the traditional Chinese explanation of this ancient healing art: that it can regulate the flow of ‘Qi’ or energy through pathways in the body. This course reflects how far some alternative therapies have come in their struggle for acceptance by the medical establishment.

    Australia has been unusual in the Western world in having a very conservative attitude to natural or alternative therapies, according to Dr Paul Laver, a lecturer in Public Health at the University of Sydney. ‘We’ve had a tradition of doctors being fairly powerful and I guess they are pretty loath to allow any pretenders to their position to come into it.’ In many other industrialized countries, orthodox and alternative medicines have worked ‘hand in glove’ for years. In Europe, only orthodox doctors can prescribe herbal medicine. In Germany, plant remedies account for 10% of the national turnover of pharmaceutical. Americans made more visits to alternative therapist than to orthodox doctors in 1990, and each year they spend about $US 12 billion on the therapies that have not been scientifically tested.

    Disenchantment with orthodox medicine has seen the popularity of alternative therapies in Australia climb steadily during the past 20 years. In a 1983 national health survey, 1.9% of people said they had contacted a chiropractor, naturopath, osteopath, acupuncturist or herbalist in the two weeks prior to the survey. By 1990, this figure had risen to 2.6% of the population. The 550,000 consultations with alternative therapists reported in the 1990 survey represented about an eighth of the total number of consultations with medically qualified personnel covered by the survey, according to Dr Laver and colleagues writing in the Australian Journal of Public Health in 1993. ‘A better educated and less accepting public has become disillusioned with the experts in general and increasingly skeptical about science and empirically based knowledge,’ they said. ‘The high standing of professionals, including doctors, has been eroded as a consequence.’

    Rather than resisting or criticizing this trend, increasing numbers of Australian doctors, particularly younger ones, are forming group practices with alternative therapists or taking courses themselves, particularly in acupuncture and herbalism. Part of the incentive was financial, Dr Laver said. ‘The bottom line is that most general practitioners are business people. If they see potential clientele going elsewhere, they might want to be able to offer a similar service.’

    In 1993, Dr Laver and his colleagues published a survey of 289 Sydney people who attended eight alternative therapists’ practices in Sydney. These practices offered a wide range of alternative therapies from 25 therapists. Those surveyed had experience chronic illnesses, for which orthodox medicine had been able to provide little relief. They commented that they liked the holistic approach of their alternative therapists and the friendly, concerned and detailed attention they had received. The cold, impersonal manner of orthodox doctors featured in the survey. An increasing exodus from their clinics, coupled with this and a number of other relevant surveys carried out in Australia, all pointing to orthodox doctors’ inadequacies, have led mainstream doctors themselves to begin to admit they could learn from the personal style of alternative therapists. Dr Patrick Store, President of the Royal College of General Practitioners, concurs that orthodox doctors could learn a lot about beside manner and advising patients on preventative health from alternative therapists.

    According to the Australian Journal of Public Health, 18% of patients visiting alternative therapists do so because they suffer from muscular-skeletal complaints; 12% suffer from digestive problems, which is only 1% more than those suffering from emotional problems. Those suffering from respiratory complaints represent 7% of their patients, and candida sufferers represent an equal percentage. Headache sufferers and those complaining of general ill health represent 6% and 5% of patients respectively, and a further 4% see therapists for general health maintenance.

    The survey suggested that complementary medicine is probably a better term than alternative medicine. Alternative medicine appears to be an adjunct, sought in times of disenchantment when conventional medicine seems not to offer the answer.

    Questions 14 and 15

    Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.

    1. Traditionally, how have Australian doctors differed from doctors in many Western countries?
      1. They have worked closely with pharmaceutical companies.
      2. They have often worked alongside other therapists.
      3. They have been reluctant to accept alternative therapists.
      4. They have regularly prescribed alternative remedies.
    2. In 1990, Americans
      1. were prescribed more herbal medicines than in previous years.
      2. consulted alternative therapists more often than doctors.
      3. spent more on natural therapies than orthodox medicines.
      4. made more complaints about doctors than in previous years.
    Questions 16-23

    Do the following statements agree with the views of the writer in Reading Passage 2?

    • YES                           if the statement agrees with the views of the writer
    • NO                             if the statement contradicts the views of the writer
    • NOT GIVEN          if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this
    1. Australians have been turning to alternative therapies in increasing numbers over the past 20 years.
    2. Between 1983 and 1990 the numbers of patients visiting alternative therapists rose to include a further 8% of the population.
    3. The 1990 survey related to 550,000 consultations with alternative therapists.
    4. In the past, Australians had a higher opinion, of doctors than they do today.
    5. Some Australian doctors -are retraining in alternative therapies.
    6. Alternative therapists earn higher salaries than doctors.
    7. The 1993 Sydney survey involved 289 patients who visited alternative therapists for acupuncture treatment.
    8. All the patients in the 1993 Sydney survey had long-term medical complaints.
    Questions 24-26

    Complete the vertical axis in the chart below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS.


    Reading Passage 3

    Play Is A Serious Business

    Part of the image by: pixabay.com

    A Playing is a serious business. Children engrossed in a make-believe world, fox cubs play-fighting or kittens teasing a ball of string aren’t just having fun. Play may look like a carefree and exuberant way to pass the time before the hard work of adulthood comes along, but there’s much more to it than that. For a start, play can even cost animals their lives. Eighty per cent of deaths among juvenile fur seals occur because playing pups fail to spot predators approaching. It is also extremely expensive in terms of energy. Playful young animals use around two or three per cent of their energy cavorting, and in children that figure can be closer to fifteen per cent. ‘Even wo or three per cent is huge,’ says John Byers of Idaho University. ‘You just don’t find animals wasting energy like that,’ he adds. There must be a reason.

    B But if play is not simply a developmental hiccup, as biologists once thought, why did it evolve? The latest idea suggests that play has evolved to build big brains. In other words, playing makes you intelligent. Playfulness, it seems, is common only among mammals, although a few of the larger-brained birds also indulge. Animals at play often use unique signs – tail- wagging in dogs, for example – to indicate that activity superficially resembling adult behavior is not really in earnest. A popular explanation of play has been that it helps juveniles develop the skills they will need to hunt, mate and socialise as adults. Another has been that it allows young animals to get in shape for adult life by improving their respiratory endurance. Both these ideas have been questioned in recent years.

    C Take the exercise theory. If play evolved to build muscle or as a kind of endurance training, then you would expect to see permanent benefits. But Byers points out that the benefits of increased exercise disappear rapidly after training stops, so any improvement in endurance resulting from juvenile play would be lost by adulthood. ‘If the function of play was to get into shape,’ says Byers, ‘the optimum time for playing would depend on when it was most advantageous for the young of a particular species to do so, But it doesn’t work like that.’ Across species, play tends to peak about halfway through the suckling stage and then decline.

    D Then there’s the skills-training hypothesis. At first glance, playing animals do appear to be practising die complex manoeuvres they will need in adulthood. But a closer inspection reveals this interpretation as too simplistic. In one study, behavioural ecologist Tim Caro, from the University of California, looked at the predatory play of kittens and their predatory behaviour when they reached adulthood. He found that the way the cats played had no significant effect on their hunting prowess in later life.

    E Earlier this year, Sergio Pellis of Lethbridge University, Canada, reported that there is a strong positive link between brain size and playfulness among mammals in general. Comparing measurements for fifteen orders of mammal, he and his team found larger brains (for a given body size) are linked to greater playfulness. The converse was also found to be true. Robert Barton of Durham University believes that, because large brains are more sensitive to developmental stimuli than smaller brains, they require more play to help mould them for adulthood. “I concluded it’s to do with learning, and with the importance of environmental data to the brain during development,” he says.

    F According to Byers, the timing of the playful stage in young animals provides an important clue to what’s going on. If you plot the amount of time a juvenile devotes to play each day over the course of its development, you discover a pattern typically associated with a ‘sensitive period’ – a brief development window during which the brain can actually be modified in ways that are not possible earlier or later in life. Think of the relative ease with which young children – but not infants or adults – absorb language. Other researchers have found that play in cats, rats and mice is at its most intense just as this ‘window of opportunity’ reaches its peak.

    G ‘People have not paid enough attention to the amount of the brain activated by play,’ says Marc Bekoff from Colorado University. Bekoff studied coyote pups at play and found that the kind of behaviour involved was markedly more variable and unpredictable than that of adults. Such behaviour activates many different parts of the brain, he reasons. Bekoff likens it to a behavioural kaleidoscope, with animals at play jumping rapidly between activities. ‘They use behaviour from a lot of different contexts – predation, aggression, reproduction/ he says. ‘Their developing brain is getting all sorts of stimulation.

    H Not only is more of the brain involved in play than was suspected, but it also seems to activate higher cognitive processes. ‘There’s enormous cognitive involvement in play’, says Bekoff. He points out that play often involves complex assessments of playmates, ideas of reciprocity and the use of specialised signals and rules. He believes that play creates a brain that has greater behavioural flexibility and improved potential for learning later in life. The idea is backed up by the work of Stephen Siviy of Gettysburg College. Siviy studied how bouts of play affected the brain’s levels of a particular chemical associated with the stimulation and growth of nerve cells. He was surprised by the extent of the activation. ‘Play just lights everything up/ he says. By allowing link-ups between brain areas that might not normally communicate with each other, play may enhance creativity.

    I What might further experimentation suggest about the way children are raised in many societies today? We already know that rat pups denied the chance to play grow smaller brain components and fail to develop the ability to apply social rules when they interact with their peers. With schooling beginning earlier and becoming increasingly exam-orientated, play is likely to get even less of a look-in. Who knows what the result of that will be?

    Questions 27-32

    Reading Passage 3 has nine paragraphs labelled A-I. Which paragraph contains the following information?

    Write the correct letter A-I in boxes 27-32 on your answer sheet.

    NB You may use any letter more than once.

    1. the way play causes unusual connections in the brain which are beneficial
    2. insights from recording how much time young animals spend playing
    3. a description of the physical hazards that can accompany play
    4. a description of the mental activities which are exercised and developed during play
    5. the possible effects that a reduction in play opportunities will have on humans
    6. the classes of animals for which play is important
    Questions 33-35

    Choose THREE letters A-F.

    Write your answers in boxes 33-35 on your answer sheet.

    The list below gives some ways of regarding play.

    Which THREE ways are mentioned by the writer of the text?

    1. a rehearsal for later adult activities
    2. a method animals use to prove themselves to their peer group
    3. an activity intended to build up strength for adulthoood
    4. a means of communicating feelings
    5. a defensive strategy
    6. an activity assisting organ growth
    Questions 36-40

    Look at the following researchers (Questions 36-40) and the list of findings below.

    Match each researcher with the correct finding.

    Write the correct letter A-H in boxes 36-40 on your answer sheet.

    1. Robert Barton
    2. Marc Bekofif
    3. John Byers
    4. Sergio Pellis
    5. Stephen Siviy

    List of Findings

    1. There is a link between a specific substance in the brain and playing
    2. Play provides input concerning physical surroundings
    3. Varieties of play can be matched to different stages of evolutionary history
    4. There is a tendency for mammals with smaller brains to play less
    5. Play is not a form of fitness training for the future
    6. Some species of larger brained birds engage in play
    7. A wide range of activities are combined during play
    8. Play is a method of teaching survival techniques
    Academic Reading Passage 1 Lost for Words Answers
    1. isolation
    2. economic globalization
    3. cultural identity
    4. traditional skill
    5. E
    6. B
    7. D
    8. C
    9. B
    10. no
    11. yes
    12. not given
    13. yes
    Academic Reading Passage 2 Alternative Medicine in Australia Answers
    1. C
    2. B
    3. yes
    4. no
    5. yes
    6. yes
    7. yes
    8. not given
    9. yes
    10. yes
    11. emotional problems
    12. headaches
    13. general ill health
    Academic Reading Passage 3 PLAY IS A SERIOUS BUSINESS Answers
    1. H
    2. F
    3. A
    4. H
    5. E
    6. B
    7. A
    8. C
    9. F
    10. B
    11. G
    12. E
    13. D
    14. A
  • Cambridge IELTS 6 Academic Reading Test 2

    Reading Passage 1

    Advantages of public transport

    A New study conducted for the World Bank by Murdoch University’s Institute for Science and Technology Policy (ISTP) has demonstrated that public transport is more efficient than cars. The study compared the proportion of wealth poured into transport by thirty-seven cities around the world. This included both the public and private costs of building, maintaining and using a transport system.

    The study found that the Western Australian city of Perth is a good example of a city with minimal public transport. As a result, 17% of its wealth went into transport costs. Some European and Asian cities, on the other hand, spent as little as 5%. Professor Peter Newman, ISTP Director, pointed out that these more efficient cities were able to put the difference into attracting industry and jobs or creating a better place to live.

    According to Professor Newman, the larger Australian city of Melbourne is a rather unusual city in this sort of comparison. He describes it as two cities: ‘A European city surrounded by a car-dependent one’. Melbourne’s large tram network has made car use in the inner city much lower, but the outer suburbs have the same car-based structure as most other Australian cities. The explosion in demand for accommodation in the inner suburbs of Melbourne suggests a recent change in many people’s preferences as to where they live.

    Newman says this is a new, broader way of considering public transport issues. In the past, the case for public transport has been made on the basis of environmental and social justice considerations rather than economics. Newman, however, believes the study demonstrates that ‘the auto-dependent city model is inefficient and grossly inadequate in economic as well as environmental terms’.

    Bicycle use was not included in the study but Newman noted that the two most ‘bicycle friendly’ cities considered – Amsterdam and Copenhagen – were very efficient, even though their public transport systems were ‘reasonable but not special’.

    It is common for supporters of road networks to reject the models of cities with good public transport by arguing that such systems would not work in their particular city. One objection is climate. Some people say their city could not make more use of public transport because it is either too hot or too cold. Newman rejects this, pointing out that public transport has been successful in both Toronto and Singapore and, in fact, he has checked the use of cars against climate and found ‘zero correlation’.

    When it comes to other physical features, road lobbies are on stronger ground. For example, Newman accepts it would be hard for a city as hilly as Auckland to develop a really good rail network. However, he points out that both Hong Kong and Zürich have managed to make a success of their rail systems, heavy and light respectively, though there are few cities in the world as hilly.

    • In fact, Newman believes the main reason for adopting one sort of transport over another is politics: ‘The more democratic the process, the more public transport is favored.’ He considers Portland, Oregon, a perfect example of this. Some years ago, federal money was granted to build a new road. However, local pressure groups forced a referendum over whether to spend the money on light rail instead. The rail proposal won and the railway worked spectacularly well. In the years that have followed, more and more rail systems have been put in, dramatically changing the nature of the city. Newman notes that Portland has about the same population as Perth and had a similar population density at the time.
    • In the UK, travel times to work had been stable for at least six centuries, with people avoiding situations that required them to spend more than half an hour travelling to work. Trains and cars initially allowed people to live at greater distances without taking longer to reach their destination. However, public infrastructure did not keep pace with urban sprawl, causing massive congestion problems which now make commuting times far higher.
    • There is a widespread belief that increasing wealth encourages people to live farther out where cars are the only viable transport. The example of European cities refutes that. They are often wealthier than their American counterparts but have not generated the same level of car use. In Stockholm, car use has actually fallen in recent years as the city has become larger and wealthier. A new study makes this point even more starkly. Developing cities in Asia, such as Jakarta and Bangkok, make more use of the car than wealthy Asian cities such as Tokyo and Singapore. In cities that developed later, the World Bank and Asian Development Bank discouraged the building of public transport and people have been forced to rely on cars – creating the massive traffic jams that characterize those cities.
    • Newman believes one of the best studies on how cities built for cars might be converted to rail use is The Urban Village report, which used Melbourne as an example. It found that pushing everyone into the city centre was not the best approach. Instead, the proposal advocated the creation of urban villages at hundreds of sites, mostly around railway stations.
    • It was once assumed that improvements in telecommunications would lead to more dispersal in the population as people were no longer forced into cities. However, the ISTP team’s research demonstrates that the population and job density of cities rose or remained constant in the 1980s after decades of decline. The explanation for this seems to be that it is valuable to place people working in related fields together. ‘The new world will largely depend on human creativity, and creativity flourishes where people come together face-to-face.’
    Questions 1-5

    You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-13, which are based on Reading Passage 1.

    Reading Passage 1 has five paragraphs, A-E.

    Choose the correct heading for each paragraph from the list of headings below.

    Write the correct number i-viii, in boxes 1-5 on your answer sheet.

    List of Headings

    1. Avoiding an overcrowded centre
    2. successful exercise in people power
    3. The benefits of working together in cities
    4. Higher incomes need not mean more cars
    5. Economic arguments fail to persuade
    6. The impact of telecommunications on population distribution
    7. Increases in travelling time
    8. Responding to arguments against public transport.
    1. Paragraph A
    2. Paragraph B
    3. Paragraph C
    4. Paragraph D
    5. Paragraph E
    Questions 6-10

    Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 95?

    In boxes 6-10 on your answer sheet, write

    • TRUE if the statement agrees with the information
    • FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
    • NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this
    1. The ISTP study examined public and private systems in every city in the world.
    2. Efficient cities can improve the quality of life for their inhabitants.
    3. An inner-city tram network is dangerous for car drivers.
    4. In Melbourne, people prefer to live in the outer suburbs.
    5. Cities with high levels of bicycle usage can be efficient even when public transport is only averagely good.
    Questions 11-13

    Look at the following cities (Questions 11-13) and the list of descriptions below.

    Match each city with the correct description, A-F.

    Write the correct letter, A-F, in boxes 11-13 on your answer sheet.

    List of Descriptions

    1. successfully uses a light rail transport system in hilly environment
    2. successful public transport system despite cold winters
    3. profitably moved from road to light rail transport system
    4. hilly and inappropriate for rail transport system
    5. heavily dependent on cars despite widespread poverty
    6. inefficient due to a limited public transport system

    Reading Passage 2

    Greying Population Stays in the Pink

    Elderly people are growing healthier, happier and more independent, say American scientists. The results of a 14-year study to be announced later this month reveal that the diseases associated with old age are afflicting fewer and fewer people and when they do strike, it is much later in life.

    In the last 14 years, the National Long-term Health Care Survey has gathered data on the health and lifestyles of more than 20,000 men and women over 65. Researchers, now analysing the results of data gathered in 1994, say arthritis, high blood pressure and circulation problems -the major medical complaints in this age group – are troubling a smaller proportion every year. And the data confirms that the rate at which these diseases are declining continues to accelerate. Other diseases of old age – dementia, stroke, arteriosclerosis and emphysema – are also troubling fewer and fewer people.

    ‘It really raises the question of what should be considered normal ageing,’ says Kenneth Manton, a demographer from Duke University in North Carolina. He says the problems doctors accepted as normal in a 65-year-old in 1982 are often not appearing until people are 70 or 75.

    Clearly, certain diseases are beating a retreat in the face of medical advances. But there may be other contributing factors. Improvements in childhood nutrition in the first quarter of the twentieth century, for example, gave today’s elderly people a better start in life than their predecessors.

    On the downside, the data also reveals failures in public health that have caused surges in some illnesses. An increase in some cancers and bronchitis may reflect changing smoking habits and poorer air quality, say the researchers. ‘These may be subtle influences,’ says Manton, ‘but our subjects have been exposed to worse and worse pollution for over 60 years. It’s not surprising we see some effect.’

    One interesting correlation Manton uncovered is that better-educated people are likely to live longer. For example, 65-year-old women with fewer than eight years of schooling are expected, on average, to live to 82. Those who continued their education live an extra seven years. Although some of this can be attributed to a higher income, Manton believes it is mainly because educated people seek more medical attention.

    The survey also assessed how independent people over 65 were, and again found a striking trend. Almost 80% of those in the 1994 survey could complete everyday activities ranging from eating and dressing unaided to complex tasks such as cooking and managing their finances. That represents a significant drop in the number of disabled old people in the population. If the trends apparent in the United States 14 years ago had continued, researchers calculate there would be an additional one million disabled elderly people in today’s population. According to Manton, slowing the trend has saved the United States government’s Medicare system more than $200 billion, suggesting that the greying of America’s population may prove less of a financial burden than expected.

    The increasing self-reliance of many elderly people is probably linked to a massive increase in the use of simple home medical aids. For instance, the use of raised toilet seats has more than doubled since the start of the study, and the use of bath seats has grown by more than 50%. These developments also bring some health benefits, according to a report from the MacArthur Foundation’s research group on successful ageing. The group found that those elderly people who were able to retain a sense of independence were more likely to stay healthy in old age.

    Maintaining a level of daily physical activity may help mental functioning, says Carl Cotman, a neuroscientist at the University of California at Irvine. He found that rats that exercise on a treadmill have raised levels of brain-derived neurotrophic factor coursing through their brains. Cotman believes this hormone, which keeps neurons functioning, may prevent the brains of active humans from deteriorating.

    As part of the same study, Teresa Seeman, a social epidemiologist at the University of Southern California in Los Angeles, found a connection between self-esteem and stress in people over 70. In laboratory simulations of challenging activities such as driving, those who felt in control of their lives pumped out lower levels of stress hormones such as cortisol. Chronically high levels of these hormones have been linked to heart disease.

    But independence can have drawbacks. Seeman found that elderly people who felt emotionally isolated maintained higher levels of stress hormones even when asleep. The research suggests that older people fare best when they feel independent but know they can get help when they need it.

    ‘Like much research into ageing, these results support common sense,’ says Seeman. They also show that we may be underestimating the impact of these simple factors. ‘The sort of thing that your grandmother always told you turns out to be right on target,’ she says.

    Questions 14-22

    Complete the summary using the list of words, A-Q. below.

    Write the correct letter, A-Q, in boxes 14-22 on your answer sheet.

    Research carried out by scientists in the United States has shown that the proportion of people over 65 suffering from the most common age-related medical problems is (14) ………………….. and that the speed of this change is (15)……………………….. It also seems that these diseases ere affecting people (16) …………………….. in life than they did in the past. This is largely due to developments in (17) ……………………. , but other factors such as improved (18) …………………… may also be playing a part. Increases in some other illnesses may be due to changes in personal habits and to (19) ………………………. The research establishes a link between levels of (20) ……………………. and life expectancy. It also shows that there has been a considerable reduction in the number of elderly people who are (21) …………………….. which means that the (22) …………………… involved in supporting this section of the population may be less than previously predicted.

    1. cost
    2. falling
    3. technology
    4. undernourished
    5. earlier
    6. later
    7. disabled
    8. more
    9. Increasing
    10. nutrition
    11. education
    12. constant
    13. medicine
    14. pollution
    15. environmental
    16. health
    17. independent
    Questions 23-26

    Complete each sentence with the correct ending, A-H, below.

    Write the correct letter, A-H, in boxes 23-26 on your answer sheet.

    1. Home medical aids
    2. Regular amounts of exercise
    3. Feelings of control over life
    4. Feelings of loneliness
      1. may cause heart disease.
      2. can be helped by hormone treatment.
      3. may cause rises in levels of stress hormones.
      4. have cost the United States government more than $200 billion.
      5. may help prevent mental decline.
      6. may get stronger at night.
      7. allow old people to be more independent.
      8. can reduce stress in difficult situations.

    Reading Passage 3

    Numeration

    One of the first great intellectual feats of a young child is learning how to talk, closely followed by learning how to count. From earliest childhood, we are so bound up with our system of numeration that it is a feat of imagination to consider the problems faced by early humans who had not yet developed this facility. Careful consideration of our system of numeration leads to the conviction that, rather than being a facility that comes naturally to a person, it is one of the great and remarkable achievements of the human race.

    It is impossible to learn the sequence of events that led to our developing the concept of number. Even the earliest of tribes had a system of numeration that, if not advanced, was sufficient for the tasks that they had to perform. Our ancestors had little use for actual numbers; instead, their considerations would have been more of the kind Is this enough? rather than How many? when they were engaged in food gathering, for example. However, when early humans first began to reflect on the nature of things around them, they discovered that they needed an idea of number simply to keep their thoughts in order. As they began to settle, grow plants and herd animals, the need for a sophisticated number system became paramount. It will never be known how and when this numeration ability developed, but it is certain that numeration was well developed by the time humans had formed even semipermanent settlements.

    Evidence of early stages of arithmetic and numeration can be readily found. The indigenous peoples of Tasmania were only able to count one, two, many; those of South Africa counted one, two, two and one, two twos, two twos and one, and so on. But in real situations the number and words are offen accompanied by gestures to help resolve any confusion. For example, when using the one, two, many types of system, the word many would mean, Look my hands and see how many fingers I am showing you. This basic approach is limited in the range of numbers that it can express, but this range will generally suffice when dealing with the simpler aspects of human existence.

    The lack of ability of some cultures to deal with large numbers is not really surprising. European languages, when traced back to their earlier version, are very poor in number words and expressions. The ancient Gothic word for ten, tachund, is used to express the number 100 as tachund tachund. By the seventh century, the word teon had become interchangeable with the tachund or hund of the Anglo-Saxon language, and so 100 was denoted as hund teontig, or ten times ten. The average person in the seventh century in Europe was not as familiar with numbers as we are today. In fact, to qualify as a witness in a court of law a man had to be able to count to nine!

    Perhaps the most fundamental step in developing a sense of number is not the ability to count, but rather to see that a number is really an abstract idea instead of a simple attachment to a group of particular objects. It must have been within the grasp of the earliest humans to conceive that four birds are distinct from two birds; however, it is not an elementary step to associate the number 4, as connected with four birds, to the number 4, as connected with four rocks. Associating a number as one of the qualities of a specific object is a great hindrance to the development of a true number sense. When the number 4 can be registered in the mind as a specific word, independent of the object being referenced, the individual is ready to take the first step toward the development of a notational system for numbers and, from there, to arithmetic.

    Traces of the very first stages in the development of numeration can be seen in several living languages today. The numeration system of the Tsimshian language in British Columbia contains seven distinct sets of words for numbers according to the class of the item being counted: for counting flat objects and animals, for round objects and time, for people, for long objects and trees, for canoes, for measures, and for counting when no particular object is being enumerated. It seems that the last is a later development while the first six groups show the relics of an older system. This diversity of number names can also be found in some widely used languages such as Japanese.

    Intermixed with the development of a number sense is the development of an ability to count. Counting is not directly related to the formation of a number concept because it is possible to count by matching the items being counted against a group of pebbles, grains of corn, or the counter’s fingers. These aids would have been indispensable to very early people who would have found the process impossible without some form of mechanical aid. Such aids, while different, are still used even by the most educated in today’s society due to their convenience. All counting ultimately involves reference to something other than the things being counted. At first, it may have been grains or pebbles but now it is a memorised sequence of words that happen to be the names of the numbers.

    Questions 27-31

    Complete each sentence with the correct ending, A-G, below.

    Write the correct letter, A-G, in boxes 27-31 on your answer sheet.

    A was necessary in order to fulfil a civic role.B was necessary when people began farming.C was necessary for the development of arithmetic.D persists in all societies.E was used when the range of number words was restricted.F can be traced back to early European languages.G was a characteristic of early numeration systems.

    1. A developed system of numbering
    2. An additional hand signal
    3. In seventh-century Europe, the ability to count to a certain number
    4. Thinking about numbers as concepts separate from physical objects
    5. Expressing number differently according to class of item
    Questions 32-40

    Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 3?

    In boxes 32-40 on your answer sheet, write:

    • TRUE if the statement agrees with the information
    • FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
    • NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this
    1. For the earliest tribes, the concept of sufficiency was more important than the concept of quantity.
    2. Indigenous Tasmanians used only four terms to indicate numbers of objects.
    3. Some peoples with simple number systems use body language to prevent misunderstanding of expressions of the number.
    4. All cultures have been able to express large numbers clearly.
    5. The word ‘thousand’ has Anglo-Saxon origins.
    6. In general, people in seventh-century Europe had poor counting ability.
    7. In the Tsimshian language, the number for long objects and canoes is expressed with the same word.
    8. The Tsimshian language contains both older and newer systems of counting.
    9. Early peoples found it easier to count by using their fingers rather than a group of pebbles.
    Academic Reading Passage 1 Advantages of public transport Answers
    1. ii
    2. vii
    3. iv
    4. i
    5. iii
    6. false
    7. true
    8. not given
    9. false
    10. true
    11. F
    12. D
    13. C
    Academic Reading Passage 2 Greying Population Stays in the Pink Answers
    1. falling
    2. increasing
    3. later
    4. medicine
    5. nutrition
    6. pollution
    7. education
    8. disabled
    9. cost
    10. G
    11. E
    12. H
    13. C
    Academic Reading Passage 3 Numeration Answers
    1. B
    2. E
    3. A
    4. C
    5. G
    6. true
    7. false
    8. true
    9. false
    10. not given
    11. true
    12. false
    13. true
    14. not given
  • Cambridge IELTS 5 Academic Reading Test 4

    Reading Passage 1

    The Impact of Wilderness Tourism

    A The market for tourism in remote areas is booming as never before. Countries all across the world are actively promoting their ‘wilderness’ regions – such as mountains, Arctic lands, deserts, small islands and wetlands – to high-spending tourists. The attraction of these areas is obvious: by definition, wilderness tourism requires little or no initial investment. But that does not mean that there is no cost. As the 1992 United Nations Conference on Environment and Development recognized, these regions are fragile (i.e. highly vulnerable to abnormal pressures) not just in terms of their ecology, but also in terms of the culture of their inhabitants. The three most significant types of fragile environment in these respects, and also in terms of the proportion of the Earth’s surface they cover, are deserts, mountains and Arctic areas. An important characteristic is their marked seasonality, with harsh conditions prevailing for many months each year. Consequently, most human activities, including tourism, are limited to quite clearly defined parts of the year.

    Tourists are drawn to these regions by their natural landscape beauty and the unique cultures of their indigenous people. And poor governments in these isolated areas have welcomed the new breed of ‘adventure tourist’, grateful for the hard currency they bring. For several years now, tourism has been the prime source of foreign exchange in Nepal and Bhutan. Tourism is also a key element in the economies of Arctic zones such as Lapland and Alaska and in desert areas such as Ayers Rock in Australia and Arizona’s Monument Valley.

    B Once a location is established as a main tourist destination, the effects on the local community are profound. When hill-farmers, for example, can make more money in a few weeks working as porters for foreign trekkers than they can in a year working in their fields, it is not surprising that many of them give up their farm-work, which is thus left to other members of the family. In some hill-regions, this has led to a serious decline in farm output and a change in the local diet, because there is insufficient labour to maintain terraces and irrigation systems and tend to crops. The result has been that many people in these regions have turned to outside supplies of rice and other foods.

    In Arctic and desert societies, year-round survival has traditionally depended on hunting animals and fish and collecting fruit over a relatively short season. However, as some inhabitants become involved in tourism, they no longer have time to collect wild food; this has led to increasing dependence on bought food and stores. Tourism is not always the culprit behind such changes. All kinds of wage labour, or government handouts, tend to undermine traditional survival systems. Whatever the cause, the dilemma is always the same: what happens if these new, external sources of income dry up?

    The physical impact of visitors is another serious problem associated with the growth in adventure tourism. Much attention has focused on erosion along major trails, but perhaps more important are the deforestation and impacts on water supplies arising from the need to provide tourists with cooked food and hot showers. In both mountains and deserts, slow-growing trees are often the main sources of fuel and water supplies may be limited or vulnerable to degradation through heavy use.

    C Stories about the problems of tourism have become legion in the last few years. Yet it does not have to be a problem. Although tourism inevitably affects the region in which it takes place, the costs to these fragile environments and their local cultures can be minimized. Indeed, it can even be a vehicle for reinvigorating local cultures, as has happened with the Sherpas of Nepal’s Khumbu Valley and in some Alpine villages. And a growing number of adventure tourism operators are trying to ensure that their activities benefit the local population and environment over the long term.

    In the Swiss Alps, communities have decided that their future depends on integrating tourism more effectively with the local economy. Local concern about the rising number of second home developments in the Swiss Pays d’Enhaut resulted in limits being imposed on their growth. There has also been a renaissance in communal cheese production in the area, providing the locals with a reliable source of income that does not depend on outside visitors.

    Many of the Arctic tourist destinations have been exploited by outside companies, who employ transient workers and repatriate most of the profits to their home base. But some Arctic communities are now operating tour businesses themselves, thereby ensuring that the benefits accrue locally. For instance, a native corporation in Alaska, employing local people, is running an air tour from Anchorage to Kotzebue, where tourists eat Arctic food, walk on the tundra and watch local musicians and dancers.

    Native people in the desert regions of the American Southwest have followed similar strategies, encouraging tourists to visit their pueblos and reservations to purchase high-quality handicrafts and artwork. The Acoma and San Ildefonso pueblos have established highly profitable pottery businesses, while the Navajo and Hopi groups have been similarly successful with jewellery.

    Too many people living in fragile environments have lost control over their economies, their culture and their environment when tourism has penetrated their homelands. Merely restricting tourism cannot be the solution to the imbalance, because people’s desire to see new places will not just disappear. Instead, communities in fragile environments must achieve greater control over tourism ventures in their regions; in order to balance their needs and aspirations with the demands of tourism. A growing number of communities are demonstrating that, with firm communal decision-making, this is possible. The critical question now is whether this can become the norm, rather than the exception.

    Questions 1-3

    Reading Passage 1 has six paragraphs, A-C.

    Choose the correct heading for each section from the list of headings below.

    List of Headings

    1. The expansion of international tourism in recent years
    2. How local communities can balance their own needs with the demands of wilderness tourism
    3. Fragile regions and the reasons for the expansion of tourism there
    4. Traditional methods of food-supply in fragile regions
    5. Some of the disruptive effects of wilderness tourism
    6. The economic benefits of mass tourism
    1. Section A
    2. Section B
    3. Section C
    Questions 4-9

    Do the following statements reflect the claims of the writer in Reading Passage 1?

    In boxes 4-9 on your answer sheet, write

    • YES                            if the statement reflects the claims of the writer
    • NO                              if the statement contradicts the claims of the writer
    • NOT GIVEN           if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this
    1. The low financial cost of setting up wilderness tourism makes it attractive to many countries.
    2. Deserts, mountains and Arctic regions are examples of environments that are both ecologically and culturally fragile.
    3. Wilderness tourism operates throughout the year in fragile areas.
    4. The spread of tourism in certain hill-regions has resulted in a fall in the amount of food produced locally.
    5. Traditional food-gathering in desert societies was distributed evenly over the year.
    6. Government handouts do more damage than tourism does to traditional patterns of food-gathering.
    Questions 10-13

    Choose ONE WORD from Reading Passage 1 for each answer.

    Write your answers in boxes 10-13 on your answer sheet.

    The positive ways in which some local communities have responded to tourism

    People/ LocationActivity
    Swiss Pays d’Enhautrevived production of (10)………………..
    Arctic communitiesoperate (11)………………….businesses
    Acoma and San Ildefonsoproduce and sell (12)…………………..
    Navajo and Hopi Activityproduce and sell (13)…………………..

    Reading Passage 2

    Flawed Beauty: the problem with toughened glass

    On 2nd August 1999, a particularly hot day in the town of Cirencester in the UK, a large pane of toughened glass in the roof of a shopping centre at Bishops Walk shattered without warning and fell from its frame. When fragments were analysed by experts at the giant glass manufacturer Pilkington, which had made the pane, they found that minute crystals of nickel sulphide trapped inside the glass had almost certainly caused the failure.

    ‘The glass industry is aware of the issue,’ says Brian Waldron, chairman of the standards committee at the Glass and Glazing Federation, a British trade association, and standards development officer at Pilkington. But he insists that cases are few and far between. ‘It’s a very rare phenomenon,’ he says.

    Others disagree. ‘On average I see about one or two buildings a month suffering from nickel sulphide related failures,’ says Barrie Josie, a consultant engineer involved in the Bishops Walk investigation. Other experts tell of similar experiences. Tony Wilmott of London-based consulting engineers Sandberg, and Simon Armstrong at CIadTech Associates in Hampshire both say they know of hundreds of cases. ‘What you hear is only the tip of the iceberg,’ says Trevor Ford, a glass expert at Resolve Engineering in Brisbane, Queensland. He believes the reason is simple: ‘No-one wants bad press.’

    Toughened glass is found everywhere, from cars and bus shelters to the windows, walls and roofs of thousands of buildings around the world. It’s easy to see why. This glass has five times the strength of standard glass, and when it does break it shatters into tiny cubes rather than large, razor-sharp shards. Architects love it because large panels can be bolted together to make transparent walls, and turning it into ceilings and floors is almost as easy.

    It is made by heating a sheet of ordinary glass to about 620°C to soften it slightly, allowing its structure to expand, and then cooling it rapidly with jets of cold air.

    This causes the outer layer of the pane to contract and solidify before the interior. When the interior finally solidifies and shrinks, it exerts a pull on the outer layer that leaves it in permanent compression and produces a tensile force inside the glass. As cracks propagate best in materials under tension, the compressive force on the surface must be overcome before the pane will break, making it more resistant to cracking.

    The problem starts when glass contains nickel sulphide impurities. Trace amounts of nickel and sulphur are usually present in the raw materials used to make glass, and nickel can also be introduced by fragments of nickel alloys falling into the molten glass. As the glass is heated, these atoms react to form tiny crystals of nickel sulphide. Just a tenth of a gram of nickel in the furnace can create up to 50,000 crystals.

    These crystals can exist in two forms: a dense form called the alpha phase, which is stable at high temperatures, and a less dense form called the beta phase, which is stable at room temperatures. The high temperatures used in the toughening process convert all the crystals to the dense, compact alpha form. But the subsequent cooling is so rapid that the crystals don’t have time to change back to the beta phase. This leaves unstable alpha crystals in the glass, primed like a coiled spring, ready to revert to the beta phase without warning.

    When this happens, the crystals expand by up to 4%. And if they are within the central, tensile region of the pane, the stresses this unleashes can shatter the whole sheet. The time that elapses before failure occurs is unpredictable. It could happen just months after manufacture, or decades later, although if the glass is heated – by sunlight, for example – the process is speeded up. Ironically, says Graham Dodd, of consulting engineers Arup in London, the oldest pane of toughened glass known to have failed due to nickel sulphide inclusions was in Pilkington’s glass research building in Lathom, Lancashire. The pane was 27 years old.

    Data showing the scale of the nickel sulphide problem is almost impossible to find. The picture is made more complicated by the fact that these crystals occur in batches. So even if, on average, there is only one inclusion in 7 tonnes of glass, if you experience one nickel sulphide failure in your building, that probably means you’ve got a problem in more than one pane. Josie says that in the last decade he has worked on over 15 buildings with the number of failures into double figures.

    One of the worst examples of this is Waterfront Place, which was completed in 1990. Over the following decade the 40 storey Brisbane block suffered a rash of failures. Eighty panes of its toughened glass shattered due to inclusions before experts were finally called in. John Barry, an expert in nickel sulphide contamination at the University of Queensland, analysed every glass pane in the building. Using a studio camera, a photographer went up in a cradle to take photos of every pane. These were scanned under a modified microfiche reader for signs of nickel sulphide crystals. ‘We discovered at least another 120 panes with potentially dangerous inclusions which were then replaced,’ says Barry. ‘It was a very expensive and time-consuming process that took around six months to complete.’ Though the project cost A$1.6 million (nearly £700,000), the alternative – re-cladding the entire building – would have cost ten times as much.

    Questions 14-17

    Look at the following people and the list of statements below.

    Match each person with the correct statement.

    Write the correct letter A-H in boxes 14-17 on your answer sheet.

    1. Brian Waldron
    2. Trevor Ford
    3. Graham Dodd
    4. John Barry

    List of Statements

    1. suggests that publicity about nickel sulphide failure has been suppressed
    2. regularly sees cases of nickel sulphide failure
    3. closely examined all the glass in one building
    4. was involved with the construction of Bishops Walk
    5. recommended the rebuilding of Waterfront Place
    6. thinks the benefits of toughened glass are exaggerated
    7. claims that nickel sulphide failure is very unusual
    8. refers to the most extreme case of delayed failure
    Questions 18-23

    Complete the summary with the list of words A-P below.

    Write your answers in boxes 18-23 on your answer sheet.

    Toughened Glass
    Toughened glass is favoured by architects because it is much stronger than ordinary glass, and the fragments are not as (18) ……………….. when it breaks. However, it has one disadvantage: it can shatter (19) ……………….. This fault is a result of the manufacturing process. Ordinary glass is first heated, then cooled very (20) ……………….. .
    The outer layer (21) ……………….. before the inner layer, and the tension between the two layers which is created because of this makes the glass stronger. However, if the glass contains nickel sulphide impurities, crystals of nickel sulphide are formed. These are unstable, and can expand suddenly, particularly if the weather is (22)…………………….. If this happens, the pane of glass may break. The frequency with which such problems occur is (23) ……………….. by glass experts. Furthermore, the crystals cannot be detected without sophisticated equipment.

    A numerousB detectedC quicklyD agreed
    E warmF sharpG expandsH slowly
    I unexpectedlyJ removedK contactsL disputed
    M coldN movedO smallP calculated
    Questions 24-26

    Do the following statements agree with the information given in the passage?

    • TRUE if the statement agrees with the information
    • FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
    • NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this

    24. Little doubt was expressed about the reason for the Bishops Walk accident.

    25. Toughened glass has the same appearance as ordinary glass.

    26. There is plenty of documented evidence available about the incident of nickel sulphide failure.

    Reading Passage 3

    The effects of light on plant and animal species

    Light is important to organisms for two different reasons. Firstly it is used as a cue for the timing of daily and seasonal rhythms in both plant and animals, and secondly it is used to assist growth in plants.

    Breeding in most organisms occurs during a part of the year only, and so a reliable cue is needed to trigger breeding behaviour. Day length is an excellent cue, because it provides a perfectly predictable pattern of change within the year. In the temperate zone in spring, temperatures fluctuate greatly from day to day, but day length increases steadily by a predictable amount. The seasonal impact of day length on physiological responses is called photoperiodism, and the amount of experimental evidence for this phenomenon is considerable. For example, some species of birds’ breeding can be induced even in midwinter simply by increasing day length artificially (Wolfson 1964). Other examples of photoperiodism occur in plants. A short-day plant flowers when the day is less than a certain critical length. A long-day plant flowers after a certain critical day length is exceeded. In both cases the critical day length differs from species to species. Plant which flower after a period of vegetative growth, regardless of photoperiod, are known as day-neutral plants.

    Breeding seasons in animals such as birds have evolved to occupy the part of the year in which offspring have the greatest chances of survival. Before the breeding season begins, food reserves must be built up to support the energy cost of reproduction, and to provide for young birds both when they are in the nest and after fledging. Thus many temperate-zone birds use the increasing day lengths in spring as a cue to begin the nesting cycle, because this is a point when adequate food resources will be assured.

    The adaptive significance of photoperiodism in plant is also clear. Short-day plant that flower in spring in the temperate zone are adapted to maximising seedling growth during the growing season. Long-day plants are adapted for situations that require fertilization by insects, or a long period of seed ripening. Short-day plant that flower in the autumn in the temperate zone are able to build up food reserves over the growing season and over winter as seeds. Day-neutral plant have an evolutionary advantage when the connection between the favourable period for reproduction and day length is much less certain. For example, desert annuals germinate, flower and seed whenever suitable rainfall occurs, regardless of the day length.

    The breeding season of some plants can be delayed to extraordinary lengths. Bamboos are perennial grasses that remain in a vegetative state for many years and then suddenly flower, fruit and die (Evans 1976). Every bamboo of the species Chusquea abietifolio on the island of Jamaica flowered, set seed and died during 1884. The next generation of bamboo flowered and died between 1916 and 1918, which suggests a vegetative cycle of about 31 years. The climatic trigger for this flowering cycle is not-yet known, but the adaptive significance is clear. The simultaneous production of masses of bamboo seeds (in some cases lying 12 to 15 centimetres deep on the ground) is more than all the seed-eating animals can cope with at the time, so that some seeds escape being eaten and grow up to form the next generation (Evans 1976).

    The second reason light is important to organisms is that it is essential for photosynthesis. This is the process by which plants use energy from the sun to convert carbon from soil or water into organic material for growth. The rate of photosynthesis in a plant can be measured by calculating the rate of its uptake of carbon. There is a wide range of photosynthetic responses of plants to variations in light intensity. Some plants reach maximal photosynthesis at one-quarter full sunlight, and others, like sugarcane, never reach a maximum, but continue to increase photosynthesis rate as light intensity rises.

    Plants in general can be divided into two groups: shade-tolerant species and shade-intolerant species. This classification is commonly used in forestry and horticulture. Shade-tolerant plant have lower photosynthetic rates and hence have lower growth rates than those of shade-intolerant species. Plant species become adapted to living in a certain kind of habitat, and in the process evolve a series of characteristics that prevent them from occupying other habitats. Grime (1966) suggests that light may be one of the major components directing these adaptations. For example, eastern hemlock seedlings are shade-tolerant. They can survive in the forest understorey under very low light levels because they have a low photosynthetic rate.

    Questions 27-33

    Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 3?

    In boxes 27-33 on your answer sheet, write

    • TRUE                     if the statement agrees with the information
    • FALSE                   if the statement contradicts the information
    • NOT GIVEN        if there is no information on this
    1. There is plenty of scientific evidence to support photoperiodism.
    2. Some types of bird can be encouraged to breed out of season.
    3. Photoperiodism is restricted to certain geographic areas.
    4. Desert annuals are examples of long-day plants.
    5. Bamboos flower several times during their life cycle.
    6. Scientists have yet to determine the cue for Chusquea abietifolia’s seasonal rhythm.
    7. Eastern hemlock is a fast-growing plant.
    Questions 34-40

    Complete the sentences.

    Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage for each answer.

    Write your answers in boxes 34-40 on your answer sheet.

    1. Day length is a useful cue for breeding in areas where …………………………………. are unpredictable.
    2. Plants which do not respond to light levels are referred to as …………………………………..
    3. Birds in temperate climates associate longer days with nesting and the availability of ………………………………….
    4. Plants that Bower when days are long often depend on …………………………………. to help them reproduce.
    5. Desert annuals respond to …………………………………. as a signal for reproduction.
    6. There is no limit to the photosynthetic rate in plants such as …………………………………..
    7. Tolerance to shade is one criterion for the …………………………………. of plants in forestry and horticulture.
    Reading Passage 1 The Impact of Wilderness Tourism Answers
    1. iii
    2. v
    3. ii
    4. yes
    5. yes
    6. no
    7. yes
    8. no
    9. not given
    10. cheese
    11. tourism
    12. pottery
    13. jewellery
    Reading Passage 2 Flawed Beauty: the problem with toughened glass Answers
    1. G
    2. A
    3. H
    4. C
    5. sharp
    6. unexpectedly
    7. quickly
    8. contracts
    9. warm
    10. disputed
    11. true
    12. not given
    13. false
    Reading Passage 3 The effects of light on plant and animal species Answers
    1. true
    2. true
    3. not given
    4. false
    5. false
    6. true
    7. false
    8. temperatures
    9. day-neutral plants
    10. food resources
    11. insects
    12. suitable rainfall
    13. sugarcane
    14. classification
  • Cambridge IELTS 5 Academic Reading Test 1

    Reading Passage 1

    Johnson’s Dictionary

    For the century before Johnson’s Dictionary was published in 1775, there had been concern about the state of the English language. There was no standard way of speaking or writing and no agreement as to the best way of bringing some order to the chaos of English spelling. Dr Johnson provided the solution.

    There had, of course, been dictionaries in the past, the first of these being a little book of some 120 pages, compiled by a certain Robert Cawdray, published in 1604 under the title A Table Alphabetical of hard usual English words. Like the various dictionaries that came after it during the seventeenth century, Cawdray’s tended to concentrate on ‘scholarly’ words; one function of the dictionary was to enable its student to convey an impression of fine learning.

    Beyond the practical need to make order out of chaos, the rise of dictionaries is associated with the rise of the English middle class, who were anxious to define and circumscribe the various worlds to conquer -lexical as well as social and commercial. It is highly appropriate that Dr Samuel Johnson, the very model of an eighteenth-century literary man, as famous in his own time as in ours, should have published his Dictionary at the very beginning of the heyday of the middle class.

    Johnson was a poet and critic who raised common sense to the heights of genius. His approach to the problems that had worried writers throughout the late seventeenth and early eighteenth centuries was intensely practical. Up until his time, the task of producing a dictionary on such a large scale had seemed impossible without the establishment of an academy to make decisions about right and wrong usage. Johnson decided he did not need an academy to settle arguments about language; he would write a dictionary himself; and he would do it single-handed. Johnson signed the contract for the Dictionary with the bookseller Robert Dosley at a breakfast held at the Golden Anchor Inn near Holborn Bar on 18 June 1764. He was to be paid £1,575 in instalments, and from this he took money to rent 17 Gough Square, in which he set up his ‘dictionary workshop’.

    James Boswell, his biographer described the garret where Johnson worked as ‘fitted up like a counting house’ with a long desk running down the middle at which the copying clerks would work standing up. Johnson himself was stationed on a rickety chair at an ‘old crazy deal table’ surrounded by a chaos of borrowed books. He was also helped by six assistants, two of whom died whilst the Dictionary was still in preparation.

    The work was immense; filing about eighty large notebooks (and without a library to hand), Johnson wrote the definitions of over 40,000 words, and illustrated their many meanings with some 114,000 quotations drawn from English writing on every subject, from the Elizabethans to his own time. He did not expel to achieve complete originality. Working to a deadline, he had to draw on the best of all previous dictionaries, and to make his work one of heroic synthesis. In fact, it was very much more. Unlike his predecessors, Johnson treated English very practically, as a living language, with many different shades of meaning. He adopted his definitions on the principle of English common law – according to precedent. After its publication, his Dictionary was not seriously rivalled for over a century.

    After many vicissitudes the Dictionary was finally published on 15 April 1775. It was instantly recognised as a landmark throughout Europe. ‘This very noble work;’ wrote the leading Italian lexicographer, will be a perpetual monument of Fame to the Author, an Honour to his own Country in particular, and a general Benefit to the republic of Letters throughout Europe. The fact that Johnson had taken on the Academies of Europe and matched them (everyone knew that forty French academics had taken forty years to produce the first French national dictionary) was cause for much English celebration.

    Johnson had worked for nine years, ‘with little assistance of the learned, and without any patronage of the great; not in the soft obscurities of retirement, or under the shelter of academic bowers, but amidst inconvenience and distraction, in sickness and in sorrow’. For all its faults and eccentricities his two-volume work is a masterpiece and a landmark, in his own words, ‘setting the orthography, displaying the analogy, regulating the structures, and ascertaining the significations of English words’. It is the cornerstone of Standard English, an achievement which, in James Boswell’s words, ‘conferred stability on the language of his country’.

    The Dictionary, together with his other writing, made Johnson famous and so well esteemed that his friends were able to prevail upon King George III to offer him a pension. From then on, he was to become the Johnson of folklore.

    Questions 1-3

    Choose THREE letters A-H. Write your answers in boxes 1-3 on your answer sheet.

    NB Your answers may be given in any order.

    Which THREE of the following statements are true of Johnson’s Dictionary?

    1. It avoided all scholarly words.
    2. It was the only English dictionary in general use for 200 years.
    3. It was famous because of the large number of people involved.
    4. It focused mainly on language from contemporary texts.
    5. There was a time limit for its completion.
    6. It ignored work done by previous dictionary writers.
    7. It took into account subtleties of meaning.
    8. Its definitions were famous for their originality.
    Questions 4-7

    Complete the summary.

    Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer.

    In 1764 Dr Johnson accepted the contract to produce a dictionary. Having rented a garret, he took on a number of (4) ……………….. , who stood at a long central desk. Johnson did not have a (5) ……………….. available to him, but eventually produced definitions of in excess of 40,000 words written down in 80 large notebooks. On publication, the Dictionary was immediately hailed in many European countries as a landmark. According to his biographer, James Boswell, Johnson’s principal achievement was to bring (6) ……………….. to the English language. As a reward for his hard work, he was granted a (7) ……………….. by the king.

    Questions 8-13

    Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 1?

    In boxes 8-13 on your answer sheet, write

    • TRUE                         if the statement is true according to the passage
    • FALSE                       if the statement is false according to the passage
    • NOT GIVEN           if the information is not given in the passage
    1. The growing importance of the middle classes led to an increased demand for dictionaries.
    2. Johnson has become more well known since his death.
    3. Johnson had been planning to write a dictionary for several years.
    4. Johnson set up an academy to help with the writing of his Dictionary.
    5. Johnson only received payment for his Dictionary on its completion.
    6. Not all of the assistants survived to see the publication of the Dictionary.

    Reading Passage 2

    Nature or Nurture?

    A A few years ago, in one of the most fascinating and disturbing experiments in behavioural psychology, Stanley Milgram of Yale University tested 40 subjects from all walks of life for their willingness to obey instructions given by a ‘leader’ in a situation in which the subjects might feel a personal distaste for the actions they were called upon to perform. Specifically, Milgram told each volunteer ‘teacher-subject’ that the experiment was in the noble cause of education, and was designed to test whether or not punishing pupils for their mistakes would have a positive effect on the pupils’ ability to learn.

    B Milgram’s experimental set-up involved placing the teacher-subject before a panel of thirty switches with labels ranging from ’15 volts of electricity (slight shock)’ to ‘450 volts (danger – severe shock)’ in steps of 15 volts each. The teacher-subject was told that whenever the pupil gave the wrong answer to a question, a shock was to be administered, beginning at the lowest level and increasing in severity with each successive wrong answer. The supposed ‘pupil’ was in reality an actor hired by Milgram to simulate receiving the shocks by emitting a spectrum of groans, screams and writhings together with an assortment of statements and expletives denouncing both the experiment and the experimenter. Milgram told the teacher-subject to ignore the reactions of the pupil, and to administer whatever level of shock was called for, as per the rule governing the experimental situation of the moment.

    C As the experiment unfolded, the pupil would deliberately give the wrong answers to questions posed by the teacher, thereby bringing on various electrical punishments, even up to the danger level of 300 volts and beyond. Many of the teacher-subjects balked at administering the higher levels of punishment, and turned to Milgram with questioning looks and/or complaints about continuing the experiment. In these situations, Milgram calmly explained that the teacher-subject was to ignore the pupil’s cries for mercy and carry on with the experiment. If the subject was still reluctant to proceed, Milgram said that it was important for the sake of the experiment that the procedure be followed through to the end. His final argument was, ‘You have no other choice. You must go on.’ What Milgram was trying to discover was the number of teacher-subjects who would be willing to administer the highest levels of shock, even in the face of strong personal and moral revulsion against the rules and conditions of the experiment.

    D Prior to carrying out the experiment, Milgram explained his idea to a group of 39 psychiatrists and asked them to predict the average percentage of people in an ordinary population who would be willing to administer the highest shock level of 450 volts. The overwhelming consensus was that virtually all the out teacher-subjects would refuse to obey the experimenter. The psychiatrists felt that ‘most subjects would not go beyond 150 volts’ and they further anticipated that only four per cent would go up to 300 volts. Furthermore, they thought that only a lunatic fringe of about one in 1,000 would give the highest shock of 450 volts. Furthermore, they thought that only a lunatic cringe of about one in 1,000 would give the highest shock of 450 volts.

    E What were the actual results? Well, over 60 per cent of the teacher-subjects continued to obey Milgram up to the 450-volt limit! In repetitions of the experiment in other countries, the percentage of obedient teacher-subjects was even higher, reaching 85 per cent in one country. How can we possibly account for this vast discrepancy between what calm, rational, knowledgeable people predict in the comfort of their study and what pressured, flustered, but cooperative teachers’ actually do in the laboratory of real life?

    F One’s first inclination might be to argue that there must be some sort of built-in animal aggression instinct that was activated by the experiment, and that Milgram’s teacher-subjects were just following a genetic need to discharge this pent-up primal urge onto the pupil by administering the electrical shock. A modern hard-core sociobiologist might even go so far as to claim that this aggressive instinct evolved as an advantageous trait, having been of survival value to our ancestors in their struggle against the hardships of life on the plains and in the caves, ultimately finding its way into our genetic make-up as a remnant of our ancient animal ways.

    G An alternative to this notion of genetic programming is to see the teacher-subjects’ actions as a result of the social environment under which the experiment was carried out. As Milgram himself pointed out, ‘Most subjects in the experiment see their behaviour in a larger context that is benevolent and useful to society – the pursuit of scientific truth. The psychological laboratory has a strong claim to legitimacy and evokes trust and confidence in those who perform there. An action such as shocking a victim, which in isolation appears evil, acquires a completely different meaning when placed in this setting.’

    H Thus, in this explanation the subject merges his unique personality and personal and moral code with that of larger institutional structures, surrendering individual properties like loyalty, self-sacrifice and discipline to the service of malevolent systems of authority.

    I Here we have two radically different explanations for why so many teacher-subjects were willing to forgo their sense of personal responsibility for the sake of an institutional authority figure. The problem for biologists, psychologists and anthropologists is to sort which of these two polar explanations is more plausible. This, in essence, is the problem of modern sociobiology – to discover the degree to which hard-wired genetic programming dictates, or at least strongly biases, the interaction of animals and humans with their environment, that is, their behaviour. Put another way, sociobiology is concerned with elucidating the biological basis of all behaviour.

    Questions 14-19

    Reading Passage 2 has nine paragraphs, A-I.

    Write the correct letter A-I in boxes 14-19 on your answer sheet.

    Which paragraph contains the following information?

    1. a biological explanation of the teacher-subjects’ behaviour
    2. the explanation Milgram gave the teacher-subjects for the experiment
    3. the identity of the pupils
    4. the expected statistical outcome
    5. the general aim of sociobiological study
    6. the way Milgram persuaded the teacher-subjects to continue
    Questions 20-22

    Choose the correct letter. A, B. C or D.

    Write your answers in boxes 20-22 on your answer sheet.

    1. The teacher-subjects were told that they were testing whether
      1. a 450-volt shock was dangerous
      2. punishment helps learning
      3. the pupils were honest
      4. they were suited to teaching
    2. The teacher-subjects were instructed to
      1. stop when a pupil asked them to
      2. denounce pupils who made mistakes
      3. reduce the shock level after a correct answer
      4. give punishment according to a rule
    3. Before the experiment took place the psychiatrists
      1. believed that a shock of 150 volts was too dangerous
      2. failed to agree on how the teacher-subjects would respond to instructions
      3. underestimated the teacher-subjects’ willingness to comply with experimental procedure
      4. thought that many of the teacher-subjects would administer a shock of 450 volts
    Questions 23-26

    Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 2?

    In boxes 23-26 on your answer sheet, write

    • TRUE                         if the statement agrees with the information
    • FALSE                       if the statement contradicts the information
    • NOT GIVEN            if there is no information on this
    1. Several of the subjects were psychology students at Yale University.
    2. Some people may believe that the teacher-subjects’ behaviour could be explained as a positive survival mechanism.
    3. In a sociological explanation, personal values are more powerful than authority.
    4. Milgram’s experiment solves an important question in sociobiology.

    Reading Passage 3

    The Truth About the Environment

    For many environmentalists, the world seems to be getting worse. They have developed a hit-list of our main fears: that natural resources are running out; that the population is ever growing, leaving less and less to eat; that species are becoming extinct in vast numbers, and that the planet’s air and water are becoming ever more polluted.

    But a quick look at the facts shows a different picture. First, energy and other natural resources have become more abundant, not less so, since the book ‘The limits to Growth’ was published in 1972 by a group of scientists. Second, more food is now produced per head of the world’s population than at any time in history. Fewer people are starving. Third, although species are indeed becoming extinct, only about 0.7% of them are expelled to disappear in the next 50 years, not 25-50%, as has so often been predicted. And finally, most forms of environmental pollution either appear to have been exaggerated, or are transient – associated with the early phases of industrialisation and therefore best cured not by restricting economic growth, but by accelerating it. One form of pollution – the release of greenhouse gases that causes global warming – does appear to be a phenomenon that is going to extend well into our future, but its total impact is unlikely to pose a devastating problem. A bigger problem may well turn out to be an inappropriate response to it.

    Yet opinion polls suggest that many people nurture the belief that environmental standards are declining and four factors seem to cause this disjunction between perception and reality.

    One is the lopsidedness built into scientific research. Scientific funding goes mainly to areas with many problems. That may be wise policy but it will also create an impression that many more potential problems exist than is the case.

    Secondly, environmental groups need to be noticed by the mass media. They also need to keep the money rolling in. Understandably, perhaps, they sometimes overstate their arguments. In 1997, for example, the World Wide Fund for Nature issued a press release entitled: ‘Two thirds of the world’s forests lost forever’. The truth turns out to be nearer 20%.

    Though these groups are run overwhelmingly by selfless folk, they nevertheless share many of the characteristics of other lobby groups. That would matter less if people applied the same degree of scepticism to environmental lobbying as they do to lobby groups in other fields. A trade organisation arguing for, say, weaker pollution control is instantly seen as self-interested. Yet a green organisation opposing such a weakening is seen as altruistic, even if an impartial view of the controls in question might suggest they are doing more harm than good.

    A third source of confusion is the attitude of the media. People are dearly more curious about bad news than good. Newspapers and broadcasters are there to provide what the public wants. That, however, can lead to significant distortions of perception. An example was America’s encounter with EI Nino in 1997 and 1998. This climatic phenomenon was accused of wrecking tourism, causing allergies, melting the ski-slopes, and causing 22 deaths. However, according to an article in the Bulletin of the American Meteorological Society, the damage it did was estimated at US$4 billion but the benefits amounted to some US$19 billion. These came from higher winter temperatures (which saved an estimated 850 lives, reduced heating costs and diminished spring floods caused by meltwaters).

    The fourth factor is poor individual perception. People worry that the endless rise in the amount of stuff everyone throws away will cause the world to run out of places to dispose of waste. Yet, even if America’s trash output continues to rise as it has done in the past, and even if the American population doubles by 2100, all the rubbish America produces through the entire 21st century will still take up only one-12,000th of the area of the entire United States.

    So what of global warming? As we know, carbon dioxide emissions are causing the planet to warm. The best estimates are that the temperatures will rise by 2-3°C in this century, causing considerable problems, at a total cost of US$5,000 billion.

    Despite the intuition that something drastic needs to be done about such a costly problem, economic analyses dearly show it will be far more expensive to cut carbon dioxide emissions radically than to pay the costs of adaptation to the increased temperatures. A model by one of the main authors of the United Nations Climate Change Panel shows how an expected temperature increase of 2.1 degrees in 2100 would only be diminished to an increase of 1.9 degrees. Or to put it another way, the temperature increase that the planet would have experienced in 2094 would be postponed to 2100.

    So this does not prevent global warming, but merely buys the world six years. Yet the cost of reducing carbon dioxide emissions, for the United States alone, will be higher than the cost of solving the world’s single, most pressing health problem: providing universal access to clean drinking water and sanitation. Such measures would avoid 2 million deaths every year, and prevent half a billion people from becoming seriously ill.

    It is crucial that we look at the facts if we want to make the best possible decisions for the future. It may be costly to be overly optimistic – but more costly still to be too pessimistic.

    Questions 27-32

    Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 3?

    In boxes 27-32 on your answer sheet, write

    • YES                      if the statement agrees with the writer’s claims
    • NO                       if the statement contradicts the writer’s claims
    • NOT GIVEN          if there is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this
    1. Environmentalists take a pessimistic view of the world for a number of reasons.
    2. Data on the Earth’s natural resources has only been collected since 1972.
    3. The number of starving people in the world has increased in recent years.
    4. Extinct species are being replaced by new species.
    5. Some pollution problems have been correctly linked to industrialisation.
    6. It would be best to attempt to slow down economic growth.
    Questions 33-37

    Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.

    Write your answers in boxes 33-37 on your answer sheet.

    1. What aspect of scientific research does the writer express concern about in paragraph 4?
      1. the need to produce results
      2. the lack of financial support
      3. the selection of areas to research
      4. the desire to solve every research problem
    2. The writer quotes from the Worldwide Fund for Nature to illustrate how
      1. influential the mass media can be
      2. effective environmental groups can be
      3. the mass media can help groups raise funds
      4. environmental groups can exaggerate their claims
    3. 35 What is the writer’s main point about lobby groups in paragraph 6?
      1. Some are more active than others
      2. Some are better organised than others
      3. Some receive more criticism than others
      4. Some support more important issues than others
    4. The writer suggests that newspapers print items that are intended to
      1. educate readers
      2. meet their readers’ expectations
      3. encourage feedback from readers
      4. mislead readers
    5. What does the writer say about America’s waste problem?
      1. It will increase in line with population growth
      2. It is not as important as we have been led to believe
      3. It has been reduced through public awareness of the issues
      4. It is only significant in certain areas of the country
    Questions 38-40

    Complete the summary with the list of words A-I below.

    Write the correct letter A-I in boxes 38-40 on your answer sheet.

    GLOBAL WARMING
    The writer admits that global warming is a (38) ……………….. challenge, but says that it will not have a catastrophic impact on our future, if we deal with it in the (39) ……………….. way. If we try to reduce the levels of greenhouse gases, he believes that it would only have a minimal impact on rising temperatures. He feels it would be better to spend money on the more (40) ……………….. health problem of providing the world’s population with clean drinking water.

    A unrealistic               B agreed              C expensive                D right               E long-term
    F usual                       G surprising          H personal                 I urgent

    IELTS Academic Reading Passage 1 Johnson’s Dictionary Answers
    1. D
    2. E
    3. G
    4. copying clerks
    5. library
    6. stability
    7. pension
    8. true
    9. false
    10. not given
    11. false
    12. false
    13. true
    IELTS Academic Reading Passage 2 Nature or Nurture? Answers
    1. F
    2. A
    3. B
    4. D
    5. E
    6. C
    7. B
    8. D
    9. C
    10. not given
    11. true
    12. false
    13. false
    IELTS Academic Reading Passage 3 Nature or Nurture? Answers
    1. yes
    2. not given
    3. no
    4. not given
    5. yes
    6. no
    7. C
    8. D
    9. C
    10. B
    11. B
    12. E
    13. D
    14. I
  • Cambridge IELTS 5 Academic Reading Test 3

    Reading Passage 1

    Early Childhood Education

    A ‘Education To Be More’ was published last August. It was the report of the New Zealand Government’s Early Childhood Care and Education Working Group. The report argued for enhanced equity of access and better funding for childcare and early childhood education institutions. Unquestionably, that’s a real need; but since parents don’t normally send children to pre-schools until the age of three, are we missing out on the most important years of all?

    B A 13-year study of early childhood development at Harvard University has shown that, by the age of three, most children have the potential to understand about 1000 words – most of the language they will use in ordinary conversation for the rest of their lives.

    Furthermore, research has shown that while every child is born with a natural curiosity, it can be suppressed dramatically during the second and third years of life. Researchers claim that the human personality is formed during the first two years of life, and during the first three years children learn the basic skills they will use in all their later learning both at home and at school. Once over the age of three, children continue to expand on existing knowledge of the world.

    C It is generally acknowledged that young people from poorer socio-economic backgrounds tend to do less well in our education system. That’s observed not just in New Zealand, but also in Australia, Britain and America. In an attempt to overcome that educational under-achievement, a nationwide programme called ‘Headstart’ was launched in the United States in 1965. A lot of money was poured into it. It took children into pre-school institutions at the age of three and was supposed to help the children of poorer families succeed in school.

    Despite substantial funding, results have been disappointing. It is thought that there are two explanations for this. First, the programme began too late. Many children who entered it at the age of three were already behind their peers in language and measurable intelligence. Second, the parents were not involved. At the end of each day, ‘Headstart’ children returned to the same disadvantaged home environment.

    D As a result of the growing research evidence of the importance of the first three years of a child’s life and the disappointing results from ‘Headstart’, a pilot programme was launched in Missouri in the US that focused on parents as the child’s first teachers. The ‘Missouri’ programme was predicated on research showing that working with the family, rather than bypassing the parents, is the most effective way of helping children get off to the best possible start in life.

    The four-year pilot study included 380 families who were about to have their first child and who represented a cross-section of socio-economic status, age and family configurations. They included single-parent and two-parent families, families in which both parents worked, and families with either the mother or father at home.

    The programme involved trained parent-educators visiting the parents’ home and working with the parent, or parents, and the child. Information on child development, and guidance on things to look for and expect as the child grows were provided, plus guidance in fostering the child’s intellectual, language, social and motor-skill development. Periodic check-ups of the child’s educational and sensory development (hearing and vision) were made to detect possible handicaps that interfere with growth and development. Medical problems were referred to professionals.

    Parent-educators made personal visits to homes and monthly group meetings were held with other new parents to share experience and discuss topics of interest. Parent resource centres, located in school buildings, offered learning materials for families and facilitators for child care.

    E At the age of three, the children who had been involved in the ‘Missouri’ programme were evaluated alongside a cross-section of children selected from the same range of socio-economic backgrounds and family situations, and also a random sample of children that age. The results were phenomenal. By the age of three, the children in the programme were significantly more advanced in language development than their peers, had made greater strides in problem solving and other intellectual skills, and were further along in social development. In fact, the average child on the programme was performing at the level of the top 15 to 20 per cent of their peers in such things as auditory comprehension, verbal ability and language ability.

    Most important of all, the traditional measures of ‘risk’, such as parents’ age and education, or whether they were a single parent, bore little or no relationship to the measures of achievement and language development. Children in the programme performed equally well regardless of socio-economic disadvantages. Child abuse was virtually eliminated. The one factor that was found to affect the child’s development was family stress leading to a poor quality of parent-child interaction. That interaction was not necessarily bad in poorer families.

    F These research findings are exciting. There is growing evidence in New Zealand that children from poorer socio-economic backgrounds are arriving at school less well developed and that our school system tends to perpetuate that disadvantage. The initiative outlined above could break that cycle of disadvantage. The concept of working with parents in their homes, or at their place of work, contrasts quite markedly with the report of the Early Childhood Care and Education Working Group. Their focus is on getting children and mothers access to childcare and institutionalized early childhood education. Education from the age of three to five is undoubtedly vital, but without a similar focus on parent education and on the vital importance of the first three years, some evidence indicates that it will not be enough to overcome educational inequity.

    Questions 1-4

    Reading Passage 1 has six sections, A-F.

    Which paragraph contains the following information?

    Write the correct letter A-F in boxes 1-4 on your answer sheet.

    1. details of the range of family types involved in an education programme
    2. reasons why a child’s early years are so important
    3. reasons why an education programme failed
    4. a description of the positive outcomes of an education programme
    Questions 5-10

    Classify the following features as characterising

    1. the ‘Headstart’ programme
    2. the ‘Missouri’ programme
    3. both the ‘Headstart’ and the ‘Missouri’ programmes
    4. neither the `Headstart’ nor the ‘Missouri’ programme

    Write the correct letter A, B, C or D in boxes 5-10 on your answer sheet.

    1. was administered to a variety of poor and wealthy families
    2. continued with follow-up assistance in elementary schools
    3. did not succeed in its aim
    4. supplied many forms of support and training to parents
    5. received insufficient funding
    6. was designed to improve pre-schoolers’ educational development
    Questions 11-13

    Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 1?

    In boxes 11-13 on your answer sheet, write

    • TRUE                       if the statement is true according to the passage
    • FALSE                     if the statement is false according to the passage
    • NOT GIVEN          if the information is not given in the passage
    1. Most ‘Missouri’ programme three-year-olds scored highly in areas such as listening, speaking, reasoning and interacting with others.
    2. ‘Missouri’ programme children of young, uneducated, single parents scored less highly on the tests.
    3. The richer families in the ‘Missouri’ programme had higher stress levels.

    Reading Passage 2

    You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 14-26, which are based on Reading Passage 2 on the following pages.

    Disappearing Delta

    A The fertile land of the Nile delta is being eroded along Egypt’s Mediterranean coast at an astounding rate, in some parts estimated at 100 metres per year. In the past, land scoured away from the coastline by the currents of the Mediterranean Sea used to be replaced by sediment brought dawn to the delta by the River Nile, but this is no longer happening.

    B Up to now, people have blamed this loss of delta land on the two large dams at Aswan in the south of Egypt, which hold back virtually all of the sediment that used to flow down the river. Before the dams were built, the Nile flowed freely, carrying huge quantities of sediment north from Africa’s interior to be deposited on the Nile delta. This continued for 7,000 years, eventually covering a region of over 22,000 square kilometres with layers of fertile silt. Annual flooding brought in new, nutrient-rich soil to the delta region, replacing what had been washed away by the sea, and dispensing with the need for fertilizers in Egypt’s richest food-growing area. But when the Aswan dams were constructed in the 20th century to provide electricity and irrigation, and to protect the huge population centre of Cairo and its surrounding areas from annual flooding and drought, most of the sediment with its natural fertilizer accumulated up above the dam in the southern, upstream half of Lake Nasser, instead of passing down to the delta.

    C Now, however, there turns out to be more to the story. It appears that the sediment-free water emerging from the Aswan dams picks up silt and sand as it erodes the river bed and banks on the 800-kilometre trip to Cairo. Daniel Jean Stanley of the Smithsonian Institute noticed that water samples taken in Cairo, just before the river enters the delta, indicated that the river sometimes carries more than 850 grams of sediment per cubic metre of water – almost half of what it carried before the dams were built. ‘I’m ashamed to say that the significance of this didn’t strike me until after I had read 50 or 60 studies,’ says Stanley in Marine Geology. ‘There is still a lot of sediment coming into the delta, but virtually no sediment comes out into the Mediterranean to replenish the Coastline. So this sediment must be trapped on the delta itself.’

    D Once north of Cairo, most of the Nile water is diverted into more than 10,000 kilometres of irrigation canals and only a small proportion reaches the sea directly through the rivers in the delta. The water in the irrigation canals is still or very slow-moving and thus cannot carry sediment, Stanley explains.

    E The farms on the delta plains and fishing and aquaculture in the lagoons account for much of Egypt’s food supply. But by the time the sediment has come to rest in the fields and lagoons it is laden with municipal, industrial and agricultural waste from the Cairo region, which is home to more than 40 million people. ‘Pollutants are building up faster and faster’ says Stanley.

    Based on his investigations of sediment from the delta lagoons, Frederic Siegel of George Washington University concurs. ‘In Manzalah Lagoon, for example, the increase in mercury, lead, copper and zinc coincided with the building of the High Dam at Aswan, the availability of cheap electricity, and the development of major power-based industries,’ he says. Since that time the concentration of mercury has increased significantly. Lead from engines that use leaded fuels and from other industrial sources has also increased dramatically. These poisons can easily enter the food chain, affecting the productivity of Fishing and Farming. Another problem is that agricultural wastes include fertilizers which stimulate increases in plant growth in the lagoons and upset the ecology of the area, with serious effects on the fishing industry.

    F According to Siegel, international environmental organisations are beginning to pay closer attention to the region, partly because of the problems of erosion and pollution of the Nile delta, but principally because they fear the impact this situation could have on the whole Mediterranean coastal ecosystem. But there are no easy solutions. In the immediate Future, Stanley believes that one solution would be to make artificial floods to flush out the delta waterways, in the same way that natural floods did before the construction of the dams. He says, however, that in the long term an alternative process such as desalination may have to be used to increase the amount of water available, ‘In my view, Egypt must devise a way to have more water running through the river and the delta,’ says Stanley. Easier said than done in a desert region with a rapidly growing population.

    Questions 14-17

    Reading Passage 2 has six paragraphs, A-F.

    Choose the correct heading for paragraphs B and D-F from the list of headings below.

    List of Headings

    1. Effects of irrigation on sedimentation
    2. The danger of flooding the Cairo area
    3. Causing pollution in the Mediterranean
    4. Interrupting a natural process
    5. The threat to food production
    6. Less valuable sediment than before
    7. Egypt’s disappearing coastline
    8. Looking at the long-term impact

    Example) Paragraph A                  vii
    14) Paragraph B
    Example) Paragraph C                  vi


    15) Paragraph D
    16) Paragraph E
    17) Paragraph F

    Questions 18-23

    Do the following statements reflect the claims of the writer in Reading Passage 2?

    In boxes 18-23 on your answer sheet, write

    • YES                             if the statement reflects the claims of the writer
    • NO                               if the statement contradicts the claims of the writer
    • NOT GIVEN            if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this
    1. Coastal erosion occurred along Egypt’s Mediterranean coast before the building of the Aswan dams.
    2. Some people predicted that the Aswan dams would cause land loss before they were built.
    3. The Aswan dams were built to increase the fertility of the Nile delta.
    4. Stanley found that the levels of sediment in the river water in Cairo were relatively high.
    5. Sediment in the irrigation canals on the Nile delta causes flooding.
    6. Water is pumped from the irrigation canals into the lagoons.
    Questions 24-26

    Complete the summary of paragraphs E and F with the list of words A-H below.

    Write the correct letter A-H in boxes 24-26 on your answer sheet.

    1. artificial floods
    2. desalination
    3. delta waterways
    4. natural floods
    5. nutrients
    6. pollutants
    7. population control
    8. sediment

    In addition to the problem of coastal erosion, there has been a marked increase in the level of (24) ……………….. contained in the silt deposited in the Nile delta. To deal with this, Stanley suggests the use of (25) ……………….. in the short term, and increasing the amount of water available through (26) ……………….. in the longer term.

    Reading Passage 3

    The Return of Artificial Intelligence

    A After years in the wilderness, the term ‘artificial intelligence’ (AI) seems poised to make a comeback. AI was big in the 1980s but vanished in the 1990s. It re-entered public consciousness with the release of Al, a movie about a robot boy. This has ignited public debate about AI, but the term is also being used once more within the computer industry. Researchers, executives and marketing people are now using the expression without irony or inverted commas. And it is not always hype. The term is being applied, with some justification, to products that depend on technology that was originally developed by AI researchers. Admittedly, the rehabilitation of the term has a long way to go, and some firms still prefer to avoid using it. But the fact that others are starting to use it again suggests that AI has moved on from being seen as an over-ambitious and under-achieving field of research.

    B The field was launched, and the term ‘artificial intelligence’ coined, at a conference in 1956 by a group of researchers that included Marvin Minsky, John McCarthy, Herbert Simon and Alan Newell, all of whom went on to become leading figures in the field. The expression provided an attractive but informative name for a research programme that encompassed such previously disparate fields as operations research, cybernetics, logic and computer science. The goal they shared was an attempt to capture or mimic human abilities using machines. That said, different groups of researchers attacked different problems, from speech recognition to chess playing, in different ways; AI unified the field in name only. But it was a term that captured the public imagination.

    C Most researchers agree that AI peaked around 1985. A public reared on science-fiction movies and excited by the growing power of computers had high expectations. For years, AI researchers had implied that a breakthrough was just around the corner. Marvin Minsky said in 1967 that within a generation the problem of creating ‘artificial intelligence’ would be substantially solved. Prototypes of medical-diagnosis programs and speech recognition software appeared to be making progress. It proved to be a false dawn. Thinking computers and household robots failed to materialise, and a backlash ensued. ‘There was undue optimism in the early 1980s,’ says David Leaky, a researcher at Indiana University. ‘Then when people realised these were hard problems, there was retrenchment. By the late 1980s, the term AI was being avoided by many researchers, who opted instead to align themselves with specific sub-disciplines such as neural networks, agent technology, case-based reasoning, and so on.’

    D Ironically, in some ways AI was a victim of its own success. Whenever an apparently mundane problem was solved, such as building a system that could land an aircraft unattended, the problem was deemed not to have been AI in the first plate. ‘If it works, it can’t be AI,’ as Dr Leaky characterises it. The effect of repeatedly moving the goal-posts in this way was that AI came to refer to ‘blue-sky’ research that was still years away from commercialisation. Researchers joked that AI stood for ‘almost implemented’. Meanwhile, the technologies that made it onto the market, such as speech recognition, language translation and decision-support software, were no longer regarded as AI. Yet all three once fell well within the umbrella of AI research.

    E But the tide may now be turning, according to Dr Leake. HNC Software of San Diego, backed by a government agency, reckon that their new approach to artificial intelligence is the most powerful and promising approach ever discovered. HNC claim that their system, based on a cluster of 30 processors, could be used to spot camouflaged vehicles on a battlefield or extract a voice signal from a noisy background – tasks humans can do well, but computers cannot. ‘Whether or not their technology lives up to the claims made for it, the fact that HNC are emphasising the use of AI is itself an interesting development,’ says Dr Leaky.

    F Another factor that may boost the prospects for AI in the near future is that investors are now looking for firms using clever technology, rather than just a clever business model, to differentiate themselves. In particular, the problem of information overload, exacerbated by the growth of e-mail and the explosion in the number of web pages, means there are plenty of opportunities for new technologies to help filter and categorise information – classic AI problems. That may mean that more artificial intelligence companies will start to emerge to meet this challenge.

    G The 1969 film, 2001: A Space Odyssey, featured an intelligent computer called HAL 9000. As well as understanding and speaking English, HAL could play chess and even learned to lipread. HAL thus encapsulated the optimism of the 1960s that intelligent computers would be widespread by 2001. But 2001 has been and gone, and there is still no sign of a HAL-like computer. Individual systems can play chess or transcribe speech, but a general theory of machine intelligence still remains elusive. It may be, however, that the comparison with HAL no longer seems quite so important, and AI can now be judged by what it can do, rather than by how well it matches up to a 30-year-old science-fiction film. ‘People are beginning to realise that there are impressive things that these systems can do,’ says Dr Leake hopefully.

    Questions 27-31

    Reading Passage 3 has seven paragraphs, A-G.

    Which paragraph contains the following information?

    Write the correct letter A-G in boxes 27-31 on your answer sheet.

    NB You may use any letter more than once.

    1. how AI might have a military impact
    2. the fact that AI brings together a range of separate research areas
    3. the reason why AI has become a common topic of conversation again
    4. how AI could help deal with difficulties related to the amount of information available electronically
    5. where the expression AI was first used
    Questions 32-37

    Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 3?

    In boxes 32-37 on your answer sheet, write

    • TRUE                        if the statement is true according to the passage
    • FALSE                      if the statement is false according to the passage
    • NOT GIVEN           if the information is not given in the passage
    1. The researchers who launched the field of AI had worked together on other projects in the past.
    2. In 1985, AI was at its lowest point.
    3. Research into agent technology was more costly than research into neural networks.
    4. Applications of AI have already had a degree of success.
    5. The problems waiting to be solved by AI have not changed since 1967.
    6. The film 2001: A Space Odyssey reflected contemporary ideas about the potential of AI computers.

    Questions 38-40

    Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.

    Write your answers in boxes 38-40 on your answer sheet.

    1. According to researchers, in the late 1980s there was a feeling that
      1. a general theory of AI would never be developed.
      2. original expectations of AI may not have been justified.
      3. a wide range of applications was close to fruition.
      4. more powerful computers were the key to further progress.
    2. In Dr Leake’s opinion, the reputation of AI suffered as a result of
      1. changing perceptions
      2. premature implementation
      3. poorly planned projects
      4. commercial pressures
    3. The prospects for AI may benefit from
      1. existing AI applications
      2. new business models.
      3. orders from Internet-only companies
      4. new investment priorities
    Reading Passage 1 Early Childhood Education Answers
    1. D
    2. B
    3. C
    4. E
    5. B
    6. D
    7. A
    8. B
    9. D
    10. C
    11. true
    12. false
    13. not given
    Reading Passage 2 Disappearing Delta Answers
    1. iv
    2. i
    3. v
    4. viii
    5. yes
    6. not given
    7. no
    8. yes
    9. not given
    10. yes
    11. pollutants
    12. artificial floods
    13. desalination
    Reading Passage 3 The Return of Artificial Intelligence Answers
    1. E
    2. B
    3. A
    4. F
    5. B
    6. not given
    7. false
    8. not given
    9. true
    10. false
    11. true
    12. B
    13. A
    14. D