Author: Admin

  • Cambridge IELTS 7 Speaking Test 3

    PART 1

    The examiner asks the candidate about him/herself, his/her home, work or studies and other familiar topics.

    EXAMPLE

    Cold weather

    • Have you ever been in very cold weather? [When?]
    • How often is the weather cold where you come from?
    • Are some parts of your country colder than others? [Why?]
    • Would you prefer to live in a hot place or a cold place? [Why?]

    PART 2

    Describe a competition (e.g. TV, college/work or sports competition) that you took part in.

    • You should say:
      • what kind of competition it was
      • and how you found out about it
      • what you had to do
      • what the prizes were
      • and explain why you chose to take part in this competition.

    • You will have to talk about the topic for one or two minutes.
    • You have one minute to think about what you are going to say.
    • You can make some notes to help you if you wish

    PART 3

    Discussion topics:


    Competitions in school

    Example questions:

    • Why do you think some school teachers use competitions as class activities?
    • Do you think it is a good thing to give prizes to children who do well at school? Why?
    • Would you say that schools for young children have become more or less competitive since you were that age? Why?

    Sporting competitions

    Example questions:

    • What are the advantages and disadvantages of intensive training for young sportspeople?
    • Some people think that competition leads to a better performance from sports stars. Others think it just makes players feel insecure. What is your opinion?
    • Do you think that it is possible to become too competitive in sport? In what way?
    Cambridge IELTS 7 Speaking Test 3 Part 1 model answers
    • Yes, I have experienced very cold weather during a winter trip to the northern regions of my country. The temperatures dropped well below freezing, and I had the opportunity to witness snowfall and icy landscapes firsthand.
    • The weather in my hometown tends to vary throughout the year, but we typically experience cold weather during the winter months. From December to February, temperatures can plummet, and we often encounter frosty mornings and chilly evenings.
    • Yes, there are indeed variations in temperature across different regions of my country. Generally, areas located at higher altitudes or closer to the poles experience colder temperatures due to factors such as altitude, latitude, and proximity to bodies of water. Coastal regions, for example, tend to have milder winters compared to inland areas.
    • Personally, I would prefer to live in a place with milder, temperate weather rather than extremes of heat or cold. While I appreciate the beauty of snow-covered landscapes and the cozy ambiance of winter, I find prolonged exposure to cold weather challenging. Therefore, I lean towards living in a place where I can enjoy a balance of warm summers and mild winters, allowing for a comfortable and enjoyable outdoor lifestyle throughout the year.
    Cambridge IELTS 7 Speaking Test 3 Part 2 model answers

    One memorable competition I participated in was a public speaking competition held during my final year of high school. I first learned about this competition through an announcement made by our school’s debate club advisor, who encouraged students with a passion for public speaking to sign up and showcase their skills.

    The competition required participants to deliver a prepared speech on a topic of their choice within a specified time limit, followed by an impromptu speaking session where we had to respond to a surprise prompt. As someone who had always enjoyed expressing myself verbally and advocating for causes I believed in, I saw this competition as an excellent opportunity to hone my public speaking abilities and challenge myself to think on my feet.

    The prizes for the competition included certificates of recognition, trophies for the top performers, and the chance to represent our school at regional and national-level public speaking events. While the prospect of winning accolades was undoubtedly appealing, what motivated me most was the opportunity to share my ideas, connect with an audience, and grow as a communicator.

    I chose to take part in this competition because I viewed it as a platform to amplify my voice and make a meaningful impact. As someone who values effective communication and the power of persuasion, I saw this competition as a chance to advocate for causes I was passionate about and inspire others to take action. Additionally, I relished the opportunity to challenge myself, push beyond my comfort zone, and refine my public speaking skills in a competitive yet supportive environment.

    In conclusion, participating in the public speaking competition was a rewarding and enriching experience that allowed me to showcase my abilities, connect with like-minded individuals, and contribute to meaningful discourse. It taught me the importance of articulating my thoughts effectively, thinking critically, and engaging with diverse perspectives—a lesson that continues to resonate with me in various aspects of my life.

    Cambridge IELTS 7 Speaking Test 3 Part 3 model answers

    Competitions in School:

    • Teachers often use competitions as class activities to foster a sense of motivation, engagement, and teamwork among students. Competitions provide a structured framework for learning, encouraging students to apply and demonstrate their knowledge and skills in a fun and challenging way. Moreover, competitions can boost students’ self-esteem and confidence by recognizing their achievements and encouraging healthy academic rivalry.
    • Recognizing and rewarding children who excel academically can serve as a positive reinforcement mechanism, motivating them to strive for excellence and maintain a strong work ethic. Prizes and incentives can reinforce positive behaviors, instill a sense of achievement, and cultivate a competitive spirit that drives continuous improvement. However, it’s essential to ensure that the reward system is fair, inclusive, and emphasizes effort and improvement rather than solely focusing on academic performance.
    • In recent years, there has been a growing awareness of the detrimental effects of excessive academic pressure and competition on young children’s well-being. As a result, there has been a trend towards promoting a more holistic and child-centered approach to education, with less emphasis on competition and more focus on individual growth, creativity, and well-being. While healthy competition can foster motivation and drive, schools are increasingly prioritizing a supportive and nurturing learning environment that celebrates diversity, collaboration, and personal development.

    Sporting Competitions:

    • Intensive training for young sportspeople can yield several advantages, such as developing discipline, resilience, and teamwork skills, enhancing physical fitness and athletic performance, and fostering a competitive mindset. However, intensive training also carries inherent risks, including increased risk of injury, physical and mental fatigue, and potential negative effects on social and academic development. It’s crucial to strike a balance between rigorous training and adequate rest, ensuring that young athletes’ overall well-being is prioritized.
    • Competition can indeed serve as a catalyst for improved performance among sports stars by fueling motivation, determination, and a desire to excel. Healthy competition encourages athletes to push their limits, strive for continuous improvement, and deliver their best performance under pressure. However, excessive pressure to win or fear of failure can lead to insecurity, anxiety, and performance-related stress among players. Therefore, it’s essential to foster a supportive and nurturing competitive environment that emphasizes sportsmanship, fair play, and personal growth.
    • Yes, it is possible to become too competitive in sport, particularly when winning becomes the sole focus at the expense of fair play, sportsmanship, and enjoyment. Excessive competitiveness can lead to a range of negative consequences, including heightened stress levels, strained interpersonal relationships, and unethical behavior such as cheating or doping. Moreover, an overly competitive mindset can detract from the intrinsic joy and fulfillment of participating in sports, turning it into a source of pressure and anxiety rather than pleasure and recreation. Finding a healthy balance between competitiveness and sportsmanship is key to ensuring a positive and enriching sporting experience for all participants.
  • Cambridge IELTS 4 Speaking Test 2

    PART 1

    The examiner asks the candidate about him/herself, his/her home, work or studies and other familiar topics.

    EXAMPLE

    Food and cooking

    • What kinds of food do you like to eat?
    • What kind of new food would you like to try? [Why?]
    • Do you like cooking? [Why/Why not?]
    • What was the last meal you cooked?
    • Do you prefer home-cooked food or food from restaurants? [Why?]

    PART 2

    Describe an interest or hobby that you enjoy.

    • You should say:
      • how you became interested in it
      • how long you have been doing it
      • why you enjoy it
      • and explain what benefits you get from this interest or hobby.

    • You will have to talk about the topic for one or two minutes.
    • You have one minute to think about what you are going to say.
    • You can make some notes to help you if you wish

    PART 3

    Discussion topics:

    The social benefits of hobbies

    Example questions:

    • Do you think having a hobby is good for people’s social life? In what way?
    • Are there any negative effects of a person spending too much time on their hobby? What are they?
    • Why do you think people need to have an interest or hobby?
    Leisure time

    Example questions:

    • In your country, how much time do people spend on work and how much time on leisure? Is this a good balance, do you think?
    • Would you say the amount of free time has changed much in the last fifty years?
    • Do you think people will have more or less free time in the future? Why?
    Cambridge IELTS 4 Speaking Test 2 part 1 model answers

    Certainly, here are my responses:

    • I enjoy a variety of foods, but some of my favorites include Asian cuisine such as sushi, Thai curry, and Indian biryani. I also have a penchant for Italian pasta dishes and Mediterranean mezze platters.
    • I’ve always been intrigued by Ethiopian cuisine and would love to try traditional dishes like injera with various stews and sauces. The unique flavors and use of spices in Ethiopian cooking fascinate me, and I’m eager to experience the culinary traditions of this culture firsthand.
    • Yes, I do enjoy cooking. For me, it’s a creative outlet and a way to relax and unwind after a busy day. I love experimenting with different ingredients, flavors, and techniques to create delicious and satisfying meals. Moreover, cooking allows me to control the quality and nutritional value of my food, which is important to me.
    • The last meal I cooked was a homemade vegetable stir-fry with tofu served over steamed jasmine rice. I sautéed an assortment of colorful vegetables like bell peppers, broccoli, and snap peas with garlic, ginger, and soy sauce, then added crispy cubes of tofu for protein. It was a wholesome and flavorful dish that came together quickly and was enjoyed by everyone at the dinner table.
    • It depends on the occasion and my mood. I appreciate the convenience and variety of dining out at restaurants, especially for special occasions or trying new cuisines. However, I generally prefer home-cooked food for its freshness, flavor, and the satisfaction of knowing exactly what ingredients are used. Additionally, cooking at home allows for customization and personalization according to dietary preferences and restrictions. Overall, both home-cooked food and restaurant food have their merits, and I enjoy both experiences in different ways.
    Cambridge IELTS 4 Speaking Test 2 part 2 model answers

    One of my most cherished hobbies is photography, a passion that has been ingrained in me since childhood. It all began when I received a disposable camera as a gift for my eighth birthday. From that moment on, I found myself captivated by the art of capturing moments in time through the lens of a camera.

    I have been actively pursuing photography for over a decade now, and with each passing year, my love for it continues to grow. What I find most exhilarating about photography is its ability to freeze fleeting moments and immortalize them in a frame. Whether it’s a breathtaking landscape, a candid expression, or a play of light and shadow, each photograph tells a unique story and evokes a myriad of emotions.

    What truly sets photography apart for me is the endless opportunity for creativity and self-expression it offers. Whether I’m experimenting with composition, playing with different lighting techniques, or exploring new subject matter, there’s always something new to learn and discover. It’s a journey of constant growth and exploration that keeps me engaged and inspired.

    Moreover, beyond the sheer joy of capturing beautiful images, photography has brought numerous benefits to my life. It serves as a therapeutic outlet, allowing me to escape the stresses of everyday life and immerse myself fully in the present moment. Additionally, it has enabled me to connect with like-minded individuals who share a passion for visual storytelling, fostering a sense of community and camaraderie.

    Furthermore, my interest in photography has opened up exciting opportunities for travel and exploration. Whether I’m wandering through bustling city streets or trekking through remote landscapes, my camera serves as a companion and a gateway to new experiences.

    In conclusion, photography is not just a hobby for me; it’s a way of life. It enriches my life in countless ways, providing me with endless creative fulfillment, personal growth, and unforgettable memories. Through the lens of my camera, I find beauty in the ordinary and meaning in the mundane, making every click of the shutter a moment worth cherishing.

    Cambridge IELTS 4 Speaking Test 2 part 3 model answers

    The Social Benefits of Hobbies:

    • Absolutely, having a hobby can greatly enhance one’s social life. Hobbies often bring people together who share similar interests, fostering a sense of community and camaraderie. Whether it’s joining a photography club, participating in team sports, or attending cooking classes, hobbies provide ample opportunities for individuals to connect with others, build meaningful relationships, and expand their social network.
    • While hobbies can be enriching and fulfilling, excessive time devoted to them can potentially lead to negative consequences. For instance, if someone becomes overly consumed by their hobby, they may neglect other important aspects of their life, such as work, relationships, and self-care. Additionally, spending too much time on a hobby without moderation can result in burnout or feelings of isolation if it interferes with social interactions or responsibilities.
    • Engaging in a hobby serves as more than just a pastime; it is essential for overall well-being and personal growth. Hobbies provide an outlet for creativity, self-expression, and relaxation, helping individuals to de-stress and unwind from the demands of everyday life. Moreover, pursuing a hobby can instill a sense of accomplishment and satisfaction, boost self-confidence, and cultivate new skills and talents. Ultimately, having an interest or hobby adds depth and richness to one’s life, contributing to a sense of purpose and fulfillment.

    Leisure Time:

    • In my country, the balance between work and leisure varies depending on factors such as occupation, socioeconomic status, and individual preferences. While some people may have more leisure time due to flexible work arrangements or cultural norms, others may find themselves caught in a cycle of long work hours with limited time for leisure activities. Achieving a balance between work and leisure is crucial for overall well-being, as excessive work without adequate downtime can lead to stress, burnout, and diminished quality of life.
    • Over the last fifty years, there have been notable shifts in how people spend their free time. Advances in technology, changes in societal norms, and economic factors have all influenced the amount and nature of leisure time activities. For instance, the rise of digital entertainment and social media has transformed how people socialize and entertain themselves, blurring the boundaries between work and leisure. Additionally, increased access to leisure amenities and travel opportunities has expanded the range of leisure activities available to individuals today compared to previous generations.
    • Predicting the future allocation of free time is complex and depends on various factors such as technological advancements, economic trends, and social dynamics. While advancements in automation and artificial intelligence may lead to increased efficiency in certain industries, potentially affording individuals more leisure time, other factors such as globalization and changing work structures could result in longer work hours and greater time pressures. Ultimately, the distribution of free time in the future will likely be influenced by societal priorities, policies promoting work-life balance, and individual lifestyle choices.
  • Cambridge IELTS 2 Listening Test 2

    Section 1: Questions 1-20

    Questions 1 and 2

    Circle the correct letters.

    1. Gavin’s apartment is located on the
      1. ground floor
      2. second floor
      3. third floor
    2. The monthly rent for Gavin’s apartment is
      1. $615
      2. $650
      3. $655
    Questions 3-6

    Complete the table below.

    Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

    ITEMVALUE
    (3)……………………$ 450
    (4)……………………….$ 1150
    Watches$ 2000
    CDs and (5)……………….$ 400
    Total annual cost of insurance (6) $……………….
    Questions 7-10

    Complete the form below.

    Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

    INSURANCE APPLICATION FORM

    Name: Mr Gavin (7) ……………………….
    Address: (8) ………………………. Biggins Street (9) ……………………….
    Date of Birth: 12th November 1980
    Telephone: Home – 9872 4855
    Nationality: (10)  ……………………….

    Section 2: Questions 11-20

    Question 11

    Circle the correct letter A-D.

    1. Smith House was originally built as
      1.  a residential college
      2.  a family house
      3.  a university
      4.  an office block
    Questions 12-14

    Complete the explanation of the room number. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

    Cambridge IELTS 2 Listening Test 2 section 2 Questions 12 - 14 room booking

    (12) ……………………….
    (13) ……………………….
    (14) ……………………….

    Questions 15-17

    Complete the sentences below.

    Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

    • Students need a front door key between (15) ……………………….  and 
    • In an emergency, students should use (16) 
    • Fees also cover some (17) ………………………. charges

    Questions 18-20

    Complete the notice below.

    Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

    HOUSE RULES
    • No noise after 9 pm.
    • Smoking only allowed on (18) ……………………….
    • No changes can be made to (19) ……………………….
    If you have any questions, ask the (20) ……………………….

    Part 3: Questions 21-30

    Questions 21-25

    Complete the table below.

    Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

    Forms of MediaExamples
    Print– Books
    (21)…………………..
    Pictures(22)…………………..
    Audio (listening)– CDS
    (23)…………………..
    Audio-visual– Film
    (24)…………………..
    – Videos
    Eelctronic(25)…………………..
    Questions 26-30

    Write the appropriate letters A-C against question 26-30.

    According to the speakers, in which situation are the following media most useful?

    1. individual children
    2. five or six children
    3. whole class
    1. tapes 
    2. computers 
    3. videos 
    4. books 
    5. wall maps 

    Section 4: Questions 31-40

    Question 31

    Circle the correct letter A-D.

    1. What percentage of the workforce were employed in agriculture in the mid 1900s?
      1. 3%
      2. 10%
      3. 20%
      4. 50%
    Questions 32 and 33

    Complete the notes below.

    Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

    Three factors contributing to the efficiency of the agriculture sector are:
    • 50-60 years of intelligent state support
    • The quality of (32)  ………………………. among those employed
    • The farmer’s investment in (33) ……………………….

    Questions 34 – 39

    Complete the table below.

    Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

    RegionNorthEastWest
    LandHilly with thin soilFlat with (36)…………………..Rich soil
    Climate(34)…………………and……………………Mixed(38)……………….and……………..
    Farm typeSmall, family runCommercialAverage size (39)…………….. hectares
    Produce(35)……………….and……………….Cereals and (37)………………….Milk, cheese and meat
    Question 40

    Circle the correct letter A-C.

    Farmers have a strong sense of solidarity because

    1. the media supports them
    2. they have a strong Union
    3. they have countrywide interests
    Cambridge IELTS 2 Listening Test 2 Section 1 Answers
    1. B
    2. A
    3. fridge
    4. stereo (system)
    5. books
    6. $184
    7. Murray
    8. 16C
    9. south hills
    10. english
    Cambridge IELTS 2 Listening Test 2 Section 2 Answers
    1. B
    2. north
    3. (2nd) floor
    4. room (number)
    5. 8 pm (and 7 am)
    6. emergency doors
    7. laundry
    8. balconies
    9. meal times
    10. floor senior
    Cambridge IELTS 2 Listening Test 2 Section 3 Answers
    1. newspapers
    2. maps
    3. radios
    4. TV
    5. computers
    6. B
    7. B
    8. C
    9. A
    10. B
    Cambridge IELTS 2 Listening Test 2 Section 4 Answers
    1. A
    2. training
    3. technology
    4. cool and wet
    5. wool and timber
    6. fertile soil
    7. vegetables
    8. warm and wet
    9. 800
    10. B
  • Cambridge IELTS 14 Listening Test 2

    Section 1: Questions 1-10

    Complete the notes below.

    Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    TOTAL HEALTH CLINIC

    PATIENT DETAILS
    Personal Information

    Example
    Name: Julie Anne …….Garcia……

    Contact phone: (1) ……………………….
    Date of birth:    (2) ………………………. , 1992
    Occupation works as a: (3) ……………………….
    Insurance company:  ………………………. (4)  Life insurance

    Details of the problem
    Type of problem: pain in her left (5) ……………………….
    When it began: (6) ……………………….  ago
    Action already taken:     has taken painkillers and applied ice

    Other information
    Sports played:  belongs to a (7)  ………………………. club
    goes (8) ………………………. regularly

    Medical history:                                  injured her (9) ………………………. last year
    no allergies
    no regular medication apart from (10) ……………………….

    Section 2: Questions 11-20

    Questions 11–15

    Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

    Visit to Branley Castle

    1. Before Queen Elizabeth I visited the castle in 1576,
      1. repairs were carried out to the guest rooms.
      2. a new building was constructed for her.
      3. a fire damaged part of the main hall.
    2. In 1982, the castle was sold to
      1. the government.
      2. the Fenys family.
      3. an entertainment company.
    3. In some of the rooms, visitors can
      1. speak to experts on the history of the castle.
      2. interact with actors dressed as famous characters.
      3. see models of historical figures moving and talking.
    4. In the castle park, visitors can
      1. see an 800-year-old tree.
      2. go to an art exhibition.
      3. visit a small zoo.
    5. At the end of the visit, the group will have
      1. afternoon tea in the conservatory.
      2. the chance to meet the castle’s owners.
      3. a photograph together on the Great Staircase.
    Questions 16–20

    Label the plan below.

    Write the correct letter A-H next to questions 16-20.

    Cambridge IELTS 14 Listening Test 2 Visit to Branley Castle questions 16-20
    1. Starting point for walking the walls 
    2. Bow and arrow display 
    3. Hunting birds display 
    4. Traditional dancing 
    5. Shop 

    Section 3: Questions 21-30

    Questions 21–24

    Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

    Woolly mammoths on St Paul’s Island

    1. How will Rosie and Martin introduce their presentation?
      1. with a drawing of woolly mammoths in their natural habitat
      2. with a timeline showing when woolly mammoths lived
      3. with a video clip about woolly mammoths
    2. What was surprising about the mammoth tooth found by Russell Graham?
      1. It was still embedded in the mammoth’s jawbone.
      2. It was from an unknown species of mammoth.
      3. It was not as old as mammoth remains from elsewhere.
    3. The students will use an animated diagram to demonstrate how the mammoths
      1. became isolated on the island.
      2. spread from the island to other areas.
      3. coexisted with other animals on the island.
    4. According to Martin, what is unusual about the date of the mammoths’ extinction on the island?
      1. how exact it is
      2. how early it is
      3. how it was established
    Questions 25–30

    Choose SIX answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-H, next to Questions 25-30.

    What action will the students take for each of the following sections of their presentation?

    Actions

    1. make it more interactive
    2. reduce visual input
    3. add personal opinions
    4. contact one of the researchers
    5. make detailed notes
    6. find information online
    7. check timing
    8. organise the content more clearly

    Sections of presentation

    1. Introduction 
    2. Discovery of the mammoth tooth 
    3. Initial questions asked by the researchers 
    4. Further research carried out on the island 
    5. Findings and possible explanations 
    6. Relevance to the present day 

    Section 4: Questions 31–40

    Complete the notes below.

    Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

    The history of weather forecasting

    Ancient cultures
    • many cultures believed that floods and other disasters were involved in the creation of the world
    • many cultures invented (31) ……………………….  and other ceremonies to make the weather gods friendly
    • people needed to observe and interpret the sky to ensure their (32) ……………………….
    • around 650 BC, Babylonians started forecasting, using weather phenomena such as
    (33)
     ……………………….
    • by 300 BC, the Chinese had a calendar made up of a number of (34) ………………………. connected with the weather

    Ancient Greeks
    • a more scientific approach
    • Aristotle tried to explain the formation of various weather phenomena
    • Aristotle also described haloes and (35) ……………………….

    Middle Ages
    • Aristotle’s work considered accurate
    • many proverbs, e.g. about the significance of the colour of the (36) ………………………. , passed on accurate information.

    15th-19th centuries
    • 15th century: scientists recognised value of (37) ……………………….  for the first time
    • Galileo invented the (38) ……………………….
    • Pascal showed relationship between atmospheric pressure and altitude
    • from the 17th century, scientists could measure atmospheric pressure and temperature
    • 18th century: Franklin identified the movement of (39) ……………………….
    • 19th century: data from different locations could be sent to the same place by
    (40)
     ……………………….

    Cambridge IELTS 14 Listening Test 2 Section 1 Answers
    1. 219 442 9785
    2. 10(th) October
    3. manager
    4. Cawley
    5. knee
    6. 3 weeks
    7. tennis
    8. running
    9. shoulder
    10. vitamins
    Cambridge IELTS 14 Listening Test 2 Section 2 Answers
    1. B
    2. C
    3. C
    4. B
    5. A
    6. H
    7. D
    8. F
    9. A
    10. E
    Cambridge IELTS 14 Listening Test 2 Section 3 Answers
    1. B
    2. C
    3. A
    4. A
    5. E
    6. D
    7. A
    8. H
    9. G
    10. C
    Cambridge IELTS 14 Listening Test 2 Section 4 Answers
    1. dances
    2. survival
    3. clouds
    4. festivals
    5. comets
    6. sky
    7. instruments
    8. thermometer
    9. storms
    10. telegraph




  • Cambridge IELTS 7 Speaking Test 4

    PART 1

    The examiner asks the candidate about him/herself, his/her home, work or studies and other familiar topics.

    EXAMPLE

    Travelling to work or college

    • How do you usually travel to work or college? [Why?]
    • Have you always travelled to work/college in the same way? [Why/Why not?]
    • What do you like about travelling to work/college this way?
    • What changes would improve the way you travel to work/college? [Why?]

    PART 2

    Describe a piece of electronic equipment that you find useful.

    • You should say:
      • what it is
      • how you learned to use it
      • how long you have had it
      • and explain why you find this piece of electronic equipment useful.

    • You will have to talk about the topic for one or two minutes.
    • You have one minute to think about what you are going to say.
    • You can make some notes to help you if you wish

    PART 3

    Discussion topics:


    Technology and housework

    Example questions:

    • What kinds of machine are used for housework in modern homes in your country?
    • How have these machines benefited people? Are there any negative effects of using them?
    • Do you think all new homes will be equipped with household machines in the future? Why?

    Technology in the workplace

    Example questions:

    • What kinds of equipment do most workers need to use in offices today?
    • How have developments in technology affected employment in your country?
    • Some people think that technology has brought more stress than benefits to employed people nowadays. Would you agree or disagree? Why?
    Cambridge IELTS 7 Speaking Test 4 part 1 model answers
    • I typically travel to work by public transportation, specifically by bus or subway. The reason for this choice is mainly convenience and efficiency. Public transportation allows me to avoid traffic congestion, reduce my carbon footprint, and make productive use of my commute time by reading, listening to podcasts, or catching up on work.
    • No, I haven’t always traveled to work or college in the same way. In the past, I used to commute by car or even by bicycle, depending on factors such as location, availability of transportation options, and personal circumstances. However, I transitioned to public transportation as it offered a more sustainable and stress-free alternative.
    • There are several aspects I appreciate about traveling to work or college via public transportation. Firstly, it allows me to relax and prepare mentally for the day ahead without the stress of driving in traffic. Secondly, it’s cost-effective compared to other modes of transportation, as I don’t have to worry about fuel, parking fees, or vehicle maintenance. Additionally, using public transportation aligns with my values of environmental sustainability, contributing to reducing air pollution and congestion in urban areas.
    • While I’m generally satisfied with my current mode of transportation, there are always opportunities for improvement. One change that would enhance my commuting experience is the expansion and improvement of public transportation infrastructure, including more frequent and reliable services, better connectivity, and enhanced accessibility for individuals with disabilities. Additionally, initiatives to promote alternative modes of transportation such as cycling lanes and pedestrian-friendly routes would further encourage sustainable commuting habits and contribute to overall urban livability.
    Cambridge IELTS 7 Speaking Test 4 part 2 model answers
    • The piece of electronic equipment that I find incredibly useful is my smartphone. I learned to use it primarily through trial and error, exploring its features and functionalities as I encountered different situations. I’ve had my smartphone for about three years now, and it has become an indispensable part of my daily life.
    • What I find most useful about my smartphone is its versatility and convenience. Firstly, it serves as a communication hub, allowing me to stay connected with friends, family, and colleagues through calls, text messages, and social media platforms. Secondly, it acts as a multi-functional tool, offering access to a wide range of applications for productivity, entertainment, and information. Whether I need to check my emails, manage my schedule, listen to music, or navigate through unfamiliar locations, my smartphone has me covered.
    • Moreover, my smartphone has become an essential tool for capturing and preserving memories. Its high-quality camera allows me to take photos and videos of special moments, which I can then easily share with others or revisit whenever I want. Additionally, the abundance of cloud storage options ensures that my precious memories are safely backed up and accessible across multiple devices.
    • Furthermore, my smartphone has empowered me to be more efficient and productive in various aspects of my life. With access to educational resources, news updates, and productivity apps, I can learn new skills, stay informed about current events, and manage tasks on the go. Its portability and connectivity enable me to work remotely, collaborate with others, and stay productive even when I’m away from my desk.
    • In conclusion, my smartphone is an indispensable tool that enhances my daily life in numerous ways. From communication and entertainment to productivity and convenience, it has revolutionized the way I navigate the world around me. Its versatility, accessibility, and functionality make it an invaluable asset that I wouldn’t want to live without.
    Cambridge IELTS 7 Speaking Test 4 part 3 model answers

    Technology and Housework:

    • In modern homes in my country, a variety of machines are used for housework, including washing machines, dishwashers, vacuum cleaners, and robotic vacuum cleaners. Additionally, appliances like microwave ovens, blenders, and food processors have become essential for meal preparation and cooking.
    • These machines have greatly benefited people by saving time, reducing manual labor, and improving efficiency in completing household chores. For example, washing machines and dishwashers allow for quick and convenient cleaning of clothes and dishes, while vacuum cleaners automate the process of floor cleaning. However, one potential negative effect is overreliance on technology, which may lead to reduced physical activity and decreased skill development in performing manual tasks.
    • It’s highly likely that most new homes in the future will be equipped with household machines. As technology continues to advance and become more affordable, the integration of smart appliances and automated systems into homes will become increasingly common. Moreover, the convenience and efficiency offered by household machines align with the growing demand for modern amenities and lifestyle enhancements.

    Technology in the Workplace:

    • In offices today, most workers rely on computers, printers, scanners, telephones, and internet connectivity to perform their tasks. Additionally, specialized equipment such as projectors, conference room systems, and ergonomic furniture may be provided to enhance productivity and comfort.
    • Developments in technology have had a significant impact on employment in my country, both creating new opportunities and altering existing job roles. While automation and digitalization have led to the displacement of certain traditional jobs, they have also facilitated the emergence of new industries and occupations, such as software development, data analysis, and digital marketing. Overall, technology has reshaped the labor market, requiring workers to adapt to new skill sets and evolving job demands.
    • I would partly agree with this statement. While technology has undoubtedly brought numerous benefits to employed people, such as increased efficiency, flexibility, and connectivity, it has also introduced new sources of stress and challenges. The constant connectivity enabled by smartphones and email, for example, can blur the boundaries between work and personal life, leading to burnout and stress. Additionally, the rapid pace of technological change requires workers to continuously upgrade their skills, adapt to new software and systems, and cope with job insecurity in some sectors. Therefore, while technology offers immense benefits, it’s essential to address its potential negative impacts and strive for a balanced approach to its utilization in the workplace.
  • Cambridge IELTS 9 Speaking Test 1

    PART 1

    The examiner asks the candidate about him/herself, his/her home, work or studies and other familiar topics.

    EXAMPLE

    Games

    • What games are popular in your country? [Why?]
    • Do you play any games? [Why/Why not?]
    • How do people learn to play games in your country?
    • Do you think it’s important for people to play games? [Why/Why not?]

    PART 2

    Describe an open-air or street market which you enjoyed visiting.

    • You should say:
      • where the market is
      • what the market sells
      • how big the market is
      • and explain why you enjoyed visiting this market.

    • You will have to talk about the topic for one or two minutes.
    • You have one minute to think about what you are going to say.
    • You can make some notes to help you if you wish

    PART 3

    Discussion topics:


    Shopping at markets

    Example questions:

    • Do people in your country enjoy going to open-air markets that sell things like food or clothes or old objects? Which type of market is more popular? Why?
    • Do you think markets are more suitable places for selling certain types of things? Which ones? Why do you think this is?
    • Do you think young people feel the same about shopping at markets as older people? Why is that?
    Shopping in general

    Example questions:

    • What do you think are the advantages of buying things from shops rather than markets?
    • How does advertising influence what people choose to buy? Is this true for everyone?
    • Do you think that any recent changes in the way people live have affected general shopping habits? Why is this?
    Cambridge IELTS 9 Speaking Test 1 part 1 model answers
    • In my country, a variety of games are popular, ranging from traditional sports like cricket and football to more modern video games such as PUBG and Fortnite. The popularity of these games stems from their ability to bring people together, provide entertainment, and foster healthy competition.
    • Yes, I do play games. I find them to be a great way to unwind and relax after a busy day. Additionally, playing games allows me to socialize with friends and family, whether it’s through online gaming or traditional board games.
    • People in my country learn to play games through various means. For traditional sports like cricket or football, many start at a young age by playing informally with friends and then progress to joining school teams or local clubs. As for video games, individuals often learn through trial and error, online tutorials, or by playing with more experienced gamers.
    • Yes, I believe it’s important for people to play games. Apart from being a source of enjoyment and relaxation, games help develop important skills such as strategic thinking, problem-solving, teamwork, and hand-eye coordination. Moreover, games can act as a social glue, bringing people of different backgrounds together and fostering camaraderie. Overall, playing games can contribute positively to both personal development and social interaction.
    Cambridge IELTS 9 Speaking Test 1 part 2 model answers
    • The open-air market that I thoroughly enjoyed visiting is the Chatuchak Weekend Market in Bangkok, Thailand. This bustling market is located in the northern part of the city and spans over 35 acres, making it one of the largest markets in the world.
    • Chatuchak Weekend Market offers a wide range of products, from clothing and accessories to handicrafts, souvenirs, home decor, and even pets. The market is divided into sections, each specializing in different types of goods, ensuring that there’s something for everyone.
    • What I found most fascinating about this market is its vibrant atmosphere and diversity. Walking through the maze of stalls, I encountered a plethora of colors, smells, and sounds, creating a sensory overload in the best possible way. The market is always bustling with locals and tourists alike, adding to its lively ambiance.
    • One of the reasons I enjoyed visiting Chatuchak Weekend Market is the opportunity to experience authentic Thai culture. From sampling delicious street food to haggling with vendors for unique finds, every interaction felt like an adventure. Moreover, the market provides a glimpse into the daily lives of Thai people, showcasing their creativity, craftsmanship, and entrepreneurial spirit.
    • Overall, my visit to Chatuchak Weekend Market was a memorable experience filled with excitement and discovery. It’s a place where I could immerse myself in the vibrant tapestry of Thai culture while indulging in shopping and culinary delights. Whether you’re a tourist looking for souvenirs or a local seeking a weekend outing, this market never fails to captivate and delight.
    Cambridge IELTS 9 Speaking Test 1 part 3 model answers

    Shopping at Markets:

    • In my country, people do enjoy visiting open-air markets, especially those that offer a variety of goods like food, clothes, and unique items. While both food and clothing markets are popular, I’d say food markets tend to be more favored. This is because food markets offer a wide range of fresh produce and local delicacies, providing a sensory and culinary experience that appeals to a broader audience.
    • Yes, I believe markets are more suitable for selling certain types of things, particularly goods that have a tactile or experiential aspect. For example, fresh food products like fruits, vegetables, and meats are best sold at markets where customers can inspect the quality firsthand. Similarly, handmade crafts and artisanal items thrive in market settings where artisans can interact directly with customers, showcasing their skills and passion.
    • Generally, I think young people and older people may have different attitudes towards shopping at markets. Younger generations might be more drawn to markets for the experience, social aspect, and the hunt for unique finds. On the other hand, older individuals might appreciate markets for their traditional charm, nostalgic value, and the opportunity to support local vendors. However, there can be exceptions, as individual preferences and interests vary across age groups.

    Shopping in General:

    • Buying things from shops often provides a more streamlined and convenient experience, with fixed prices, guaranteed quality, and return policies. Additionally, shops may offer a wider range of branded or specialized products that may not be available at markets. Moreover, shopping in shops can save time and effort, especially for individuals looking for specific items or brands.
    • Advertising plays a significant role in shaping consumer preferences and purchasing decisions by creating awareness, shaping perceptions, and influencing desires. While advertising can sway many people’s choices, its impact varies depending on factors such as individual susceptibility, preferences, and socio-economic background. Some people may be more susceptible to advertising messages, while others may rely more on personal recommendations, reviews, or other sources of information.
    • Yes, recent changes in lifestyle, technology, and consumer behavior have indeed influenced general shopping habits. The rise of e-commerce and online shopping, for example, has made it more convenient for people to shop from the comfort of their homes, leading to changes in traditional retail models and consumer preferences. Additionally, factors such as urbanization, changing demographics, and sustainability concerns have also impacted shopping habits, with more emphasis on convenience, personalized experiences, and ethical consumption.
  • Cambridge IELTS 5 Listening Test 3

    Part 1: Questions 1-10

    Complete the form below using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    MINTONS CAR MART
    Customer Enquiry
    Make: Lida

    Engine size: (1) ………………………
    Model: Max
    Type of gears: (2) ………………………
    Preferred color: (3) ……………………… blue

    FINANCE
    Customer wishes to arrange (4) ………………………
    Part exchange? Yes

    PERSONAL DETAILS
    Name: Wendy (5) ………………………
    Title: (6) ………………………
    Address: (7) ……………………… hampshire GU8 9EW
    Contact number: (for (8) ……………………… only) 0798257643

    CURRENT CAR
    Make: Conti
    Model: Name: (9) ……………………… Year: 1994
    Mileage: maximum 70,000
    Color: metallic grey
    Condition: (10) ………………………

    Part 2: Questions 11-20

    Questions 11 and 12

    Choose TWO letters A-E.

    What TWO advantages does the speaker say Rexford University has for the students he is speaking to?

    1. higher than average results in examinations
    2. good transport links with central London
    3. near London Airport
    4. special government funding
    5. good links with local industry
    Questions 13-15

    Choose the table below.

    Write NO MORE THAN ONE WORD for each answer.

    • When application is received, confirmation will be sent
    • Application processing may be slowed down by
    – postal problems
    – delays in sending (13) ………………………
    • University tries to put international applicants in touch with a student From the same
    (14) ……………………… who can give information and advice
    – on academic atmosphere
    leisure facilities
    – English (15) ……………………… and food
    what to peak

    Questions 16-20

    Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

    1. The speaker says international students at UK universities will be
      1. offered accommodation with local families.
      2. given special help by their lecturers.
      3. expected to work independently.
    2. What does the speaker say about university accommodation on campus?
      1. Most places are given to undergraduates.
      2. No places are available for postgraduates with families.
      3. A limited number of places are available for new postgraduates.
    3. Students wishing to live off-campus should apply
      1. several months in advance.
      2. two or three weeks in advance.
      3. at the beginning of term.
    4. The university accommodation officer will
      1. send a list of agents for students to contact.
      2. contact accommodation agencies for students.
      3. ensure that students have suitable accommodation.
    5. With regard to their English, the speaker advises the students to
      1. tell their lecturers if they have problems understanding.
      2. have private English lessons when they arrive.
      3. practise their spoken English before they arrive.

    Section 3: Questions 21-30

    Choose the table below.

    Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    Feedback Form
    Course: Communication in Business
    Course code: CB162
    Dates: From (21) ………………………  to (22) ………………………

    Please give your comments on the following aspects of the course:

    Good PointsSuggestions for improvement
    Course organisation(23) ………………………
    useful to have (24) ……………………… at beginning of course
    – too much work in (25) ……………………… of the course, could be more easily balanced
    Course delivery– good (26) ………………………– some (27) ……………………… sessions went on too long
    Materials and equipment– good (28) ………………………– not enough copies of key texts available
    – need more computers
    Testing and evaluations– quick feedback from oval presentations
    – marking criteria for oral presentations known in advance
    – too much (29) ………………………
    – can we know criteria for marking final exam?
    Other comments– excellent (30) ………………………

    Section 4: Questions 31-40

    Questions 31-35

    Complete the sentences below.

    Use NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    HOUSEHOLD WASTE RECYCLING

    1. By 2008, carbon dioxide emissions need to be  lower than in 1990.
    2. Recycling saves energy and reduces emissions from landfill sites and 
    3. People say that one problem is a lack of ‘‘ sites for household waste.
    4. Glass designed to be utilised for  cannot be recycled with other types of glass.
    5. In the UK,  tons of glass is recycled each year.
    Questions 36-40

    Choose the table below.

    Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    COMPANIES WORKING WITH RECYCLED MATERIALS

    MaterialCompanyProduct that the company manufactures
    GlassCLA Aggregatesmaterial used for making (36) ………………………
    PaperMartin’soffice stationery
    PaperPapersave(37) ………………. for use on farms
    PlasticPacrite(38) ………………… for collecting waste
    PlasticWaterford(39) ………………….
    PlasticJohnson & Jones(40) …………………..
    Cambridge IELTS 5 Listening Test 3 section 1 answers
    1. 1.4 litres
    2. automatic
    3. light
    4. credit
    5. Harries
    6. doctor
    7. Alton
    8. messages
    9. lion
    10. reasonable
    Cambridge IELTS 5 Listening Test 3 section 2 answers
    1. C
    2. E
    3. references
    4. country
    5. weather
    6. C
    7. C
    8. A
    9. B
    10. C
    Cambridge IELTS 5 Listening Test 3 section 3 answers
    1. 5 May
    2. 16 July
    3. was clear
    4. course outline
    5. 2 half
    6. teaching
    7. group discussion
    8. handouts
    9. written work
    10. student support
    Cambridge IELTS 5 Listening Test 3 section 4 answers
    1. 12.5%
    2. incineration plants
    3. drop-off
    4. cooking
    5. 500,000
    6. roads
    7. soil conditioner
    8. containers
    9. pencils
    10. business cards




  • Cambridge IELTS 4 Listening Test 1

    Section 1: Questions 1-10

    Questions 1-4

    Complete the notes below.

    Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    NOTES ON SOCIAL PROGRAMME

    • Example
      • Number of trips per month 5
    • Visit places which have:
      • historical interest
      • good (1) …………………………..
      • (2) …………………………..
    • Cost: between £5.00 and £15.00 per person
    • Note: special trips organised for groups of (3)  ………………………….. people
    • Time: departure – 8.30 a.m and return – 6.00 p.m.
    • To reserve a seat: sign name on the (4) …………………………..3 days in advance
    Questions 5-10

    Complete the table below.

    Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    PlaceDateNumber of SeatsOptional Extra
    St Ives(5) …………………………..16Hep Worth Museum
    London16th February45(6) …………………………..
    (7) …………………………..3rd March18S.S. Great Britain
    Salisbury18th March50Stonehenge
    Bath23rd March16(8) …………………………..
    For further information: Read the (9) ………………………….. or see Social Assistant: Jane (10) …………………………..

    Section 2 – Questions 11-20

    Questions 11-13

    Complete the sentences below.

    Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    RIVERSIDE INDUSTRIAL VILLAGE

    1. Riverside Village was a good place to start an industry because it had water, raw materials and fuels such as ………………………….. and …………………………..
    2. The metal industry was established at Riverside Village by ………………………….. who lived in the area.
    3. There were over ………………………….. water-powered mills in the area in the eighteenth century.
    Questions 14-20

    Label the plan below.

    Write NO MORE THAN two WORDS for each answer.

    Cambridge IELTS 1 Academic Writing Test 4 Academic Writing Test 4 Task 1 choreleywood village

    Section 3 – Questions 21-30

    Questions 21 and 22

    choose the correct letter a, b or c.

    1. Melanie says she has not started the assignment because  
      1. she was doing work for another course.
      2. it was a really big assignment.
      3. she hasn’t spent time in the library.
    2. The lecturer says that reasonable excuses for extensions are
      1. planning problems.
      2. problems with assignment deadlines.
      3. personal illness or accident.
    Questions 23-27

    Choose your answers from the box and write the letters A-G next to questions 23–27.

    What recommendations does Dr Johnson make about the journal articles?

    1. must read
    2. useful
    3. limited value
    4. read first section
    5. read research methods
    6. read conclusion
    7. don’t read

    Example Answer

    Anderson and Hawker A

    Example

    1. Jackson: …………………………..
    2. Roberts: …………………………..
    3. Morris: …………………………..
    4. Cooper: …………………………..
    5. Forster: …………………………..
    Questions 28-30

    Label the chart below.

    Choose your answers from the box below and write the letters A–H next to questions 28–30.

    Population studies: Reasons for changing accommodation

    cambridge IELTS 4 Listening Test 1 Section 3 Population studies Reasons for changing accommodation cahrt

    Possible reasons 

    1. must read 
    2. useful 
    3. limited value 
    4. read first section 
    5. read research methods 
    6. read conclusion 
    7. don’t read 
    8. don’t read 

    Section 4: Questions 31-40

    Complete the notes below.

    Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

    THE URBAN LANDSCAP

    • Two areas of focus:
      • the effect of vegetation on the urban climate
      • ways of planning our (31) ………………………….. better
    • Large-scale impact of trees:
      • they can make cities more or less (32) …………………………..
      • in summer they can make cities cooler
      • they can make inland cities more (33) …………………………..
    • Local impact of trees:
      • they can make local areas
        • more (34) …………………………..
        • cooler
        • more humid
        • less windy
        • less (35) …………………………..

    Comparing trees and buildings

    • Temperature regulation:
      • trees evaporate water through their (36) …………………………..
      • building surfaces may reach high temperatures
    • Wind force:
      • tall buildings cause more wind at (37) ………………………….. level
      • trees (38) ………………………….. the wind force
    • Noise:
      • trees have a small effect on traffic noise
      • (39) …………………………..  frequency noise passes through trees
    • Important points to consider:
      • trees require a lot of sunlight, water and (40) ………………………….. to grow
    Cambridge IELTS 4 Listening Test 1 section 1 answers
    1. shopping
    2. guided tours
    3. more than 12
    4. notice board
    5. 13 february
    6. tower of London
    7. Bristol
    8. American museum
    9. student newspaper
    10. yentob
    Cambridge IELTS 4 Listening Test 1 section 2 answers
    1. coal and firewood
    2. local craftsmen
    3. 160
    4. woodside
    5. ticket office
    6. gift shop
    7. workshop
    8. showroom
    9. cafe
    10. cottages
    Cambridge IELTS 4 Listening Test 1 section 3 answers
    1. A
    2. C
    3. read research methods
    4. useful
    5. don’t read
    6. read conclusion
    7. limited value
    8. noisy neighbours
    9. uncooperative landlord
    10. environment
    Cambridge IELTS 4 Listening Test 1 section 4 answers
    1. cities
    2. windy
    3. humid
    4. shady
    5. dangerous
    6. leaves
    7. ground
    8. reduce
    9. low
    10. space




  • Cambridge IELTS 5 Listening Test 4

    Section 1: Questions 1-10

    Complete the form below using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    HOST FAMILY APPLICATION

    Name: Jenny Chan
    Present address: Sea View Guest House, (1) ………………..
    Daytime phone number: 2237676
    [Best lime to contact is (2)  ………………..]
    Age: 19
    Intended length of stay: (3) ………………..
    Occupation while in UK: student
    General level of English: (4) ………………..
    Preferred location: in the (5) ………………..
    Special diet: (6) ………………..

    Other requirements:
    • own facilities
    • own television
    • (7) ………………..
    • to be (8) ……………………………. 

    Maximum price: (9) ……………….. £  a week
    Preferred starting date: (10) ………………..

    Part 2: Questions 11-13

    Complete the sentences below using NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

    1. The next meeting of the soccer club will be in the  in King’s Park on 2 July.
    2. The first event is a 
    3. At the final dinner, players receive 
    Questions 14-17

    Complete the table below using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    CompetitionNumber of teamsGames beginTraining Session (in King’s Park)
    Junior(14)………………..8.30 am(15) ………………..
    Senior(16)………………..2.00 pm(17)……………….
    Questions 18-20

    Complete the table below using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    Name of Office BearerResponsibility
    Robert Young: Presidentto manage meetings
    Gina Costello: Treasurerto (18)………………….
    David West: Secretaryto (19)………………….
    Jason Dokic: Head Coachto (20)………………….

    Part 3: Questions 21-24

    Complete the notes below using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

    BOX TELECOM

    Problem: been affected by– drop in (21)……………..
    – growing (22)……………..
    – delays due to a strike
    Cause of problems:– high (23)……………..
    – lack of good (24)…………………
    Questions 25-27

    Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

    1. What does Karin think the company will do?
      1. look for private investors
      2. accept a takeover offer
      3. issue some new shares
    2. How does the tutor suggest the company can recover?
      1. by appointing a new managing director
      2. by changing the way it is organised
      3. by closing some of its retail outlets
    3. The tutor wants Jason and Karin to produce a report which
      1. offers solutions to Box Telecom’s problems.
      2. analyses the UK markets
      3. compares different companies.
    Questions 28-30

    Which opinion does each person express about Box Telecom?

    Choose your answers from the box and write the letters A-F next to questions 28-30.

    1. its workers are motivated
    2. it has too little investment
    3. it will overcome its problems
    4. its marketing campaign needs improvement
    5. it is old-fashioned
    6. it has strong managers
    1. Karin 
    2. Jason 
    3. The tutor 

    Part 4: Questions 31-36

    Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

    1. During the first week of term, students are invited to
      1. be shown round the library by the librarian
      2. listen to descriptions of library resources
      3. do an intensive course in the computer centre
    2. The speaker warns the students that
      1. internet materials can be unreliable
      2. downloaded information must be acknowledged
      3. computer access may be limited at times
    3. The library is acquiring more CDs as a resource because
      1. they are a cheap source of information
      2. they take up very little space
      3. they are more up to date than the reference books
    4. Students are encouraged to use journals online because
      1. the articles do not need to be returned to the shelves
      2. reading online is cheaper than photocopying articles
      3. the stock of printed articles is to be reduced
    5. Why might some students continue to use reference books?
      1. they can be taken away from the library
      2. they provide information unavailable anywhere else
      3. they can be borrowed for an extended loan period
    6. What is the responsibility of the training supervisor?
      1. to supervise and support library staff
      2. to provide orientation to the library facilities
      3. to identify needs and inform section managers
    Questions 37-40

    Which section of the university will help postgraduate students with their dissertations in the following ways?

    1. the postgraduate’s own department or tutor
    2. library staff
    3. another section of the university

    Write the correct letter, A, B or C, next to questions 37-40.

    1. training in specialised computer programs 
    2. advising on bibliography presentation 
    3. checking the draft of the dissertation 
    4. providing language support 
    Cambridge IELTS 5 Listening Test 4 section 1 answers
    1. 14 hill road
    2. between 9 and 9.30
    3. 1 year
    4. intermediate
    5. north-west
    6. vegetarian
    7. garden
    8. only guest
    9. 100
    10. 23 march
    Cambridge IELTS 5 Listening Test 4 section 2 answers
    1. clubhouse
    2. picnic
    3. prizes
    4. ten
    5. wednesday afternoons
    6. four
    7. sunday afternoons
    8. collect fees
    9. end newsletter
    10. supervise team
    Cambridge IELTS 5 Listening Test 4 section 3 answers
    1. sales
    2. competition
    3. interest rates
    4. training
    5. A
    6. B
    7. A
    8. C
    9. B
    10. D
    Cambridge IELTS 5 Listening Test 4 section 4 answers
    1. B
    2. A
    3. A
    4. C
    5. A
    6. B
    7. B
    8. A
    9. B
    10. C




  • Cambridge IELTS 2 Listening Test 1

    Section 1: Questions 1-10

    Questions 1-5

    Complete the form below.

    Write NO MORE THAN ONE WORD OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    VIDEO LIBRARY APPLICATION FORM

    First Names: Louise Cynthia

    Address: (1) ……………………

    Post code: (2) ……………………
    Telephone: 98356712(home), (3) …………………… (work)              

    Driver’s licence number: (4) ……………………
    Date of birth: 25th (5) ……………………, 1977

    Questions 6-8

    Circle THREE letters A-F.

    What types of films does Louise like?

    1. Action
    2. Comedies
    3. Musicals
    4. Romance
    5. Westerns
    6. Wildlife
    Questions 9 and 10

    Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

    1. How much does it cost to join the library? 
    2. When will Louise’s card be ready? 

    Section 2: Questions 11-13

    Complete the notes below.

    Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

    Expedition Across Attora Mountains

    Leader: Charles Owen
    Prepared a (11) ……………………….  for the trip
    Total length of trip (12) ……………………….
    Climbed highest peak in (13) ……………………….

    Questions 14 and 15

    Circle the correct letter A-C.

    1. What took the group by surprise?
      1. the amount of rain
      2. the number of possible routes
      3. the length of the journey
    2. How did Charles feel about having to change routes?
      1. He reluctantly accepted it
      2. He was irritate by the diversion
      3. It made no difference to him
    Questions 16-18

    Circle THREE letters A-F.

    What does Charles say about his friends?

    1. He met them at one stage on the trip
    2.  They kept all their meeting arrangements
    3.  One of them helped arrange the transport
    4.  One of them owned the hotel they stayed in
    5.  Some of them travelled with him
    6.  Only one group lasted 96 days
    Questions 19 and 20

    Circle TWO letters A-E.

    What does Charles say about the donkeys?

    1. He rode them when he was tired
    2. He named them after places
    3. One of them died
    4. They behaved unpredictably
    5. They were very small

    Section 3: Questions 21-30

    Questions 21-25

    Complete the table below.

    Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

    TIMJANE
    Day of arrivalSunday(21)………………..
    SubjectHistory(22)………………..
    Number of books to read(23)……………….(24)………………..
    Day of first lectureTuesday(25)………………..
    Questions 26-30

    Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

    1. What is Jane’s study strategy in lectures? 
    2. What is Tim’s study strategy for reading? 
    3. What is the subject of Tim’s first lecture? 
    4. What is the title of Tim’s first essay? 
    5. What is the subject of Jane’s first essay? 

    Section 3: Questions 31-40

    Questions 31-36

    Complete the table below.

    Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    CourseType of course: Durations and levelEntry requirements
    Physical fitness instructorExample: 6 months certificateNone
    Sports administrator(31)…………………….(32)………………in sports administration
    Sports psychologist(33)…………………..Degree in psychology
    Physical education trainerFour years degree in education(34)…………………
    Recreation officer(35)…………………..None
    Questions 36-40

    Complete the table below.

    Write the appropriate letters A-G against question 36-40.

    JobMain Role
    Physical Fitness Instructor(36) ………..
    Sports Administrator(37) ………..
    Sports Psychologist(38) ………..
    Physical Education Teacher(39)………..
    Recreation Officer(40) ………..

    MAIN ROLES

    1. the coaching of teams
    2. the support of elite athletes
    3. guidance of ordinary individuals
    4. community health
    5. the treatment of injuries
    6. arranging matches and venues
    7. the rounded development of children
    Cambridge IELTS 2 Listening Test 1 Section 1 Answers
    1. black
    2. 2085
    3. 94561309
    4. 2020BD
    5. July
    6. B
    7. D
    8. F
    9. $25
    10. next week
    Cambridge IELTS 2 Listening Test 1 Section 2 Answer
    1. route book
    2. 900 miles
    3. North America
    4. A
    5. C
    6. B
    7. C
    8. E
    9. B
    10. D
    Cambridge IELTS 2 Listening Test 1 Section 3 Answer
    1. (on) friday
    2. biology
    3. 57
    4. 43
    5. wednesday
    6. records them
    7. skimming
    8. French Revolution
    9. why study history
    10. animal language
    Cambridge IELTS 2 Listening Test 1 Section 3 Answers
    1. 4 month certificate
    2. employment/ job
    3. one year diploma
    4. none
    5. 6 month certificate
    6. C
    7. F
    8. B
    9. G
    10. D

  • Cambridge IELTS 4 Listening Test 3

    Section 1 – Questions 1-10

    Questions 1-4

    Complete the form below.

    Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    ACCOMMODATION REQUEST FORM

    Name: Sara Lim
    Age: 23
    Length of time in Australia: (1) …………………………..
    Present address: Flat 1, 539, (2)………………………….. Road Canterbury 2036
    Present course: (3)………………………….. English
    Accommodation required from: (4)………………………….. 7th September

    Questions 5-7

    Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

    1. Sara requires a
      1. single room
      2. twin room
      3. triple room
    2. She would prefer to live with a
      1. family
      2. single person
      3. couple
    3. She would like to live in a
      1. flat
      2. house
      3. studio apartment
    Questions 8-10

    Complete the sentences below.

    Write NO MORE THAN ONE WORD for each answer.

    1. The  will be $320.
    2. She needs to pay the rent by cash or cheque on a  basis.
    3. She needs to pay her part of the  bill

    Section 2: Questions 11-14

    Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

    1. When is this year’s festival being held?
      1. 1-13 January
      2. 5-17 January
      3. 25-31 January
    2. What will the reviewer concentrate on today
      1. theatre
      2. dance
      3. exhibitions
    3. How many circuses are there in the festival?
      1. one
      2.  two
      3. several
    4. Where does Circus Romano perform?
      1. in a theatre
      2. in a tent
      3. in a stadium
    Questions 15-20

    Complete the notes below.

    Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

    WhereType of performanceHighlightsType of audience
    Circus Romanoclowns and acrobatsmusic and (15)…………………………..(16)…………………………..
    Circus Electrica(17)…………………………..dancers and magiciansaerial displays(18)…………………………..
    Mekong Water Puppets(19)…………………………..puppetsseeing the puppeteers at end(20)…………………………..

    Section 3: Questions 21-30

    Choose the correct letter, A. B or C.

    1. The man wants information on courses for
      1. people going back to college
      2. postgraduate students
      3. business executives
    2. The ‘Study for Success’ seminar lasts for
      1. one day
      2. two days
      3. three days
    3. In the seminar the work on writing aims to improve
      1. confidence
      2. speed
      3. clarity
    4. Reading sessions help students to read
      1. analytically
      2. as fast as possible
      3. thoroughly
    5. The seminar tries to
      1. prepare learners physically
      2. encourage interest in learning
      3. develop literacy skills
    6. A key component of the course is learning how to
      1. use time effectively
      2. stay healthy
      3. select appropriate materials
    7. Students who want to do the ‘Study for Success’ seminar should
      1. register with the Faculty Office
      2. contact their Course Convenor
      3. reserve a place in advance
    8. The ‘Learning Skills for University Study’ course takes place on
      1. Monday, Wednesday and Friday
      2. Monday, Tuesday and Wednesday
      3. Monday, Thursday and Friday
    9. A feature of this course is
      1. a physical training component
      2. advice on coping with stress
      3. a detailed weekly planner
    10. The man chooses the ‘Study for Success’ seminar because
      1. he is over forty
      2. he wants to start at the beginning
      3. he seeks to revise his skills

    Section 4: Questions 31-40

    Questions 31 & 32

    Complete the notes below.

    Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    New Union Building

    Procedures to establish student opinion:
    • students were asked to give written suggestions on the building’s design
    • these points informed the design of A (31) …………………………..
    • (there were (32) ………………………….. respondents)
    • results collated and report produced by Union Committee

    Questions 33-37
    Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

    CHOICE OF SITE

    Site OneSite TwoSite Three
    Locationcity centre near faculty of (33)…………………………..outskirts near parkout of town near the (34)……………
    Advantages and/ or disadvantagesproblems with (35)…………………………..and. ………close to (36)……………access to living quarters, large site so more (37)…………………
    Question 38

    Choose TWO letters A-G.

    Which TWO facilities did the students request in the new Union building?

    1. a library
    2. a games room
    3. a student health centre
    4. a mini fitness centre
    5. a large swimming pool
    6. a travel agency
    7. a lecture theatre
    Question 39

    Choose the correct letters A, B and C.

    Which argument was used AGAINST having a drama theatre?

    1. It would be expensive and no students would use it
    2. It would be a poor use of resources because only a minority would use it
    3. It could not accommodate large production of plays
    Question 40

    Choose TWO letters A-F.

    40. Which TWO security measures have been requested?

    1. closed circuit TV
    2. show Union card on entering the building
    3. show Union card when asked
    4. sport searched of bags
    5. permanent security office on site
    Cambridge IELTS 4 Listening Test 3 section 1 answers
    1. 5 year
    2. forest
    3. academic
    4. thursday
    5. B
    6. B
    7. A
    8. deposit
    9. monthly
    10. telephone
    Cambridge IELTS 4 Listening Test 3 section 2 answers
    1. C
    2. A
    3. C
    4. B
    5. lights
    6. adults
    7. studio theatre
    8. whole family
    9. city gardens
    10. young children
    Cambridge IELTS 4 Listening Test 3 section 3 answers
    1. A
    2. B
    3. C
    4. A
    5. B
    6. A
    7. C
    8. B
    9. B
    10. B
    Cambridge IELTS 4 Listening Test 3 section 4 answers
    1. questionnaire
    2. about 2000
    3. education
    4. halls of residence
    5. traffic and parking
    6. lecture rooms
    7. facilities
    8. D and F
    9. B
    10. A and C




  • Cambridge IELTS 5 Listening Test 2

    Section 1: Questions 1-10

    Complete the notes below.

    Use NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    Library Information

    Minimum joining age: 18 years

    For registration, must take
    • two (1) ………………….  and
    • two forms of I.D. e.g. driving licence, (2) ………………….

    Cost to join per year (without current student card): (3) …………………. £ 
    Number of items allowed: (members of public) (4) ………………….
    Login times: four weeks
    Fines start at (5) …………………. £ 
    Computers can be booked up to (6) …………………. hours in advance
    Library holds most national papers,  (7) …………………. , and magazines need (8) ………………….to use photocopier

    Creative Writing class
    • tutor is John (9) …………………. and
    • held on (10) …………………. evenings

    Section 2: Questions 11-15

    Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

    BICYCLES FOR THE WORLD

    1. In 1993 Dan Pearman went to Ecuador
      1. as a tourist guide
      2. as part of his studies
      3. as a voluntary worker
    2. Dan’s neighbour was successful in business because he
      1. employed carpenters from the area
      2. was the most skilled craftsman in the town
      3. found it easy to reach customers
    3. Dan says the charity relies on
      1. getting enough bicycles to send regularly
      2. finding new areas which need the bicycles
      3. charging for the bicycles it sends abroad
    4. What does Dan say about the town of Rivas?
      1. It has received the greatest number of bikes
      2. It has almost as many bikes as Amsterdam
      3. Its economy has been totally transformed
    5. What problem did the charity face in August 2000?
      1. It couldn’t meet its overheads
      2. It had to delay sending the bikes
      3. It was criticized in the British media
    Questions 16 and 17

    Write NO MORE THAN ONE WORD OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    1. How much money did the charity receive when it won an award? 
    2. What is the charity currently hoping to buy? 
    Questions 18-20

    Which THREE things can the general public do to help the charity Pedal Power?

    1. organise a bicycle collection
    2. repair the donated bikes
    3. donate their unwanted tools
    4. do voluntary work in its office
    5. hold an event to raise money
    6. identify areas that need bikes
    7. write to the government
    Section 3: Questions 21-30

    Choose the table below.

    Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    ‘STUDENT LIFE’ VIDEO PROJECT

    CristinaIbrahim
    Enjoyed:– using the camera
    – going to British (21)……………
    contact with students doing other courses (has asked some to (22)……….with him)
    Most useful language practice:– listening to instructions
    – learning (23)…………. vocabulary
    listening to British students’ language because of:
    – normal speed
    – large amount of (24)…………….
    General usefulness:– operating video camera
    – working with other people:
    – learning about (25)…………
    – compromising
    (26)…………people who have different views
    the importance of (27)………………..
    Things to do differently in future:– decide when to (28)………….each stage at the beginning
    – make more efforts to (29)……………….with the camera
    do not make the film too (30)………………………

    Section 4: Questions 31-40

    Complete the notes below.

    Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    GEOGRAPHY
    • more than (31) …………………. times as big as the UK
    • most of the area is classified as (32) ………………….

    RESEARCH STATIONS
    • (33) …………………. is integrated with technical support
    • stations contain accommodation, work areas, a kitchen, a (34) …………………. and a gym
    • supplies were brought to Zero One station by sledge from a (35) …………………. at the edge of the ice 15 km away
    • problem of snow build-ups solved by building stations on (36) …………………. with adjustable legs

    FOOD AND DIET
    • average daily requirement for an adult in Antarctica is approximately (37) …………………. kilocalories
    • rations for field work prepared by process of freeze-drying

    RESEARCH
    The most important research focuses on climate change, including
    – measuring changes in the ice-cap (because of effects on sea levels and (38) ………………….
    – analysing air from bubbles in ice to measure (39) …………………. caused by human activity

    WORK OPPORTUNITIES
    Many openings for (40) …………………. people including
    – research assistants, administrative and technical positions

    Cambridge IELTS 5 Listening Test 2 section 1 answers
    1. photos
    2. bank statement
    3. 125 per year
    4. 8
    5. 1.50
    6. 48
    7. local papers
    8. cards
    9. grantigham
    10. friday
    Cambridge IELTS 5 Listening Test 2 section 2 answers
    1. C
    2. C
    3. A
    4. C
    5. A
    6. pound 75,000
    7. computers
    8. C
    9. E
    10. F
    Cambridge IELTS 5 Listening Test 2 section 3 answers
    1. home
    2. come to dinner
    3. technical
    4. slang
    5. cooperating
    6. persuading
    7. editing
    8. complete
    9. experiment
    10. long
    Cambridge IELTS 5 Listening Test 2 section 4 answers
    1. 58
    2. desert
    3. science
    4. small hospital
    5. ship
    6. platforms
    7. 3500
    8. currents
    9. pollution
    10. young