Author: Admin

  • Cambridge IELTS 13 Listening Test 3

    Section 1: Questions 1-10

    Complete the notes below.

    Write ONE WORD OR A NUMBER.

    Moving to Banford City

    Linda recommends living in suburb of: Dalton

    Accommodation
    • Average rent: (1) ………………………. £  a month

    Transport
    • Linda travels to work by (2) ……………………….
    • Limited (3) ……………………….  in city centre
    • Trains to London every (4) ………………………. minutes
    • Poor train service at (5) ……………………….

    Advantages of living in Banford
    • New (6) ………………………. opened recently
    • (7) ………………………. has excellent reputation
    • Good (8)  ………………………. on Bridge Street

    Meet Linda
    • Meet Linda on (9)  ………………………. after 5.30 pm
    • In the (10) ………………………. opposite the station

    Section 2: Questions 11-20

    Questions 11-16

    Choose SIX answers from the box and write the correct letter A-G next to questions 11-16

    What advantages does the speaker mention for each of the following physical activities?

    Advantages

    1. not dependent on season
    2. enjoyable
    3. low risk of injury
    4. fitness level unimportant
    5. sociable
    6. fast results
    7. motivating

    Physical Activities

    1. using a gym 
    2. running 
    3. swimming 
    4. cycling 
    5. doing yoga 
    6. training with a personal trainer 
    Questions 17 and 18

    Choose TWO letters A-E.

    For which TWO reasons does the speaker say people give up going to the gym?

    1. lack of time
    2. loss of confidence
    3. too much effort required
    4. high costs
    5. feeling less successful than others
    Questions 19 and 20

    Choose TWO letters A-E,

    Which TWO pieces of advice does the speaker give for setting goals?

    1. write goals down
    2. have achievable aims
    3. set a time limit
    4. give yourself rewards
    5. challenge yourself

    Section 3: Questions 21-30

    Questions 21-24

    Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

    Project on using natural dyes to colour fabrics

    1. What first inspired Jim to choose this project?
      1. textiles displayed in an exhibition
      2. a book about a botanic garden
      3. carpets he saw on holiday
    2. Jim eventually decided to do a practical investigation which involved
      1. using a range of dyes with different fibres
      2. applying different dyes to one type of fibre
      3. testing one dye and a range of fibres
    3. When doing his experiments Jim was surprised by
      1. how much natural material was needed to make the dye
      2. the fact that dyes were widely available on the internet
      3. the time that he had to leave the fabric in the dye
    4. What problem did Jim have with using tartrazine as a fabric dye?
      1. it caused a slight allergic reaction
      2. it was not a permanent dye on cotton
      3. it was ineffective when used on nylon
    Questions 25-30

    Choose SIX answers from the options below and write correct letter A-H next to questions 25-30

    What problem is identified with each of the following natural dyes?

    Problems

    1. it is expensive
    2. the color is too strong
    3. the color is not long lasting
    4. it is very poisonous
    5. it can damage the fabric
    6. the color may be unexpected
    7. it is unsuitable for some fabrics
    8. it is not generally available

    Natural dyes

    1. turmeric 
    2. Beetroot 
    3. Tyrian purple 
    4. Lowood 
    5. cochineal 
    6. metal oxide 

    Section 4: Questions 31-40

    Complete the notes below.

    Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

    The sleepy lizard (tiliqua rugose)

    Description
    • They are common in western and south Australia
    • They are brown but recongisable by their blue (31) …,………………….
    • They are relatively large
    • Their diet consists mainly of (32) ……………………….
    • Their main predators are large birds and (33) ……………………….

    Navigation study
    • One study found that lizards can use the (34) ………………………. to help them navigate

    Observations in the wild
    • Observations show that these lizards keep the same (35) ………………………. for several years

    What people want
    • Possible reasons:
    o To improve the survival of their young (but little (36) ………………………. has been noted between parents and children)
    o To provide (37) ………………………. for female lizards

    Tracking study
    • A study was carried out using GPS systems attached to the (38) ………………………. of the lizards
    • This provided information on the lizards’ location and even the number of
    (39)
      ………………………. taken
    • It appeared that the lizards were trying to avoid one another
    • This may be in order to reduce chances of (40) ……………………….

    Cambridge IELTS 13 Listening Test 3 section 1 answers
    1. 850
    2. bike
    3. parking
    4. 30
    5. weekend(s)
    6. cinema
    7. hospital
    8. dentist
    9. thursday
    10. cafe
    Cambridge IELTS 13 Listening Test 3 section 2 answers
    1. F
    2. D
    3. A
    4. B
    5. C
    6. G
    7. B
    8. C
    9. B
    10. D
    Cambridge IELTS 13 Listening Test 3 section 3 answers
    1. C
    2. A
    3. A
    4. B
    5. C
    6. F
    7. H
    8. D
    9. A
    10. E
    Cambridge IELTS 13 Listening Test 3 section 4 answers
    1. tongue(s)
    2. plants
    3. snakes
    4. sky
    5. partner(s)
    6. contact
    7. protection
    8. tail(s)
    9. steps
    10. injury/ injuries
  • Cambridge IELTS 6 Listening Test 4

    Part 1: Questions 1-10

    Complete the notes below.

    Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS OR A NUMBER.

    Title of conference: Future directions in computing
    Three day cost: (1) ………………………………… £ 
    Payment by (2) …………………………………  or on arrival
    Accommodation:
    Conference centre
    • (3)  …………………………………£  per night
    • Near to conference rooms
    Guest house
    • (4)  …………………………………£  per night
    • Approximately (5) …………………………………  walk from conference centre
    Further documents to be sent:
    • (6)  …………………………………
    • An application form
    Location:
    Conference centre is on (7)   …………………………………Park road next to (8)  …………………………………
    Taxi costs (9)  …………………………………£  or take bus number (10)   …………………………………from station.

    Part 2: Questions 11-13

    Which team will do each of the following jobs?

    Choose THREE answers from the box and write the correct letter A-D next to questions 11-13

    1. checking entrance tickets 
    2. preparing refreshments 
    3. directing car park traffic 

    Teams

    1. the blue team
    2. the yellow team
    3. the green team
    4. the red team
    Questions 14-20

    Complete the table below.

    Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER.

    TRAVEL EXPO (TEMPORARY STAFF ORIENTATION PRGORAMME)

    TimeEventDetials
    9.30 amTalk by Anne Smith– information about pay
    – will give out the (14)…………..forms
    10.00 amTalk by Peter Chang– will discuss conference centre plan
    – will explain about arrangements for (15)……………and fire exits
    10.30 amCoffee break– go to staff canteen on the (16)……………
    11.00 amVideo presentation– go to (17)……………..
    – video title: (18)……………..
    12.00Buffet lunch– go to the (19)……………….. on 1st floor
    1.00 pmMeet the (20)……………
    3.00 pmFinish

    Part 3: Questions 21-25

    Complete the summary below.

    Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

    The school of education libraries

    The libraries on both sites provide internet access and have a variety of (21) ……………………….. materials on education. The Castle Road library has books on sociology together with (22) ……………………….. and other resources relevant to the majority of (23) ……………………….. school subjects.

    The Fordham library includes resources for teaching in (24) ………………………..  education and special needs. Current issues of periodicals are available at both libraries although (25) ……………………….. issues are only available at Fordham.

    Questions 26 and 27
    Answer the questions below.

    Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS OR A NUMBER.

    1. Which books cannot be renewed by telephone or email? 
    2. How much time is allowed to return recalled books? 
    Questions 28-30

    Choose THREE letters, A-G.

    Which THREE topics do this term’s study skills workshops cover?

    1. An introduction to the Internet
    2.  How to carry out research for a dissertation
    3.  Making good use of the whole range of library services
    4.  Planning a dissertation
    5.  Standard requirements when writing a dissertation
    6.  Using the Internet when doing research
    7.  What books and technical resources are available in the library

    Part 4: Questions 31-34

    Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

    1. When did Asiatic lions develop as a separate sub-species?
      1. about 10,000 years ago
      2. about 100,000 years ago
      3. about 1,000,000 years ago
    2. Pictures of Asiatic lions can be seen on ancient coins from
      1. Greece
      2. The Middle East 
      3. India
    3. Asiatic lions disappeared from Europe
      1. 2,500 years ago
      2. 2,000 years ago 
      3. 1,900 years ago
    4. Very few African lions have
      1. a long mane
      2. a coat with varied colours 
      3. a fold of skin on their stomach
    Questions 35-40

    Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS OR A NUMBER.

    THE GIR SANCTUARY

    1. The sanctuary has an area of approximately  square kilometers
    2. One threat to the lions in the sanctuary is 
    3. The ancestors of the Gir Sanctuary lions were protected by a 
    4. A large part of lions’  consists of animals belonging to local farmers
    5. The lions sometimes  especially when water is short
    6. In ancient India a man would fight a lion as a test of 
    Cambridge IELTS 6 Listening Test 4 Section 1 Answers
    1. 75
    2. check/cheque
    3. 15
    4. 25
    5. 10 minute(s’)/min(s’)
    6. conference park
    7. south
    8. library
    9. 5
    10. 21 A
    Cambridge IELTS 6 Listening Test 4 Section 2 Answers
    1. D
    2. A
    3. C
    4. tax
    5. security
    6. ground floor
    7. lecture room 311
    8. safety at work
    9. main hall
    10. team leaders
    Cambridge IELTS 6 Listening Test 4 Section 3 Answers
    1. reference
    2. textbooks
    3. secondary
    4. primary
    5. back
    6. overdue books
    7. 7 working days
    8. C OR E OR F (in any order)
    9. C OR E OR F (in any order)
    10. C OR E OR F (in any order)
    Cambridge IELTS 6 Listening Test 4 Section 4 Answers
    1. B
    2. A
    3. B
    4. C
    5. 1450
    6. disease
    7. (wealthy) prince
    8. diet
    9. attack humans
    10. leadership
  • Cambridge IELTS 14 Listening Test 4

    Section 1: Questions 1-10

    Questions 1–7

    Complete the notes below.

    Write ONE WORD AND/ OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    Enquiry about booking hotel room for event

    Andrew is the Events Manager

    Rooms
    Adelphi Room
    – number of people who can sit down to eat: (1) ……………………….
    – has a gallery suitable for musicians
    – can go out and see the (2) ……………………….  in pots on the terrace
    – terrace has a view of a group of (3) ……………………….

    Carlton Room
    – number of people who can sit down to eat: 110
    – has a (4) ……………………….
    – view of the lake

    Options
    Master of Ceremonies:
    – can give a (5)  ………………………. while people are eating
    – will provide (6) ………………………. if there are any problems

    Accommodation: in hotel rooms or (7) ……………………….

    Questions 8–10

    Choose THREE answers from the box and write the correct letter, A, B or C, next to Questions 8-10.

    What is said about using each of the following hotel facilities?

    Availability

    1. included in cost of hiring room
    2. available at extra charge
    3. not available

    Hotel facilities

    1. outdoor swimming pool 
    2. gym 
    3. tennis courts 

    Section 2: Questions 11-20

    Questions 11-16

    Choose SIX answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-H, next to Questions 11-16.

    What information does the speaker give about each of the following excursions?

    Information

    1. all downhill
    2. suitable for beginners
    3. only in good weather
    4. food included
    5. no charge
    6. swimming possible
    7. fully booked today
    8. transport not included

    Excursions

    1. dolphin watching 
    2. forest walk 
    3. cycle trip 
    4. local craft tour 
    5. observatory trip 
    6. horse riding 
    Questions 17 and 18

    Choose TWO letters A-E.

    Which TWO things does the speaker say about the attraction called Musical Favourites?

    1. You pay extra for drinks.
    2. You must book it in advance.
    3. You get a reduction if you buy two tickets.
    4. You can meet the performers.
    5. You can take part in the show.
    Questions 19 and 20

    Choose TWO letters, A-E.

    Which TWO things does the speaker say about the Castle Feast?

    1. Visitors can dance after the meal.
    2. There is a choice of food.
    3. Visitors wear historical costume.
    4. Knives and forks are not used.
    5. The entertainment includes horse races.

    Section 3: Questions 21-30

    Questions 21 – 25

    Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

    1. What does Trevor find interesting about the purpose of children’s literature?
      1. the fact that authors may not realise what values they’re teaching
      2. the fact that literature can be entertaining and educational at the same time
      3. the fact that adults expect children to imitate characters in literature
    2. Trevor says the module about the purpose of children’s literature made him
      1. analyse some of the stories that his niece reads.
      2. wonder how far popularity reflects good quality.
      3. decide to start writing some children’s stories.
    3. Stephanie is interested in the Pictures module because
      1. she intends to become an illustrator.
      2. she can remember beautiful illustrations from her childhood.
      3. she believes illustrations are more important than words.
    4. Trevor and Stephanie agree that comics
      1. are inferior to books.
      2. have the potential for being useful.
      3. discourage children from using their imagination.
    5. With regard to books aimed at only boys or only girls, Trevor was surprised
      1. how long the distinction had gone unquestioned.
      2. how few books were aimed at both girls and boys.
      3. how many children enjoyed books intended for the opposite sex.
    Questions 26 – 30

    Choose FIVE answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-G, next to Questions 26-30.

    What comment is made about each of these stories?

    Comments

    1. translated into many other languages
    2. hard to read
    3. inspired a work in a different area of art
    4. more popular than the author’s other works
    5. original title refers to another book
    6. started a new genre
    7. unlikely topic

    Stories

    1. Perrault’s fairy tales 
    2. The Swiss Family Robinson 
    3. The Nutcracker and The Mouse King 
    4. The Lord of the Rings 
    5. War Horse 

    Section 4: Questions 31–40

    Complete the notes below.

    Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

    The hunt for sunken settlements and ancient shipwrecks

    ATLIT-YAM
    • was a village on coast of eastern Mediterranean
    • thrived until about 7,000 BC
    • stone homes had a courtyard
    • had a semicircle of large stones round a (31) ……………………….
    • cause of destruction unknown – now under the sea
    • biggest settlement from the prehistoric period found on the seabed
    • research carried out into structures, (32) ………………………. and human remains

    TRADITIONAL AUTONOMOUS UNDERWATER VEHICLES (AUVs)
    • used in the oil industry, e.g. to make (33) ……………………….
    • problems: they were expensive and (34) ……………………….

    LATEST AUVs
    • much easier to use, relatively cheap, sophisticated

    Tests:
    • Marzamemi, Sicily: found ancient Roman ships carrying architectural elements made of
    (35) ……………………….

    Underwater internet:
    • (36) ……………………….  is used for short distance communication, acoustic waves for long distance
    • plans for communication with researchers by satellite
    • AUV can send data to another AUV that has better (37) ……………………….  , for example

    Planned research in Gulf of Baratti:
    • to find out more about wrecks of ancient Roman ships, including
    – one carrying (38) ………………………. supplies; tablets may have been used for cleaning the (39) ……………………….
    – others carrying containers of olive oil or (40) ……………………….

    Cambridge IELTS 14 Listening Test 4 Section 1 Answers
    1. 85
    2. roses
    3. trees
    4. stage
    5. speech
    6. support
    7. cabins
    8. C
    9. A
    10. B
    Cambridge IELTS 14 Listening Test 4 Section 2 Answers
    1. G
    2. D
    3. A
    4. E
    5. F
    6. B
    7. B
    8. D (in any order)
    9. A
    10. D (in any order)
    Cambridge IELTS 14 Listening Test 4 Section 3 Answers
    1. A
    2. C
    3. A
    4. B
    5. B
    6. F
    7. E
    8. C
    9. B
    10. G
    Cambridge IELTS 14 Listening Test 4 Section 4 Answers
    1. spring
    2. tools
    3. maps
    4. heavy
    5. marble
    6. light
    7. cameras
    8. medical
    9. eyes
    10. wine




  • Cambridge IELTS 5 Listening Test 1

    Section 1: Questions 1-10

    Questions 1-4

    Complete the notes below.

    Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS OR A NUMBER.

    DREAMTIME TRAVEL AGENCY


    Holiday name: Whale watch experience
    Holiday length: 2 days
    Type of transportation: (1) ……………………..
    Maximum group size: (2) ……………………..
    Next tour date: (3) ……………………..
    Hotel name: (4) …………………….. The 

    Questions 5 and 6

    Choose TWO letters A-E.

    Which TWO things are included in the price of the tour?

    1. fishing trip
    2. guided bushwalk
    3. reptile park entry
    4. table tennis
    5. tennis
    Questions 7-10

    Complete the sentences below.

    Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    1. The tour costs $ 
    2. Bookings must be made no later than  days in advance.
    3. A  deposit is required.
    4. The customer’s reference number is 

    Section 2: Questions 11-20

    Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS.

    Brand of cotGood pointsProblemsVerdict
    Baby safeeasy to (11)…………….– did not have any (12)……………
    – babies could trap their (13)………. in the side bar
    (14)……………
    Choice cotseasy to (15)…………..– side did not drop down
    – spaces between the bars were (16)…………….
    (17)……………..
    Mother’s choicebest of cot could be moved– did not have any (18)……………
    – pictures could be removed easily
    (19)…………..
    Question 20

    Complete the notes below.

    Write ONE WORD ONLY for the answer.

    • Metal should not be rusted or bent
    • Edges of cot should not be (20) ………………………..

    Section 3: Questions 21-30

    Questions 21-23

    Choose the correct letter A, B and C.

    1. Andrew has worked at the hospital for
      1. two years
      2. three years
      3. five years
    2. During the course Andrew’s employers will pay
      1. his fees 
      2. his living costs
      3. his salary
    3. The part-time course lasts for
      1. one whole year
      2. 18 months
      3. two years
    Questions 24 and 25

    Choose TWO letters A-E.

    What TWO types of coursework are required each month on the part-time course?

    1. a case study
    2. an essay
    3. a survey
    4. a short report
    5. a study diary
    Questions 26-30

    Complete the summary below.

    Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    Modular Courses

    Students study (26)  ……………………….. during each module. A module takes (27)  ………………………..and the work is very (28)  ……………………….. To get a Diploma each student has to study (29) ………………………..  and then work on (30) ………………………..  in depth.

    Part 4: Questions 31-35

    Complete the sentences below.

    Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

    1. According to George Bernard Shaw, men are supposed to understand  economics and finance.
    2. However, women are more prepared to  about them.
    3. Women tend to save for  and a house.
    4. Men tend to save for  and for retirement.
    5. Women who are left alone may have to pay for  when they are old.
    Questions 36-40

    Complete the summary below.

    Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    Saving for the future

    Research indicates that many women only think about their financial future when a (36)   ………………………..occurs. This is the worst time to make decisions. It is best for women to start thinking about pensions when they are in their (37) ………………………..  A good way for women to develop their (38)  ……………………….. in dealing with financial affairs would be to attend classes in (39) ………………………..  When investing in stocks and shares, it is suggested that women should put a high proportion of their savings in (40)  ……………………….. In such ways, women can have a comfortable, independent retirement.

    Cambridge IELTS 5 Listening Test 1 section 1 answers
    1. by minibus
    2. 15
    3. april 18
    4. palisades
    5. B
    6. D
    7. 280
    8. 14
    9. 20%
    10. 39745T
    Cambridge IELTS 5 Listening Test 1 section 2 answers
    1. move around
    2. brakes
    3. fingers
    4. satisfactory
    5. put together
    6. too wide
    7. dangerous
    8. wheels
    9. best buy
    10. sharp
    Cambridge IELTS 5 Listening Test 1 section 3 answers
    1. B
    2. A
    3. C
    4. B
    5. D
    6. full-time
    7. one term
    8. intensive
    9. two modules
    10. one topic
    Cambridge IELTS 5 Listening Test 1 section 4 answers
    1. politics
    2. learn
    3. children’s education
    4. a car
    5. nursing care
    6. crisis
    7. early twenties
    8. confidence
    9. money management
    10. low-risk investments




  • Cambridge IELTS 7 Listening Test 4

    Part 1: Questions 1-6

    Complete the form below.

    Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER.

    HOMESTAY APPLICATION

    Surname: Yuichini
    First name: (1) ………………….
    Sex: female
    Passport number: (2) ………………….
    Present address: Room 21C, Willow College
    Length of homestay: approx. (3) ………………….
    Couse enrolled in: (4) ………………….
    Family preferences: no (5) …………………. and no objection to (6) ………………….

    Questions 7-10

    Answer the questions below.

    Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS.

    1. What does the student particularly like to eat? 
    2. What sport does the student play? 
    3. What mode of transport does the student prefer? 
    4. When will the student find out her homestay address? 

    Part 2: Questions 11-20

    Questions 11-14

    Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

    1. What kind of tour is Sally leading?
      1. a bus tour
      2. a train tour
      3. a walking tour
    2. The original buildings on the site were
      1. houses
      2. industrial buildings
      3. shops
    3. The local residents wanted to use the site for
      1. leisure
      2. apartment blocks
      3. a sports centre
    4. The Tower is at the centre of the
      1. nature reserve
      2. formal gardens
      3. Bicentennial Park
    Questions 13-17

    Label the plan below.

    Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS.

    Cambridge IELTS 7 Listening Test 4 QUESTIONS 13-17 WITH ANSWERS MSS LEARNING
    Questions 18-20

    Complete the table below.

    Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS.

    AreaFacilityActivity
    The Mangaroveboardwalk(18)…………………
    Frog Pondoutdoor classroom(19)…………………
    The Waterbird Refuge(20)…………………Bird watching

    Part 3: Questions 21 – 30

    Questions 21 and 22

    Complete the sentences below.

    Write NO MORE THAN ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    The presentation will last 15 minutes.
    There will be (21) …………………………  minutes for questions.
    The presentation will not be (22) …………………………

    Questions 23-26

    What do the students decide about each topic for the geography presentation?

    Write the correct letter, A, B or C, next to questions 23-26.

    1. They will definitely include this topic.
    2. They might include this topic.
    3. They will not include this topic.
    1. Geographical Location 
    2. Economy 
    3. Overview of Education System 
    4. Role of English Language 
    Questions 27-30

    Complete the table below.

    Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS.

    Information/ visual aidWhere from?
    Overhead projectorthe (27)……………..
    Map of West Africathe (28)……………..
    Map of the islandsa tourist brochure
    Literacy figuresthe (29)……………….
    (30)………………..on school placesas above

    Part 4: Questions 31-33

    Monosodium Glutamate (MSG)

    1. The speaker says the main topic of the lecture is
      1. the history of monosodium glutamate
      2. the way monosodium glutamate works 
      3. where monosodium glutamate is used
    2. In 1908, scientists in Japan 
      1. made monosodium glutamate
      2. began using kombu
      3. identified glutamate
    3. What change occurred in the manufacture of glutamate in 1956?
      1. It began to be manufactured on a large scale
      2. The Japanese began extracting it from natural sources
      3. It became much more expensive to produce
    Questions 34-40

    Complete the notes below.

    Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS.

    Monosodium Glutamate (MSG)

    • MSG contains
    o Glutamate (78.2%)
    o Sodium (12.2%)
    (34) ………………………… (9.6%)
    • Glutamate is found in foods that contain protein such as (35) …………………………  and (36) …………………………
    • MSG is used in foods in many different parts of the world.
    • In 1908 Kikunae Ikeda discovered a (37) …………………………
    • Our ability to detect glutamate makes sense because it is so (38) …………………………  naturally.
    • John Prescott suggests that:
    o Sweetness tells us that a food contains carbohydrates.
    (39)  tells us that a food contains toxins.
    o Saltiness tells us that a food contains (40) …………………………

    Cambridge IELTS 7 Listening Test 4 Section 1 Answers
    1. Keiko
    2. JO6337
    3. 4 months
    4. (Advanced) English (Studies)
    5. (young) children
    6. pets
    7. seafood
    8. tennis
    9. trains/(the) train
    10. this/that afternoon
    Cambridge IELTS 7 Listening Test 4 Section 2 Answers
    1. C
    2. B
    3. A
    4. B
    5. car park
    6. rose garden
    7. cafe
    8. cycling
    9. biology lesson
    10. viewing shelter
    Cambridge IELTS 7 Listening Test 4 Section 3 Answers
    1. 5
    2. assessed
    3. A
    4. B
    5. A
    6. C
    7. media room
    8. resources room
    9. embassy
    10. statistics/stats
    Cambridge IELTS 7 Listening Test 4 Section 4 Answers
    1. B
    2. C
    3. A
    4. water
    5. meat or cheese (In either order)
    6. meat or cheese (In either order)
    7. 5th/new taste
    8. common
    9. bitterness
    10. minerals
  • Cambridge IELTS 7 Listening Test 1

    Part 1: Questions 1-10

    Complete the notes below.

    Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS.

    Transport from Airport to Milton

    Distance: 147 miles
    Options:
    • Car hire – don’t want to drive
    • (1) ……………………….. – expensive
    • Greyhound Bus
    o $15 single, $27.50 return
    o Direct to the (2) ………………………..
    o Long (3) ………………………..
    • Airport Shuttle
    (4) ………………………..  service
    o Every 2 hours
    o $35 single, $65 return
    o Need to (5) ………………………..

    Questions 6-10

    Complete the booking form below.

    Write ONE WORD OR A NUMBER.

    AIRPORT SHUTTLE BOOKING FORM

    To: Milton
    Date: (6)……………..No. of passengers: 1
    Bus time: (7)……………pmType of ticket: single
    Name: Jane (8)………………
    Flight No: (9)………………..From: London Heathrow
    Address in Milton: Vacation Motel, 24 Kitchener Street
    Fare: $ 35
    Credit card number: (Visa) (10)…………………..

    Part 2: Questions 11-20

    Questions 11-16

    Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

    1. PS Camping has been organising holidays for
      1. 15 years
      2. 20 years
      3. 25 years
    2. The company has most camping sites in
      1. France
      2. Italy
      3. Switzerland
    3. Which organised activity can children do every day of the week?
      1. football
      2. drama
      3. model making
    4. Some areas of the sites have a ‘no noise’ rule after
      1. 9.30 p.m
      2. 10.00 p.m
      3. 10.30 p.m
    5. The holiday insurance that is offered by PS Camping
      1. can be charged on an annual basis
      2. is included in the price of the holiday 
      3. must be taken out at the time of booking
    6. Customers who recommend PS Camping to friends will receive
      1. a free gift
      2. an upgrade to a luxury tent
      3. a discount
    Questions 17-20

    Write the correct letter A, B or C next to questions 17-20

    What does the speaker say about the following items?

    1. barbeques 
    2. toys 
    3. cool boxes 
    4. mops and buckets 
    1. They are provided in all tents.
    2. They are found in central areas of the campsite.
    3. They are available on requests.

    Part 3: Questions 21-30

    Questions 21-23

    Complete the notes below.

    Write ONE WORD ONLY.

    DIFFERENCES BETWEEN INDIVIDUALS IN THE WORKPLACE

    Individuals bring different:
    • Ideas
    • (21) ………………………..
    • Learning experiences
    Work behavior differences are due to:
    • Personality
    • (22) ………………………..
    Effects of diversity on companies:
    • Advantage: diversity develops (23) ………………………..
    • Disadvantages: diversity can cause conflict

    Questions 24-27

    Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

    1. Janice thinks that employers should encourage workers who are
      1. potential leaders
      2. open to new ideas
      3. good at teamwork
    2. Janice suggests that managers may find it difficult to
      1. form successful groups
      2. balance conflicting needs
      3. deal with uncooperative workers
    3. Janice believes employers should look for job applicants who
      1. can think independently
      2. will obey the system
      3. can solve problems
    4. Janice believes managers should
      1. demonstrate good behavior
      2. encourage co-operation early on
      3. increase financial incentives
    Questions 28-30

    Complete the sentences below.

    Write ONE WORD ONLY.

    1. All managers need to understand their employees and recognise their company’s 
    2. When managing change, increasing the company’s  may be more important than employee satisfaction.
    3. During periods of change, managers may have to cope with increased amounts of 

    Part 4: Questions 31-40

    Questions 31-35

    Complete the notes below.

    Write ONE WORD ONLY.

    SEMINAR ON ROCK ART

    Preparation for fieldwork trip to Namibia in (31) 
    Rock art in Namibia may be
    • Paintings
    • Engravings
    Earliest explanation of engravings of animal footprints
    They were used to help (32) ……………………….. learn about tracking.

    But:
    • Why are the tracks usually (33)  ………………………..?
    • Why are some engravings realistic and other realistic?
    • Why are the unrealistic animals sometimes half (34) ……………………….. ?
    More recent explanation
    Wise men may have been trying to control wild animals with (35) ………………………..

    Questions 36-40

    Complete the sentences below.

    Write ONE WORD ONLY.

    1. If you look at a site from a  , you reduce visitor pressure.
    2. To camp on a site may be disrespectful to people from that 
    3. Undiscovered material may be damaged by 
    4. You should avoid  or tracing rock art as it is so fragile.
    5. In general, your aim is to leave the site 
    Cambridge IELTS 7 Listening Test 1 Section 1 Answers
    1. (a) taxi/cab
    2. city centre/center
    3. wait
    4. door-to-door
    5. reserve (a seat)
    6. (the) 17th (of) October
    7. 12.30
    8. Thomson
    9. AC936
    10. 3303 8450 2045 6837
    Cambridge IELTS 7 Listening Test 1 Section 2 Answers
    1. B
    2. A
    3. B
    4. C
    5. C
    6. A
    7. C
    8. A
    9. C
    10. B
    Cambridge IELTS 7 Listening Test 1 Section 3 Answers
    1. attitude(s)
    2. gender/sex
    3. creativity/creativeness
    4. A
    5. B
    6. A
    7. B
    8. culture
    9. profit(s)
    10. stress/strain
    Cambridge IELTS 7 Listening Test 1 Section 4 Answers
    1. April
    2. children
    3. repeated
    4. human
    5. magic
    6. distance
    7. culture
    8. fire(s)
    9. touching
    10. intact
  • Cambridge IELTS 4 Listening Test 4

    Section 1: Questions 1-10

    Complete the notes below.

    Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    GOODBYE PARTY FOR JOHN


    Venue: (1) …………………………..
    Invitations (Tony)
    Who to invite: John and his wife
    Director
    The (2) …………………………..
    All the teachers
    All the (3) …………………………..
    Date for sending invitations: (4) …………………………..
    Present (Lisa)
    Collect money during the: (5) …………………………..
    Suggested amount per person: (6) …………………………..
    Check prices for: CD Players
    (7) …………………………..
    Coffee maker
    Ask guests to bring: snacks
    (8) …………………………..
    (9) …………………………..
    Ask student representative to prepare a: (10) …………………………..

    Section 2:  Questions 11-20

    Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

    1. To find out how much holidays cost, you should press button 
      1. one 
      2. two
      3. three
    2. Travelite currently offer walking holidays
      1. only in Western Europe
      2. all over Europe
      3. outside Europe
    3. The walks offered by Travelite
      1. cater for a range of walking abilities
      2. are planned by guides from the local area
      3. are for people with good fitness levels
    4. On Travelite holidays, people holidaying alone pay
      1. the same as other clients
      2. only a little more than other clients
      3. extra only if they stay in a large room
    5. Entertainment is provided
      1. when guests request it 
      2. most nights
      3. every night
    Questions 16-20

    Complete the table below.

    Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER.

    Length of holidayCost per personSpecial offers included in price
    3 days(16) $…………………………..pick up from the (17)…………………………..
    7 days$ 350– book of (18)…………………………..
    – maps
    14 days(19) $…………………………..as above plus membership of a (20)…………………………..

    Section 3 : Questions 21-30

    Complete the table below.

    Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER.

    Experiment numberEquipmentPurpose
    Experiment 1(21)…………………………..and a tableto show how things move on a cushion of air
    Experiment 2lots of paperclipsto show why we need standard (22)…………………………..
    Experiment 3(23)…………………………..and a jar of waterto show how (24)…………………………..grow
    Experiment 4cardboard, colored pens and a (25)…………………………..to teach children about how (26)…………………………..is made up
    Experiment 5a drill, an old record, a pin, paper, a boltto make a record player in order to learn about recording sound
    Questions 27-30

    Choose your answers from the box and write the letters A-H next to questions 27-30

    What problems do the speakers identify for each experiment?

    Experiment 1: (27) ………………………..
    Experiment 2: (28) ………………………..
    Experiment 3: (29) ………………………..
    Experiment 4: (Example) F
    Experiment 5: (30) ………………………..

    Problems

    1. too messy
    2. too boring
    3. too difficult
    4. too much equipment
    5. too long
    6. too easy
    7. too noisy
    8. too dangerous

    Section 4 : Questions 31-40

    Complete the notes below.

    Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER.

    SHARKS IN AUSTRALIA


    Length largest caught: 16 mts
    Weight heaviest: (31)  ……………………….. kgs
    Skeleton cartilages
    Skin texture rough barbs
    Swimming aide fins and (32) …………………………..
    Food gathered from the ocean (33) …………………………..
    Sharks locate food by using their (34) …………………………..

    Questions 35-38
    1. Shark meshing uses nets laid
      1. along the coastline
      2. at an angle to the beach
      3. from the beach to the sea
    2. Other places that have taken up shark meshing include
      1. South Africa
      2. New Zealand 
      3. Tahiti
    3. The average number of sharks caught in nets each year is 
      1. 15
      2. 150
      3. 1,500
    4. Most sharks are caught in
      1. spring 
      2. summer 
      3. winter
    Questions 39 and 40

    Which TWO factors reduce the benefits of shark nets?

    1. nets wrongly positioned
    2. strong waves and currents
    3. too many fish
    4. sharks cat holes in nets 
    5. moving sands
    6. nets too short
    7. holes in nets scare sharks
    Section 1 Answers
    1. shopping / variety of shopping
    2. guided tours
    3. more than 12/ over 12
    4. notice board
    5. 13th February
    6. Tower of London
    7. Bristol
    8. American Museum
    9. student newspaper
    10. Yentob
    Section 2 Answers
    1. coal & firewood (IN EITHER ORDER, BOTH REQUIREDFOR ONE MARK)
    2. coal & firewood (IN EITHER ORDER, BOTH REQUIREDFOR ONE MARK)
    3. local craftsmen
    4. Woodside
    5. Ticket Office
    6. Gift Shop
    7. (main) Workshop
    8. Showroom
    9. Café
    10. cottages
    Section 3 Answers
    1. A
    2. C
    3. E
    4. B
    5. C
    6. FC
    7. D
    8. A
    9. B
    10. G
    Section 4 Answers
    1. cities/environment
    2. windy
    3. humid
    4. shady/shaded
    5. dangerous
    6. leaves
    7. ground
    8. considerably reduce / decrease/filter
    9. low
    10. space / room
  • Cambridge IELTS 4 Listening Test 2

    Section 1: Questions 1-10

    Questions 1-5

    Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

    1. What does Peter want to drink?
      1. tea
      2. coffee
      3. a cold drink
    2. What caused Peter problems at the bank?
      1. The exchange rate was down
      2. He was late
      3. The computers weren’t working
    3. Who did Peter talk to at the bank?
      1. an old friend
      2. an American man
      3. a German man
    4. Henry gave Peter a map of
      1. the city
      2. the bus routes
      3. the train system
    5. What do Peter and Sally decide to order? 
      1. food and drinks 
      2. just food
      3. just drinks
    Questions 6-8

    Complete the notes below using words from the options given below.

    Art gallery
    Cathedral
    Castle
    Gardens
    Markets

    Tourist attractions open all day: (6) ………………………….. and Gardens
    Tourist attractions NOT open on Mondays: (7) ………………………….. and Castle
    Tourist attractions which have free entry: (8) ………………………….. and Markets

    Questions 9 and 10

    Complete the sentences below.

    Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

    1. The first place Peter and Sally will visit is the …………………………..
    2. At the Cathedral, Peter really wants to …………………………..

    Part 2: Questions 11-20

    Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

    1. The Counselling Service may contact tutors if
      1. they are too slow in marking assignments
      2. they give students a lot of work
      3. they don’t inform students about their progress
    2. Stress may be caused by
      1. new teachers
      2. time pressure
      3. unfamiliar subject matter
    3. International students may find stress difficult to handle because
      1. they lack support from family and friends
      2. they don’t have time to make new friends
      3. they find it difficult to socialise
    4. A personal crisis may be caused by
      1. studying for too long overseas 
      2. business problems in the student’s own country
      3. disruptions to personal relationships
    5. Students may lose self-esteem if
      1. they have to change courses
      2. they don’t complete a course
      3. their family puts too much pressure on them
    6. Students should consult Glenda Roberts if
      1. their general health is poor
      2. their diet is too strict
      3. they can’t eat the local food
    7. Students in financial difficulties can receive
      1. assistance to buy books
      2. a loan to pay their course fees
      3. a no-interest loan to cover study expenses
    8. Loans are also available to students who
      1. can’t pay their rent
      2. need to buy furniture
      3. can’t cover their living expenses
    9. The number of students counselled by the service last year was
      1. 214
      2. 240
      3. 2,600
    10. The speaker thinks the Counselling Service
      1. has been effective in spite of staff shortages
      2. in under used by students
      3. has suffered badly because of staff cuts

    Part 3: Questions 21-24

    Complete the notes below.

    Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    DETAILS OF ASSIGNMENT

    Part 1 Essay: Title ‘Assess the two methods of (21) ………………………….. in social science research
    Number of words: (22) …………………………..
    Part 2 Small scale study: Choose one method
    Gather data from at least (23)………………………….. subjects
    Part 3 Report on study: Number of words: (24) …………………………..

    Questions 25 and 26

    Choose TWO letters A-E.

    What TWO disadvantages of the questionnaire form of data collection do the students discuss?

    1. The data is sometimes invalid
    2.  Too few people may respond
    3.  It is less likely to reveal the unexpected
    4.  It can only be used with literate populations
    5.  There is a delay between the distribution and return of questionnaires
    Questions 27-30

    Complete the table below.

    Write NO MORE THREE TWO WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    AuthorTitlePublisherYear of publication
    (27)…………………………..sample surveys in social science research
    Bell(28)…………………………..(29)…………………………..
    Wilsoninterviews that workOxford University Press(30)…………………………..

    Part 4: Questions 31 and 32

    Choose the correct letter A, B and C.

    1. Corporate crime is generally committed
      1. against individuals
      2. by groups
      3. for companies
    2. Corporate crime does NOT include 
      1. employees stealing from their company 
      2. unintentional crime by employees
      3. fraud resulting from company policy
    Questions 33-38

    Complete the notes below.

    Write NO MORE THREE TWO WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    Corporate crime has been ignored by:
    • The (33) ………………………….. e.g. films
    • (34) …………………………..
    Reasons:
    • Often more complex and needing (35) …………………………..
    • Less human interest than conventional crime
    • Victims often (36) …………………………..
    Effects:
    • Economic costs
    o May appear unimportant to (37) …………………………..
    o Can make large (38) ………………………….. for company

    Questions 39 and 40

    Choose TWO letters A-F.

    The oil tanker explosion was an example of a crime which

    1. was no-one’s fault
    2. was not a corporate crime
    3. was intentional
    4. was caused by indifference
    5. has tragic results
    6. made a large profit for the company
    Cambridge IELTS 4 Listening Test 2 section 1 answers
    1. C
    2. C
    3. B
    4. B
    5. A
    6. cathedral
    7. markets
    8. garden
    9. art gallery
    10. climb the tower
    Cambridge IELTS 4 Listening Test 2 section 2 answers
    1. C
    2. B
    3. A
    4. C
    5. B
    6. C
    7. A
    8. B
    9. B
    10. A
    Cambridge IELTS 4 Listening Test 2 section 3 answers
    1. collecting data
    2. 1500
    3. 5
    4. 3000-4000
    5. B
    6. C
    7. Mehta
    8. survey research
    9. London University
    10. 1988
    Cambridge IELTS 4 Listening Test 2 section 4 answers
    1. C
    2. A
    3. mass media
    4. academic circles
    5. specialist knowledge
    6. unaware
    7. individual customers
    8. illegal profits
    9. D
    10. E




  • Cambridge IELTS 10 Speaking Test 1

    PART 1

    The examiner asks the candidate about him/herself, his/her home, work or studies and other familiar topics.

    EXAMPLE

    Weekends

    • How do you usually spend your weekends? [Why?]
    • Which is your favourite part of the weekend? [Why?]
    • Do you think your weekends are long enough? [Why/Why not?]
    • How important do you think it is to have free time at the weekends? [Why?]

    PART 2

    Describe someone you know who does something well.

    • You should say:
      • who this person is
      • how you know this person
      • what they do well
      • and explain why you think this person is so good at doing this.

    • You will have to talk about the topic for one or two minutes.
    • You have one minute to think about what you are going to say.
    • You can make some notes to help you if you wish

    PART 3

    Discussion topics:

    Skills and abilities

    Example questions:

    • What skills and abilities do people most want to have today? Why?
    • Which skills should children learn at school? Are there any skills which they should learn at home? What are they?
    • Which skills do you think will be important in the future? Why?

    Salaries for skilled people

    Example questions:

    • Which kinds of jobs have the highest salaries in your country? Why is this?
    • Are there any other jobs that you think should have high salaries? Why do you think that?
    • Some people say it would be better for society if everyone got the same salary. What do you think about that? Why?
    Cambridge IELTS 10 Speaking Test 1 part 1 model answers
    • I typically spend my weekends catching up on hobbies like reading, hiking, or painting. It’s my time to unwind and relax after a busy week.
    • My favorite part of the weekend is Saturday mornings. I love waking up without an alarm, making a leisurely breakfast, and then deciding how I want to spend the day.
    • Honestly, I wish weekends were a bit longer. There always seems to be so much I want to do, but time flies by too quickly. An extra day would be fantastic!
    • I believe having free time on the weekends is crucial for mental health and overall well-being. It allows us to recharge, pursue hobbies, spend time with loved ones, and strike a balance between work and life.


    Cambridge IELTS 10 Speaking Test 1 part 2 model answers

    Certainly! Here’s an example response for Part 2:


    The person I would like to talk about is my friend Sarah. I’ve known Sarah since college, where we met in our sophomore year during a group project. Sarah is exceptionally skilled at photography.

    I got to know Sarah better through our mutual interest in photography. We often went on photo walks together, exploring different locations and experimenting with various techniques. Through these experiences, I witnessed firsthand her talent and passion for photography.

    What Sarah does particularly well is capturing emotions and telling stories through her photographs. Whether it’s a portrait, a landscape, or a candid shot, her images always evoke strong feelings and convey powerful narratives. She has a remarkable ability to find beauty in the mundane and capture fleeting moments with depth and authenticity.

    I believe Sarah’s proficiency in photography stems from her keen observation skills and her genuine curiosity about the world around her. She has a knack for noticing details that others might overlook, and she approaches every photo shoot with a sense of wonder and exploration. Additionally, Sarah is constantly honing her craft through practice, experimentation, and seeking feedback from fellow photographers.

    Furthermore, Sarah’s empathetic nature allows her to connect deeply with her subjects, whether it’s a person, an animal, or a landscape. This emotional connection enables her to capture the essence of her subjects and convey their stories in a compelling way.

    In summary, Sarah excels in photography due to her keen observation skills, genuine curiosity, continuous practice, and empathetic approach. Her ability to capture emotions and tell stories through her photographs makes her stand out as a truly talented photographer.


    Cambridge IELTS 10 Speaking Test 1 part 3 model answers

    Skills and abilities:

    • In today’s fast-paced world, people often desire skills such as adaptability, problem-solving, communication, and technological proficiency. These skills are valued because they enable individuals to navigate change, collaborate effectively, and stay relevant in a dynamic job market.
    • At school, children should learn foundational skills like literacy, numeracy, critical thinking, and social skills. These skills provide the basis for lifelong learning and success. Additionally, skills such as resilience, empathy, and financial literacy are valuable and can be reinforced at home through parental guidance and real-life experiences.
    • In the future, skills related to technology, innovation, creativity, and adaptability will be crucial. As automation and artificial intelligence continue to advance, there will be a growing demand for individuals who can harness technology, think creatively, and adapt to evolving circumstances. Additionally, skills related to sustainability and global citizenship will be increasingly important in addressing complex societal challenges.

    Salaries for skilled people:

    • In my country, jobs in fields such as medicine, law, finance, and technology often have the highest salaries. This is because these professions require specialized knowledge, skills, and expertise that are in high demand and command premium compensation in the labor market. Additionally, factors like scarcity of talent, level of education required, and level of responsibility contribute to the higher salaries in these fields.
    • Jobs that directly contribute to the well-being and functioning of society, such as teachers, healthcare workers, and essential service providers, should also have high salaries. These professionals play critical roles in shaping the future, preserving public health, and ensuring the smooth functioning of communities. Recognizing their contributions through competitive salaries not only attracts talent to these fields but also enhances overall societal well-being.
    • While the concept of equal salaries for everyone may seem egalitarian, it overlooks the inherent differences in skills, contributions, and responsibilities across various occupations. Implementing such a system could disincentivize productivity, innovation, and personal development. Instead, a fair and equitable salary system that rewards skills, qualifications, and contributions while ensuring a basic standard of living for all would be more beneficial for societal progress and well-being.
  • Cambridge IELTS 12 Academic Reading Test 2

    Reading Passage 1

    The Risks Agriculture Faces In Developing Countries

    A Two things distinguish food production from all other productive activities: first, every single person needs food each day and has a right to it; and second, it is hugely dependent on nature. These two unique aspects, one political, the other natural, make food production highly vulnerable and different from any other business. At the same time, cultural values are highly entrenched in food and agricultural systems worldwide.

    B Farmers everywhere face major risks; including extreme weather, long-term climate change, and price volatility in input and product markets. However, smallholder farmers in developing countries must in addition deal with adverse environments, both natural, in terms of soil quality, rainfall, etc. and human, in terms of infrastructure, financial systems, markets, knowledge and technology. Counter-intuitively, hunger is prevalent among many smallholder farmers in the developing world.

    C Participants in the online debate argued that our biggest challenge is to address the underlying causes of the agricultural system’s inability to ensure sufficient food for all, and they identified as drivers of this problem our dependency on fossil fuels and unsupportive government policies.

    D On the question of mitigating the risks farmers face, most essayists called for greater state intervention. In his essay, Kanayo F. Nwanze, President of the International Fund for Agricultural Development, argued that governments can significantly reduce risks for farmers by providing basic services like roads to get produce more efficiently to markets, or water and food storage facilities to reduce losses. Sophia Murphy, senior advisor to the Institute for Agriculture and Trade Policy, suggested that the procurement and holding of stocks by governments can also help mitigate wild swings in food prices by alleviating uncertainties about market supply.

    E Shenggen Fan, Director General of the International Food Policy Research Institute, held up social safety nets and public welfare programmes in Ethiopia, Brazil and Mexico as valuable ways to address poverty among farming families and reduce their vulnerability to agriculture shocks. However, some commentators responded that cash transfers to poor families do not necessarily translate into increased food security, as these programmes do not always strengthen food production or raise incomes. Regarding state subsidies for agriculture, Rokeya Kabir, Executive Director of Bangladesh Nari Progati Sangha, commented in her essay that these ‘have not compensated for the stranglehold exercised by private traders. In fact, studies show that sixty percent of beneficiaries of subsidies are not poor, but rich landowners and non-farmer traders.

    F Nwanze, Murphy and Fan argued that private risk management tools, like private insurance, commodity futures markets, and rural finance can help small-scale producers mitigate risk and allow for investment in improvements. Kabir warned that financial support schemes often encourage the adoption of high-input agricultural practices, which in the medium term may raise production costs beyond the value of their harvests. Murphy noted that when futures markets become excessively financialised they can contribute to short-term price volatility, which increases farmers’ food insecurity. Many participants and commentators emphasised that greater transparency in markets is needed to mitigate the impact of volatility, and make evident whether adequate stocks and supplies are available. Others contended that agribusiness companies should be held responsible for paying for negative side effects.

    G Many essayists mentioned climate change and its consequences for small-scale agriculture. Fan explained that in addition to reducing crop yields, climate change increases the magnitude and the frequency of extreme weather events, which increase smallholder vulnerability. The growing unpredictability of weather patterns increases farmers’ difficulty in managing weather-related risks. According to this author, one solution would be to develop crop varieties that are more resilient to new climate trends and extreme weather patterns. Accordingly, Pat Mooney, co-founder and executive director of the ETC Group, suggested that ‘if we are to survive climate change, we must adopt policies that let peasants diversify the plant and animal species and varieties/breeds that make up our menus.

    H Some participating authors and commentators argued in favour of community- based and autonomous risk management strategies through collective action groups, co-operatives or producers’ groups. Such groups enhance market opportunities for small-scale producers, reduce marketing costs and synchronise buying and selling with seasonal price conditions. According to Murphy, ‘collective action offers an important way for farmers to strengthen their political and economic bargaining power, and to reduce their business risks. One commentator, Giel Ton, warned that collective action does not come as a free good. It takes time, effort and money to organise, build trust and to experiment. Others, like Marcel Vernooij and Marcel Beukeboom, suggested that in order to ‘apply what we already know’, all stakeholders, including business, government, scientists and civil society, must work together, starting at the beginning of the value chain.

    I Some participants explained that market price volatility is often worsened by the presence of intermediary purchasers who, taking advantage of farmers’ vulnerability, dictate prices. One commentator suggested farmers can gain greater control over prices and minimise price volatility by selling directly to consumers. Similarly, Sonali Bisht, founder and advisor to the Institute of Himalayan Environmental Research and Education (INHERE), India, wrote that copipunity-supported agriculture, where consumers invest in local farmers by subscription and guarantee producers a fair price, is a risk-sharing model worth more attention. Direct food distribution systems not only encourage small-scale agriculture but also give consumers more control over the food they consume, she wrote.

    Questions 1-3

    Reading passage 1 has nine paragraphs A-I.

    Which paragraph contains the following information?

    1. a reference to characteristics that only apply to food production
    2. a reference to challenges faced only by farmers in certain parts of the world
    3. a reference to difficulties in bringing about co-operation between farmers
    Questions 4-9

    Look at the following statements (questions 4-9) and list of people below.

    Match each statement with the correct person A-G.

    NB You may use any letter more than once.

    1. Financial assistance from the government does not always go to the farmers who most need it.
    2. Farmers can benefit from collaborating as a group.
    3. Financial assistance from the government can improve the standard of living of farmers.
    4. Farmers may be helped if there is financial input by the same individuals who buy from them.
    5. Governments can help to reduce variation in prices.
    6. Improvements to infrastructure can have a major impact on risk for farmers.

    List of people

    1. Kanayo F. Nwanze
    2. Sophia Murphy
    3. Shenggen Fan
    4. Rokeya Kabir
    5. Pat Mooney
    6. Giel Ton
    7. Sonali Bisht
    Questions 10 and 11

    Choose TWO letters A-E.

    Which TWO problems are mentioned which affect farmers with small farms in developing countries?

    1. lack of demand for locally produced food
    2. lack of irrigation programmes
    3. being unable to get insurance
    4. the effects of changing weather patterns
    5. having to sell their goods to intermediary buyers

    Questions 12 and 13

    Choose TWO letters A-E.

    Which TWO actions are recommended for improving conditions for farmers?

    1. reducing the size of food stocks
    2. attempting to ensure that prices rise at certain times of the year
    3. organizing co-operation between a wide range of interested parties
    4. encouraging consumers to take a financial stake in farming
    5. making customers aware of the reasons for changing food prices

    Reading passage 2

    The Lost City

    A When the US explorer and academic Hiram Bingham arrived in South America in 1911, he was ready for what was to be the greatest achievement of his life: the exploration of the remote hinterland to the west of Cusco, the old capital of the Inca empire in the Andes mountains of Peru. His goal was to locate the remains of a city called Vitcos, the last capital of the Inca civilisation. Cusco lies on a high plateau at an elevation of more than 3,000 metres, and Bingham’s plan was to descend from this plateau along the valley of the Urubamba river, which takes a circuitous route down to the Amazon and passes through an area of dramatic canyons and mountain ranges.

    B When Bingham and his team set off down the Urubamba in late July, they had an advantage over travellers who had preceded them: a track had recently been blasted down the valley canyon to enable rubber to be brought up by mules from the jungle. Almost all previous travellers had left the river at Ollantaytambo and taken a high pass across the mountains to rejoin the river lower down, thereby cutting a substantial corner, but also therefore never passing through the area around Machu Picchu.

    C On 24 July they were a few days into their descent of the valley. The day began slowly, with Bingham trying to arrange sufficient mules for the next stage of the trek. His companions showed no interest in accompanying him up the nearby hill to see some ruins that a local farmer, Melchor Arteaga, had told them about the night before. The morning was dull and damp, and Bingham also seems to have been less than keen on the prospect of climbing the hill. In his book Lost City of the Incas, he relates that he made the ascent without having the least expectation that he would find anything at the top.

    D Bingham writes about the approach in vivid style in his book. First, as he climbs up the hill, he describes the ever-present possibility of deadly snakes, ‘capable of making considerable springs when in pursuit of their prey’; not that he sees any. Then there’s a sense of mounting discovery as he comes across great sweeps of terraces, then a mausoleum, followed by monumental staircases and, finally, the grand ceremonial buildings of Machu Picchu. ‘It seemed like an unbelievable dream the sight held me spellbound ’, he wrote.

    E We should remember, however, that Lost City of the Incas is a work of hindsight, not written until 1948, many years after his journey. His journal entries of the time reveal a much more gradual appreciation of his achievement. He spent the afternoon at the ruins noting down the dimensions of some of the buildings, then descended and rejoined his companions, to whom he seems to have said little about his discovery. At this stage, Bingham didn’t realise the extent or the importance of the site, nor did he realise what use he could make of the discovery.

    F However, soon after returning it occurred to him that he could make a name for himself from this discovery. When he came to write the National Geographic magazine article that broke the story to the world in April 1913, he knew he had to produce a big idea. He wondered whether it could have been the birthplace of the very first Inca, Manco the Great, and whether it could also have been what chroniclers described as ‘the last city of the Incas’. This term refers to Vilcabamba the settlement where the Incas had fled from Spanish invaders in the 1530s. Bingham made desperate attempts to prove this belief for nearly 40 years. Sadly, his vision of the site as both the beginning and end of the Inca civilisation, while a magnificent one, is inaccurate. We now know, that Vilcabamba actually lies 65 kilometres away in the depths of the jungle.

    G One question that has perplexed visitors, historians and archaeologists alike ever since Bingham, is why the site seems to have been abandoned before the Spanish Conquest. There are no references to it by any of the Spanish chroniclers – and if they had known of its existence so close to Cusco they would certainly have come in search of gold. An idea which has gained wide acceptance over the past few years is that Machu Picchu was a moya, a country estate built by an Inca emperor to escape the cold winters of Cusco, where the elite could enjoy monumental architecture and spectacular views. Furthermore, the particular architecture of Machu Picchu suggests that it was constructed at the time of the greatest of all the Incas, the emperor Pachacuti (1438-71). By custom, Pachacuti’s descendants built other similar estates for their own use, and so Machu Picchu would have been abandoned after his death, some 50 years before the Spanish Conquest.

    Questions 14-20

    Reading passage 2 has seven paragraphs A-G.

    Choose the correct heading for each paragraph from the list of headings below.

    List of headings

    1. Different accounts of the same journey
    2. Bingham gains support
    3. A common belief
    4. The aim of the trip
    5. dramatic description
    6. A new route
    7. Bingham publishes his theory
    8. Bingham’s lack of enthusiasm
    1. Paragraph A
    2. Paragraph B
    3. Paragraph C
    4. Paragraph D
    5. Paragraph E
    6. Paragraph F
    7. Paragraph G
    Questions 21-24

    Do the following statements agree with the information given in reading passage 2?

    • TRUE                        if the statement agrees with the information
    • FALSE                      if the statement contradicts the information
    • NOT GIVEN          if there is no information on this
    1. Bingham went to South America in search of an Inca city.
    2. Bingham chose a particular route down the Urubamba valley because it was the most common route used by travelers.
    3. Bingham understood the significance of Machu Picchu as soon as he saw it.
    4. Bingham returned to Machu Picchu in order to find evidence to support his theory.
    Questions 25 and 26

    Complete the sentences below.

    Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the passage

    1. The track that took Bingham down the Urubamba valley had been created for the transportation of……………..
    2. Bingham found out about the ruins of Machu Picchu from a…………………………….in the Urubamba valley.

    Reading passage 3

    The Benefits Of Being Bilingual

    A According to the latest figures, the majority of the world’s population is now bilingual or multilingual, having grown up speaking two or more languages. In the past, such children were considered to be at a disadvantage compared with their monolingual peers. Over the past few decades, however, technological advances have allowed researchers to look more deeply at how bilingualism interacts with and changes the cognitive and neurological systems, thereby identifying several clear benefits of being bilingual.

    B Research shows that when a bilingual person uses one language, the other is active at the same time. When we hear a word, we don’t hear the entire word all at once: the sounds arrive in sequential order. Long before the word is finished, the brain’s language system begins to guess what that word might be. If you hear ‘can’, you will likely activate words like ‘candy’ and ‘candle’ as well, at least during the earlier stages of word recognition. For bilingual people, this activation is not limited to a single language; auditory input activates corresponding words regardless of the language to which they belong. Some of the most compelling evidence for this phenomenon, called ‘language co-activation’, comes from studying eye movements. A Russian-English bilingual asked to ‘pick up a marker’ from a set of objects would look more at a stamp than someone who doesn’t know Russian, because the Russian word for ‘stamp’, marka, sounds like the English word he or she heard, ‘marker’. In cases like this, language co-activation occurs because what the listener hears could map onto words in either language.

    C Having to deal with this persistent linguistic competition can result in difficulties, however. For instance, knowing more than one language can cause speakers to name pictures more slowly, and can increase ‘tip-of-the-tongue states’, when you can almost, but not quite, bring a word to mind. As a result, the constant juggling of two languages creates a need to control how much a person accesses a language at any given time. For this reason, bilingual people often perform better on tasks that require conflict management. In the classic Stroop Task, people see a word and are asked to name the colour of the word’s font. When the colour and the word match (i., the word ‘red’ printed in red), people correctly name the colour more quickly than when the colour and the word don’t match (i., the word ‘red’ printed in blue). This occurs because the word itself (‘red’) and its font colour (blue) conflict. Bilingual people often excel at tasks such as this, which tap into the ability to ignore competing perceptual information and focus on the relevant aspects of the input. Bilinguals are also better at switching between two tasks; for example, when bilinguals have to switch from categorizing objects by colour (red or green) to categorizing them by shape (circle or triangle), they do so more quickly than monolingual people, reflecting better cognitive control when having to make rapid changes of strategy.

    D It also seems that the neurological roots of the bilingual advantage extend to brain areas more traditionally associated with sensory processing. When monolingual and bilingual adolescents listen to simple speech sounds without any intervening background noise, they show highly similar brain stem responses. When researchers play the same sound to both groups in the presence of background noise, however, the bilingual listeners’ neural response is considerably larger, reflecting better encoding of the sound’s fundamental frequency, a feature of sound closely related to pitch perception.

    E Such improvements in cognitive and sensory processing may help a bilingual person to process information in the environment, and help explain why bilingual adults acquire a third language better than monolingual adults master a second language. This advantage may be rooted in the skill of focussing on information about the new language while reducing interference from the languages they already know.

    F Research also indicates that bilingual experience may help to keep the cognitive mechanisms sharp by recruiting alternate brain networks to compensate for those that become damaged during aging. Older bilinguals enjoy improved memory relative to monolingual people, which can lead to real-world health benefits. In a study of over 200 patients with Alzheimer’s disease, a degenerative brain disease, bilingual patients reported showing initial symptoms of the disease an average of five years later than monolingual patients. In a follow-up study, researchers compared the brains of bilingual and monolingual patients matched on the severity of Alzheimer’s symptoms. Surprisingly, the bilinguals’ brains had more physical signs of disease than their monolingual counterparts, even though their outward behaviour and abilities were the same. If the brain is an engine, bilingualism may help it to go farther on the same amount of fuel.

    G Furthermore, the benefits associated with bilingual experience seem to start very early. In one study, researchers taught seven-month-old babies growing up in monolingual or bilingual homes that when they heard a tinkling sound, a puppet appeared on one side of a screen. Halfway through the study, the puppet began appearing on the opposite side of the screen. In order to get a reward, the infants had to adjust the rule they’d learned; only the bilingual babies were able to successfully learn the new rule. This suggests that for very young children, as well as for older people, navigating a multilingual environment imparts advantages that transfer far beyond language.

    Questions 27-31

    Complete the table below.

    Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage.

    TestFindings
    Observing the (27)………………..of Russina-English bilingual people when asked to select certain objectsbilingual people engage both languages simultaneously a mechanism known as (28)…………………
    A test called the (29)……………….focusing on naming colorsbilingual people are more able to handle tasks involving a skill called (30)………………….
    A test involving switching between taskswhen changing strategies bilingual people have started (31)…………..
    Questions 32-36

    Do the following statements agree with the claims of the writer in reading passage 3?

    • YES                         if the statement agrees with the claims of the writer
    • NO                           if the statement contradicts the claims of the writer
    • NOT GIVEN        if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this
    1. Attitudes towards bilingualism have changed in recent years.
    2. Bilingual people are better than monolingual people at guessing correctly what words are before they are finished.
    3. Bilingual people consistently name images faster than monolingual people.
    4. Bilingual people’s brains process single sounds more efficiently than monolingual people in all situations.
    5. Fewer bilingual people than monolingual people suffer from brain disease in old age.
    Questions 37-40

    Reading passage 3 has seven paragraphs A-G.

    Which paragraph contains the following information?

    1. an example of how bilingual and monolingual people’s brains respond differently to a certain type of non-verbal auditory input
    2. a demonstration of how a bilingual upbringing has benefits even before we learn to speak
    3. a description of the process by which people identify words that they hear
    4. reference to some negative consequences of being bilingual
    Cambridge IELTS 12 Academic Reading Test 2 The Risks Agriculture Faces In Developing Countries Answers
    1. A
    2. B
    3. H
    4. D
    5. B
    6. C
    7. G
    8. B
    9. A
    10. D
    11. E
    12. C
    13. D
    Cambridge IELTS 12 Academic Reading Test 2 The Lost City Answers
    1. iv
    2. vi
    3. viii
    4. v
    5. i
    6. vii
    7. iii
    8. true
    9. false
    10. false
    11. not given
    12. rubber
    13. farmer
    Cambridge IELTS 12 Academic Reading Test 2 The Benefits Of Being Bilingual Answers
    1. eye movements
    2. language coactivation
    3. stroop task
    4. conflict management
    5. cognitive control
    6. yes
    7. not given
    8. no
    9. no
    10. not given
    11. D
    12. G
    13. B
    14. C



  • Cambridge IELTS 13 Academic Reading Test 3

    Reading Passage 1

    The Coconut Palm

    For millennia, the coconut has been central to the lives of Polynesian and Asian peoples. In the western world, on the other hand, coconuts have always been exotic and unusual, sometimes rare. The Italian merchant traveller Marco Polo apparently saw coconuts in South Asia in the late 13th century, and among the mid-14th-century travel writings of Sir John Mandeville there is mention of ‘great Notes of Ynde’ (great Nuts of India). Today, images of palm-fringed tropical beaches are cliches in the west to sell holidays, chocolate bars fizzy drinks and even romance.

    Typically, we envisage coconuts as brown cannonballs that, when opened, provide sweet white flesh. But we see only part of the fruit and none of the plant from which they come. The coconut palm has a smooth, slender, grey trunk, up to 30 metres tall. This is an important source of timber for building houses, and is increasingly being used as a replacement for endangered hardwoods in the furniture construction industry. The trunk is surmounted by a rosette of leaves, each of which may be up to six metres long. The leaves have hard veins in their centres which, in many parts of the world, are used as brushes after the green part of the leaf has been stripped away. Immature coconut flowers are tightly clustered together among the leaves at the top of the trunk. The flower stems may be tapped for their sap to produce a drink, and the sap can also be reduced by boiling to produce a type of sugar used for cooking.

    Coconut palms produce as many as seventy fruits per year, weighing more than a kilogram each. The wall of the fruit has three layers: a waterproof outer layer, a fibrous middle layer and a hard, inner layer. The thick fibrous middle layer produces coconut fibre, ‘coir’, which has numerous uses and is particularly important in manufacturing ropes. The woody innermost layer, the shell, with its three prominent ‘eyes’, surrounds the seed. An important product obtained from the shell is charcoal, which is widely used in various industries as well as in the home as a cooking fuel. When broken in half, the shells are also used as bowls in many parts of Asia.

    Inside the shell are the nutrients (endosperm) needed by the developing seed. Initially, the endosperm is a sweetish liquid, coconut water, which is enjoyed as a drink, but also provides the hormones which encourage other plants to grow more rapidly and produce higher yields. As the fruit matures, the coconut water gradually solidifies to form the brilliant white, fat-rich, edible flesh or meat. Dried coconut flesh, ‘copra’, is made into coconut oil and coconut milk, which are widely used in cooking in different parts of the world, as well as in cosmetics. A derivative of coconut fat, glycerine, acquired strategic importance in a quite different sphere, as Alfred Nobel introduced the world to his nitroglycerine-based invention: dynamite.

    Their biology would appear to make coconuts the great maritime voyagers and coastal colonizers of the plant world. The large, energy-rich fruits are able to float in water and tolerate salt, but cannot remain viable indefinitely; studies suggest after about 110 days at sea they are no longer able to germinate. Literally cast onto desert island shores, with little more than sand to grow in and exposed to the full glare of the tropical sun, coconut seeds are able to germinate and root. The air pocket in the seed, created as the endosperm solidifies, protects the embryo. In addition, the fibrous fruit wall that helped it to float during the voyage stores moisture that can be taken up by the roots of the coconut seedling as it starts to grow.

    There have been centuries of academic debate over the origins of the coconut. There were no coconut palms in West Africa, the Caribbean or the east coast of the Americas before the voyages of the European explorers Vasco da Gama and Columbus in the late 15th and early 16th centuries. 16th century trade and human migration patterns reveal that Arab traders and European sailors are likely to have moved coconuts from South and Southeast Asia to Africa and then across the Atlantic to the east coast of America. But the origin of coconuts discovered along the west coast of America by 16th century sailors has been the subject of centuries of discussion. Two diametrically opposed origins have been proposed: that they came from Asia, or that they were native to America. Both suggestions have problems. In Asia, there is a large degree of coconut diversity and evidence of millennia of human use – but there are no relatives growing in the wild. In America, there are close coconut relatives, but no evidence that coconuts are indigenous. These problems have led to the intriguing suggestion that coconuts originated on coral islands in the Pacific and were dispersed from there.

    Questions 1-8
    Complete the table below.

    Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the passage.

    The Coconut Palm

    PartDescriptionUses
    Trunkup to 30 meterstimber for houses and the making of (1)…………………..
    Leavesup to 6 meters longto make brushes
    Flowersat the top of the trunkstems provide sap, used as a drink or a source of (2)…………….
    Fruits– outer layer
    – middle layer (coir)
    – inner layer (shell)
    – coconut water
    – coconut flesh

    – used for (3)………………..etc
    – a source of (4)………………(when halved) for (5)………………..
    – a drink and a source of (6)…………………for other plants
    – oil and milk for cooking and (7)………………glycerine (an ingredient in (8)…………………
    Questions 9-13

    Do the following statements agree with the information given in the passage?

    In your answer sheet, Write

    • TRUE                                       if the statement agrees with the information
    • FALSE                                     if the statement contradicts the information
    • NOT GIVEN                          if there is no mention of this
    1. Coconut seeds need shade in order to germinate.
    2. Coconuts were probably transported to Asia from America in the 16th century.
    3. Coconuts found on the west coast of America were a different type from those found on the east coast.
    4. All the coconuts found in Asia are cultivated varieties.
    5. Coconuts are cultivated in different ways in America and the Pacific.

    Reading passage 2

    How Baby Talk Gives Infant Brains A Boost

    A The typical way of talking to a baby – high-pitched, exaggerated and repetitious – is a source of fascination for linguists who hope to understand how ‘baby talk’ impacts on learning. Most babies start developing their hearing while still in the womb, prompting some hopeful parents to play classical music to their pregnant bellies. Some research even suggests that infants are listening to adult speech as early as 10 weeks before being born, gathering the basic building blocks of their family’s native tongue.

    B Early language exposure seems to have benefits to the brain – for instance, studies suggest that babies raised in bilingual homes are better at learning how to mentally prioritize information. So how does the sweet if sometimes absurd sound of infant- directed speech influence a baby’s development? Here are some recent studies that explore the science behind baby talk.

    C Fathers don’t use baby talk as often or in the same ways as mothers – and that’s perfectly OK, according to a new study. Mark Van Dam of Washington State University at Spokane and colleagues equipped parents with recording devices and speech-recognition software to study the way they interacted with their youngsters during a normal day. ‘We found that moms do exactly what you’d expect and what’s been described many times over,’ VanDam explains. ‘But we found that dads aren’t doing the same thing. Dads didn’t raise their pitch or fundamental frequency when they talked to kids.’ Their role may be rooted in what is called the bridge hypothesis, which dates back to 1975. It suggests that fathers use less familial language to provide their children with a bridge to the kind of speech they’ll hear in public. The idea is that a kid gets to practice a certain kind of speech with mom and another kind of speech with dad, so the kid then has a wider repertoire of kinds of speech to practice,’ says VanDam.

    D Scientists from the University of Washington and the University of Connecticut collected thousands of 30-second conversations between parents and their babies, fitting 26 children with audio-recording vests that captured language and sound during a typical eight-hour day. The study found that the more baby talk parents used, the more their youngsters began to babble. And when researchers saw the same babies at age two, they found that frequent baby talk had dramatically boosted vocabulary, regardless of socioeconomic status. Those children who listened to a lot of baby talk were talking more than the babies that listened to more adult talk or standard speech,’ says Nairan Ramirez-Esparza of the University of Connecticut. ‘We also found that it really matters whether you use baby talk in a one-on-one context,’ she adds. The more parents use baby talk one-on-one, the more babies babble, and the more they babble, the more words they produce later in life.’

    E Another study suggests that parents might want to pair their youngsters up so they can babble more with their own kind. Researchers from McGill University and Universite du Quebec a Montreal found that babies seem to like listening to each other rather than to adults – which may be why baby talk is such a universal tool among parents. They played repeating vowel sounds made by a special synthesizing device that mimicked sounds made by either an adult woman or another baby. This way, only the impact of the auditory cues was observed. The team then measured how long each type of sound held the infants’ attention. They found that the ‘infant’ sounds held babies’ attention nearly 40 percent longer. The baby noises also induced more reactions in the listening infants, like smiling or lip moving, which approximates sound making. The team theorizes that this attraction to other infant sounds could help launch the learning process that leads to speech. It may be some property of the sound that is just drawing their attention,’ says study co-author Linda Polka. ‘Or maybe they are really interested in that particular type of sound because they are starting to focus on their own ability to make sounds. We are speculating here but it might catch their attention because they recognize it as a sound they could possibly make.’

    F In a study published in Proceedings of the National Academy of Sciences, a total of 57 babies from two slightly different age groups – seven months and eleven and a half months – were played a number of syllables from both their native language (English) and a non-native tongue (Spanish). The infants were placed in a brain- activation scanner that recorded activity in a brain region known to guide the motor movements that produce speech. The results suggest that listening to baby talk prompts infant brains to start practicing their language skills. Finding activation in motor areas of the brain when infants are simply listening is significant, because it means the baby brain is engaged in trying to talk back right from the start, and suggests that seven-month-olds’ brains are already trying to figure out how to make the right movements that will produce words,’ says co-author Patricia Kuhl. Another interesting finding was that while the seven-month-olds responded to all speech sounds regardless of language, the brains of the older infants worked harder at the motor activations of non-native sounds compared to native sounds. The study may have also uncovered a process by which babies recognize differences between their native language and other tongues.

    Questions 14-17

    Look at the following ideas (Questions 14-17) and the list of researchers below.

    Match each idea with the correct researcher, A, B or C.

    NB You may use any letter more than once.

    1. the importance of adults giving babies individual attention when talking to them
    2. the connection between what babies hear and their own efforts to create speech
    3. the advantage for the baby of having two parents each speaking in a different way
    4. the connection between the amount of baby talk babies hear and how much vocalising they do themselves

    List of researchers

    1. Mark VanDam
    2. Nairan Ramirez-Esparza
    3. Patricia Kuhl
    Questions 18-23

    Complete the summary below.

    Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer.

    Research into how parents talk to babies

    Researchers at Washington State University used (18)……………………………., together with specialised computer programs, to analyse how parents interacted with their babies during a normal day. The study revealed that (19)………………………..tended not to modify their ordinary speech patterns when interacting with their babies. According to an idea known as the (20)……………………………, they may use a more adult type of speech to prepare infants for the language they will hear outside the family home. According to the researchers, hearing baby talk from one parent and ‘normal’ language from the other expands the baby’s (21)………………………..of types of speech which they can practise.

    Meanwhile, another study carried out by scientists from the University of Washington and the University of Connecticut recorded speech and sound using special (22)…………………………that the babies were equipped with. When they studied the babies again at age two, they found that those who had heard a lot of baby talk in infancy had a much larger (23)………………………..than those who had not.

    Questions 24-26

    Reading Passage 2 has six paragraphs, A-F.

    Which paragraph contains the following information?

    1. a reference to a change which occurs in babies’ brain activity before the end of their first year
    2. an example of what some parents do for their baby’s benefit before birth
    3. a mention of babies’ preference for the sounds that other babies make

    Reading passage 3

    Whatever Happened To The Harappan Civilisation?

    A The Harappan Civilisation of ancient Pakistan and India flourished 5,000 years ago, but a thousand years later their cities were abandoned. The Harappan Civilisation was a sophisticated Bronze Age society who built ‘megacities’ and traded internationally in luxury craft products, and yet seemed to have left almost no depictions of themselves. But their lack of self-imagery – at a time when the Egyptians were carving and painting representations of themselves all over their temples – is only part of the mystery.

    B ‘There is plenty of archaeological evidence to tell us about the rise of the Harappan Civilisation, but relatively little about its fall,’ explains archaeologist Dr Cameron Petrie of the University of Cambridge. ‘As populations increased, cities were built that had great baths, craft workshops, palaces and halls laid out in distinct sectors. Houses were arranged in blocks, with wide main streets and narrow alleyways, and many had their own wells and drainage systems. It was very much a “thriving civilisation.’ Then around 2100 BC, a transformation began. Streets went uncleaned, buildings started to be abandoned, and ritual structures fell out of use. After their final demise, a millennium passed before really large-scale cities appeared once more in South Asia.

    C Some have claimed that major glacier-fed rivers changed their course, dramatically affecting the water supply and agriculture; or that the cities could not cope with an increasing population, they exhausted their resource base, the trading economy broke down or they succumbed to invasion and conflict; and yet others that climate change caused an environmental change that affected food and water provision. ‘It is unlikely that there was a single cause for the decline of the civilisation. But the fact is, until now, we have had little solid evidence from the area for most of the key elements,’ said Petrie. ‘A lot of the archaeological debate has really only been well- argued speculation.’

    D A research team led by Petrie, together with Dr Ravindanath Singh of Banaras Hindu University in India, found early in their investigations that many of the archaeological sites were not where they were supposed to be, completely altering understanding of the way that this region was inhabited in the past. When they carried out a survey of how the larger area was settled in relation to sources of water, they found inaccuracies in the published geographic locations of ancient settlements ranging from several hundred metres to many kilometres. They realised that any attempts to use the existing data were likely to be fundamentally flawed. Over the course of several seasons of fieldwork they carried out new surveys, finding an astonishing 198 settlement sites that were previously unknown.

    E Now, research published by Dr Yama Dixit and Professor David Hodell, both from Cambridge’s Department of Earth Sciences, has provided the first definitive evidence for climate change affecting the plains of north-western India, where hundreds of Harappan sites are known to have been situated. The researchers gathered shells of Melanoides tuberculata snails from the sediments of an ancient lake and used geochemical analysis as a means of tracing the climate history of the region. ’As today, the major source of water into the lake is likely to have been the summer monsoon,’ says Dixit. ‘But we have observed that there was an abrupt change about 4,100 years ago, when the amount of evaporation from the lake exceeded the rainfall – indicative of a drought.’ Hodell adds: ‘We estimate that the weakening of the Indian summer monsoon climate lasted about 200 years before recovering to the previous conditions, which we still see today.’

    F It has long been thought that other great Bronze Age civilisations also declined at a similar time, with a global-scale climate event being seen as the cause. While it is possible that these local-scale processes were linked, the real archaeological interest lies in understanding the impact of these larger-scale events on different environments and different populations. ‘Considering the vast area of the Harappan Civilisation with its variable weather systems,’ explains Singh, ‘it is essential that we obtain more climate data from areas close to the two great cities at Mohenjodaro and Harappa and also from the Indian Punjab.’

    G Petrie and Singh’s team is now examining archaeological records and trying to understand details of how people led their lives in the region five millennia ago. They are analysing grains cultivated at the time, and trying to work out whether they were grown under extreme conditions of water stress, and whether they were adjusting the combinations of crops they were growing for different weather systems. They are also looking at whether the types of pottery used, and other aspects of their material culture, were distinctive to specific regions or were more similar across larger areas. This gives us insight into the types of interactive networks that the population was involved in, and whether those changed.

    H Petrie believes that archaeologists are in a unique position to investigate how past societies responded to environmental and climatic change. ’By investigating responses to environmental pressures and threats, we can learn from the past to engage with the public, and the relevant governmental and administrative bodies, to be more proactive in issues such as the management and administration of water supply, the balance of urban and rural development, and the importance of preserving cultural heritage in the future.’

    Questions 27-31

    Reading Passage 3 has eight paragraphs, A-H.

    Which paragraph contains the following information?

    NB You may use any letter more than once.

    1. proposed explanations for the decline of the Harappan Civilisation
    2. reference to a present-day application of some archaeological research findings
    3. a difference between the Harappan Civilisation and another culture of the same period
    4. a description of some features of Harappan urban design
    5. reference to the discovery of errors made by previous archaeologists

    Questions 32-36

    Complete the summary below.

    Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the passage for answer.

    Looking at evidence of climate change

    Yama Dixit and David Hodell have found the first definitive evidence of climate change affecting the plains of north-western India thousands of years ago. By collecting the (32)……………………………of snails and analysing them, they discovered evidence of a change in water levels in a (33)……………………….in the region. This occurred when there was less (34)…………………………… than evaporation, and suggests that there was an extended period of drought.

    Petrie and Singh’s team are using archaeological records to look at (35)…………………………….. from five millennia ago, in order to know whether people had adapted their agricultural practices to changing climatic conditions. They are also examining objects including (36)……………………………., so as to find out about links between inhabitants of different parts of the region and whether these changed over time.

    Questions 37-40

    Look at the following statements (Questions 37-40) and the list of researchers below.

    Match each statement with the correct researcher, A, B, C or D.

    NB You may use any letter more than once.

    1. Finding further information about changes to environmental conditions in the region is vital.
    2. Examining previous patterns of behaviour may have long-term benefits.
    3. Rough calculations indicate the approximate length of a period of water shortage.
    4. Information about the decline of the Harappan Civilisation has been lacking.

    List of researchers 

    1. Cameron Petrie
    2. Ravindanath Singh
    3. Yama Dixit
    4. David Hodell
    Cambridge IELTS 13 Academic Reading Test 3 The Coconut Palm Answers
    1. furniture
    2. sugar
    3. ropes
    4. charcoal
    5. bowls
    6. hormones
    7. cosmetics
    8. dynamite
    9. false
    10. false
    11. not given
    12. true
    13. not given
    Cambridge IELTS 13 Academic Reading Test 3 How Baby Talk Gives Infant Brains A Boost Answers
    1. B
    2. C
    3. A
    4. B
    5. recording devices
    6. dads
    7. bridge hypothesis
    8. repertoire
    9. vests
    10. vocabulary
    11. F
    12. A
    13. E
    Cambridge IELTS 13 Academic Reading Test 3 Whatever Happened To The Harappan Civilisation? Answers
    1. C
    2. H
    3. A
    4. B
    5. D
    6. shells
    7. lake
    8. rainfall
    9. grains
    10. pottery
    11. B
    12. A
    13. D
    14. A



  • Cambridge IELTS 13 Academic Reading Test 1

    Reading passage 1

    Case Study: Tourism New Zealand Website

    New Zealand is a small country of four million inhabitants, a long-haul flight from all the major tourist-generating markets of the world. Tourism currently makes up 9% of the country’s gross domestic product, and is the country’s largest export sector. Unlike other export sectors, which make products and then sell them overseas, tourism brings its customers to New Zealand. The product is the country itself – the people, the places and the experiences. In 1999, Tourism New Zealand launched a campaign to communicate a new brand position to the world. The campaign focused on New Zealand’s scenic beauty, exhilarating outdoor activities and authentic Maori culture, and it made New Zealand one of the strongest national brands in the world.

    A key feature of the campaign was the website www.newzealand.com, which provided potential visitors to New Zealand with a single gateway to everything the destination had to offer. The heart of the website was a database of tourism services operators, both those based in New Zealand and those based abroad which offered tourism services to the country. Any tourism-related business could be listed by filling in a simple form. This meant that even the smallest bed and breakfast address or specialist activity provider could gain a web presence with access to an audience of long-haul visitors. In addition, because participating businesses were able to update the details they gave on a regular basis, the information provided remained accurate. And to maintain and improve standards, Tourism New Zealand organised a scheme whereby organisations appearing on the website underwent an independent evaluation against a set of agreed national standards of quality. As part of this, the effect of each business on the environment was considered.

    To communicate the New Zealand experience, the site also carried features relating to famous people and places. One of the most popular was an interview with former New Zealand All Blacks rugby captain Tana Umaga. Another feature that attracted a lot of attention was an interactive journey through a number of the locations chosen for blockbuster films which had made use of New Zealand’s stunning scenery as a backdrop. As the site developed, additional features were added to help independent travellers devise their own customised itineraries. To make it easier to plan motoring holidays, the site catalogued the most popular driving routes in the country, highlighting different routes according to the season and indicating distances and times.

    Later a Travel Planner feature was added, which allowed visitors to click and ‘bookmark’ : paces or attractions they were interested in, and then view the results on a map. The Travel Planner offered suggested routes and public transport options between the chosen locations. There were also links to accommodation in the area. By registering with the website, users could save their Travel Plan and return to it later, or print it out take on the visit. The website also had a ‘Your Words’ section where anyone could submit a blog of their New Zealand travels for possible inclusion on the website.

    The Tourism New Zealand website won two Webby awards for online achievement and innovation. More importantly perhaps, the growth of tourism to New Zealand was impressive. Overall tourism expenditure increased by an average of 6.9% per year between 1999 and 2004. From Britain, visits to New Zealand grew at an average annual rate of 13% between 2002 and 2006, compared to a rate of 4% overall for British visits abroad.

    The website was set up to allow both individuals and travel organisations to create itineraries and travel packages to suit their own needs and interests. On the website, visitors can search for activities not solely by geographical location, but also by the particular nature of the activity. This is important as research shows that activities are the key driver of visitor satisfaction, contributing 74% to visitor satisfaction, while transport and accommodation account for the remaining 26%. The more activities that visitors undertake, the more satisfied they will be. It has also been found that visitors enjoy cultural activities most when they are interactive, such as visiting a marae (meeting ground) to learn about traditional Maori life. Many long-haul travellers enjoy such earning experiences, which provide them with stories to take home to their friends and family. In addition, it appears that visitors to New Zealand don’t want to be ‘one of the crowd’ and find activities that involve only a few people more special and meaningful.

    It could be argued that New Zealand is not a typical destination. New Zealand is a small country with a visitor economy composed mainly of small businesses. It is generally perceived as a safe English-speaking country with a reliable transport infrastructure. Because of the long-haul flight, most visitors stay for longer (average 20 days) and want to see as much of the country as possible on what is often seen as a once-in-a-lifetime visit. However, the underlying lessons apply anywhere-the effectiveness of a strong brand, a strategy based on unique experiences and a comprehensive and user-friendly website.

    Questions 1-7

    Complete the table below.

    Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the passage for each answer.

    Write your answers in boxes 1-7 on your answer sheet.

    Section of websiteComments
    Database of tourism– easy for tourism-related businesses to get on the list
    – allowed businesses to (1)………………………information regularly
    – provided a country-wide evaluation of businesses including their impact on the (2)……………..
    Special features on local topics– e.g. an interview with a former a sports (3)………………..and an interactive tour of various locations used in (4)………………….
    Information on driving routes– varied depending on the (5)……………….
    Travel planner– included a map showing selected places, details of public transport and local (6)……………..
    Your Words– travellers could send a link to their (7)………………….
    Questions 8-13

    Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 1?

    In boxes 8-13 on your answer sheet, write

    • TRUE                              if the statement agrees with the information
    • FALSE                            if the statement contradicts the information
    • NOT GIVEN                if there is no information on this
    1. The website www.newzealand.com aimed to provide ready-made itineraries and packages for travel companies and individual tourists.
    2. It was found that most visitors started searching on the website by geographical location.
    3. According to research, 26% of visitor satisfaction is related to their accommodation.
    4. Visitors to New Zealand like to become involved in the local culture.
    5. Visitors like staying in small hotels in New Zealand rather than in larger ones.
    6. Many visitors feel it is unlikely that they will return to New Zealand after their visit.

    Reading passage 2

    Why Being Bored Is Stimulating – And Useful Too

    A We all know how it feels – it’s impossible to keep your mind on anything, time stretches out, and all the things you could do seem equally unlikely to make you feel better. But defining boredom so that it can be studied in the lab has proved difficult. For a start, it can include a lot of other mental states, such as frustration, apathy, depression and indifference. There isn’t even agreement over whether Boredom is always a low-energy, flat kind of emotion or whether feeling agitated and restless counts as boredom, too. In his book, Boredom: A Lively History, Peter Toohey at the University of Calgary, Canada, compares it to disgust – an emotion that motivates us to stay away from certain situations. ‘If disgust protects humans from infection, boredom may protect them from “infectious” social situations,’ he suggests.

    B By asking people about their experiences of boredom, Thomas Goetz and his team at the University of Konstanz in Germany have recently identified five distinct types: indifferent, calibrating, searching, reactant and apathetic. These can be plotted on two axes – one running left to right, which measures low to high arousal, and the other from top to bottom, which measures how positive or negative the feeling is. Intriguingly, Goetz has found that while people experience all kinds of boredom, they tend to specialise in one. Of the five types, the most damaging is ‘reactant’ boredom with its explosive combination of high arousal and negative emotion. The most useful is what Goetz calls ‘indifferent’ boredom: someone isn’t engaged in anything satisfying but still feels relaxed and calm. However, it remains to be seen whether there are any character traits that predict the kind of boredom each of us might be prone to.

    C Psychologist Sandi Mann at the University of Central Lancashire, UK, goes further. All emotions are there for a reason, including boredom,’ she says Mann has found that being bored makes us more creative. ‘We’re all afraid of being bored but in actual fact it can lead to all kinds of amazing things,’ she says. In experiments published last year, Mann found that people who had been made to feel bored by copying numbers out of the phone book for 15 minutes came up with more creative ideas about how to use a polystyrene cup than a control group. Mann concluded that a passive, boring activity is best for creativity because it allows the mind to wander. In fact, she goes so far as to suggest that we should seek out more boredom in our lives.

    D Psychologist John Eastwood at York University in Toronto, Canada isn’t convinced. ‘If you are in a state of mind-wandering you are not bored,’ he says. ‘In my view, by definition boredom is an undesirable state.’ That doesn’t necessarily mean that it isn’t adaptive, he adds. ‘Pain is adaptive – if we didn’t have physical pain, bad things would happen to us. Does that mean that we should actively cause pain? No. But even if boredom has evolved to help us survive, it can still be toxic if allowed to fester.’ For Eastwood, the central feature of boredom is a failure to put our ‘attention system’ into gear. This causes an inability to focus on anything, which makes time seem to go painfully slowly. What’s more, your efforts to improve the situation can end up making you feel worse. ‘People try to connect with the world and if they are not successful there’s that frustration and irritability,’ he says. Perhaps most worryingly, says Eastwood, repeatedly failing to engage attention can lead to a state where we don’t know what to do any more, and no longer care.

    E Eastwood’s team is now trying to explore why the attention system fails. It’s early days but they think that at least some of it comes down to personality. Boredom proneness has been linked with a variety of traits. People who are motivated by pleasure seem to suffer particularly badly. Other personality traits, such as curiosity, are associated with a high boredom threshold. More evidence that boredom has detrimental effects comes from studies of people who are more or less prone to boredom. It seems those who bore easily face poorer prospects in education, their career and even life in general. But of course, boredom itself cannot kill -it’s the things we do to deal with it that may put us in danger. What can we do to alleviate it before it comes to that? Goetz’s group has one suggestion. Working with teenagers, they found that those who ‘approach’ a boring situation – in other words, see that it’s boring and get stuck in anyway – report less boredom than those who try to avoid it by using snacks, TV or social media for distraction.

    F Psychologist Francoise Wemelsfelder speculates that our over-connected lifestyles might even be a new source of boredom. ‘In modern human society there is a lot of overstimulation but still a lot of problems finding meaning,’ she says. So instead of seeking yet more mental stimulation, perhaps we should leave our phones alone, and use boredom to motivate us to engage with the world in a more meaningful way.

    Questions 14-19

    Reading Passage 2 has six paragraphs, A-F.

    Choose the correct heading for each paragraph from the list of headings below.

    Write the correct number, i-viii, in boxes 14-19 on your answer sheet.

    List of Headings

    1. The productive outcomes that may result from boredom
    2. What teachers can do to prevent boredom
    3. A new explanation and a new cure for boredom
    4. Problems with a scientific approach to boredom
    5. A potential danger arising from boredom
    6. Creating a system of classification for feelings of boredom
    7. Age groups most affected by boredom
    8. Identifying those most affected by boredom
    1. Paragraph A
    2. Paragraph B
    3. Paragraph C
    4. Paragraph D
    5. Paragraph E
    6. Paragraph F
    Questions 20-23

    Look at the following people (Questions 20-23) and the list of ideas below.

    Match each person with the correct idea, A-E.

    Choose the correct letter, A-E, in boxes 20-23 on your answer sheet.

    1. Peter Toohey
    2. Thomas Goetz
    3. John Eastwood
    4. Francoise Wemelsfelder

    List of Ideas

    1. The way we live today may encourage boredom.
    2. One sort of boredom is worse than all the others.
    3. Levels of boredom may fall in the future.
    4. Trying to cope with boredom can increase its negative effects.
    5. Boredom may encourage us to avoid an unpleasant experience.
    Questions 24-26

    Complete the summary below.

    Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the passage for each answer.

    Write your answers in boxes 24-26 on your answer sheet.

    Responses to boredom

    For John Eastwood, the central feature of boredom is that people cannot (24)………………………………, due to a failure in what he calls the ‘attention system’, and as a result they become frustrated and irritable. His team suggests that those for whom (25) …………………………………….is an important aim in life may have problems in coping with boredom, whereas those who have the characteristic of (26)………….. generally cope with it.

    Reading passage 3

    Artificial Artists

    The Painting Fool is one of a growing number of computer programs which, so their makers claim, possess creative talents. Classical music by an artificial composer has had audiences enraptured, and even tricked them into believing a human was behind the score. Artworks painted by a robot have sold for thousands of dollars and been hung in prestigious galleries. And software has been built which creates art that could not have been imagined by the programmer.

    Human beings are the only species to perform sophisticated creative acts regularly. If we can break this process down into computer code, where does that leave human creativity? This is a question at the very core of humanity,’ says Geraint Wiggins, a computational creativity researcher at Goldsmiths, University of London. ‘It scares a lot of people. They are worried that it is taking something special away from what it means to be human.’

    To some extent, we are all familiar with computerised art. The question is: where does the work of the artist stop and the creativity of the computer begin? Consider one of the oldest machine artists, Aaron, a robot that has had paintings exhibited in London’s Tate Modern and the San Francisco Museum of Modern Art. Aaron can pick up a paintbrush and paint on canvas on its own. Impressive perhaps, but it is still little more than a tool to realise the programmer’s own creative ideas.

    Simon Colton, the designer of the Painting Fool, is keen to make sure his creation doesn’t attract the same criticism. Unlike earlier ‘artists’ such as Aaron, the Painting Fool only needs minimal direction and can come up with its own concepts by going online for material. The software runs its own web searches and trawls through social media sites. It is now beginning to display a kind of imagination too, creating pictures from scratch. One of its original works is a series of fuzzy landscapes, depicting trees and sky. While some might say they have a mechanical look, Colton argues that such reactions arise from people’s double standards towards software-produced and human-produced art. After all, he says, consider that the Painting Fool painted the landscapes without referring to a photo. ‘If a child painted a new scene from its head, you’d say it has a certain level of imagination,’ he points out. The same should be true of a machine.’ Software bugs can also lead to unexpected results. Some of the Painting Fool’s paintings of a chair came out in black and white, thanks to a technical glitch. This gives the work an eerie, ghostlike quality. Human artists like the renowned Ellsworth Kelly are lauded for limiting their colour palette – so why should computers be any different?

    Researchers like Colton don’t believe it is right to measure machine creativity directly to that of humans who have had millennia to develop our skills’. Others, though, are fascinated by the prospect that a computer might create something as original and subtle as our best artists So far, only one has come close. Composer David Cope invented a program called Experiments in Musical Intelligence, or EMI, Not only did EMI create compositions in Cope s style, but also that of the most revered classical composers, including Bach, Chopin and Mozart. Audiences were moved to tears, and EMI even fooled classical music experts into thinking they were hearing genuine Bach. Not everyone was impressed however. Some, such as Wiggins, have blasted Cope’s work as pseudoscience, and condemned him for his deliberately vague explanation of how the software worked. Meanwhile. Douglas Hofstadter of Indiana University said EMI created replicas which still rely completely on the original artist’s creative impulses, When audiences found out the truth they were often outraged with Cope, and one music lover even tried to punch him. Amid such controversy, Cope destroyed EMI’s vital databases.

    But why did so many people love the music, yet recoil when they discovered how it was composed? A study by computer scientist David Moffat of Glasgow Caledonian University provides a clue. He asked both expert musicians and non-experts to assess six compositions. The participants weren’t told beforehand whether the tunes were composed by humans or computers, but were asked to guess, and then rate how much they liked each one. People who thought the composer was a computer tended to dislike the piece more than those who believed it was human. This was true even among the experts, who might have been expected to be more objective in their analyses.

    Where does this prejudice come from? Paul Bloom of Yale University has a suggestion: he reckons part of the pleasure we get from art stems from the creative process behind the work. This can give it an ‘irresistible essence’, says Bloom. Meanwhile, experiments by Justin Kruger of New York University have shown that people s enjoyment of an artwork increases if they think more time and effort was needed to create it. Similarly, Colton thinks that when people experience art, they wonder what the artist might have been thinking or what the artist is trying to tell them. It seems obvious, therefore, that with computers producing art, this speculation is cut short – there’s nothing to explore. But as technology becomes increasingly complex, finding those greater depths in computer art could become possible. This is precisely why Colton asks the Painting Fool to tap into online social networks for its inspiration: hopefully this way it will choose themes that will already be meaningful to us.

    Questions 27-31

    Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.

    1. What is the writer suggesting about computer-produced works in the first paragraph?
      1. People’s acceptance of them can vary considerably.
      2. A great deal of progress has already been attained in this field.
      3. They have had more success in some artistic genres than in others.
      4. The advances are not as significant as the public believes them to be.
    2. According to Geraint Wiggins, why are many people worried by computer art?
      1. It is aesthetically inferior to human art.
      2. It may ultimately supersede human art.
      3. It undermines a fundamental human quality.
      4. It will lead to a deterioration in human ability.
    3. What is a key difference between Aaron and the Painting Fool?
      1. its programmer’s background
      2. public response to its work
      3. the source of its subject matter
      4. the technical standard of its output
    4. What point does Simon Colton make in the fourth paragraph?
      1. Software-produced art is often dismissed as childish and simplistic.
      2. The same concepts of creativity should not be applied to all forms of art.
      3. It is unreasonable to expect a machine to be as imaginative as a human being.
      4. People tend to judge computer art and human art according to different criteria.
    5. The writer refers to the paintings of a chair as an example of computer art which
      1. achieves a particularly striking effect.
      2. exhibits a certain level of genuine artistic skill.
      3. closely resembles that of a well-known artist.
      4. highlights the technical limitations of the software.
    Questions 32-37

    Complete each sentence with the correct ending, A-G below.

    Write the correct letter, A-G, in boxes 32-37 on your answer sheet.

    1. Simon Colton says it is important to consider the long-term view when
    2. David Cope’s EMI software surprised people by
    3. Geraint Wiggins criticised Cope for not
    4. Douglas Hofstadter claimed that EMI was
    5. Audiences who had listened to EMI’s music became angry after
    6. The participants in David Moffat’s study had to assess music without

    List of Ideas

    1. generating work that was virtually indistinguishable from that of humans.
    2. knowing whether it was the work of humans or software.
    3. producing work entirely dependent on the imagination of its creator.
    4. comparing the artistic achievements of humans and computers.
    5. revealing the technical details of his program.
    6. persuading the public to appreciate computer art.
    7. discovering that it was the product of a computer program.
    Questions 38-40

    Do the following statements agree with the claims of the writer in Reading Passage 3?

    In boxes 38-40 on your answer sheet, write

    • YES                              if the statement agrees with the claims of the writer
    • NO                                if the statement contradicts the claims of the writer
    • NOT GIVEN            if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this
    1. Moffat’s research may help explain people’s reactions to EMI.
    2. The non-experts in Moffat’s study all responded in a predictable way.
    3. Justin Kruger s findings cast doubt on Paul Bloom’s theory about people’s prejudice towards computer art.
    Cambridge IELTS 13 Academic Reading Test 1 Case Study: Tourism New Zealand Website Reading Answers
    1. update
    2. environment
    3. captain
    4. films
    5. season
    6. accommodation
    7. blog
    8. false
    9. not given
    10. false
    11. true
    12. not given
    13. true
    Cambridge IELTS 13 Academic Reading Test 1 Why Being Bored Is Stimulating – And Useful Too Reading Answers
    1. iv
    2. vi
    3. i
    4. v
    5. viii
    6. iii
    7. E
    8. B
    9. D
    10. A
    11. focus
    12. pleasure
    13. curiosity
    Cambridge IELTS 13 Academic Reading Test 1 Artificial Artists Reading Answers
    1. B
    2. C
    3. C
    4. D
    5. A
    6. D
    7. A
    8. E
    9. C
    10. G
    11. B
    12. yes
    13. not given
    14. no