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Read the text below and answer Questions 1-9.

Music Clubs

A Whitehay Youth Music is intended for anyone aged between 6 and 14 who is keen to perform in public. The club is limited to 30 members at any time, and we operate a waiting list for membership. Two concerts are performed every year, and every member takes part. Members must have reached at least an intermediate standard on their instrument. The group meets in the Jubilee Hall on Wednesday evenings during term time for rehearsals and for workshops in which members learn how to improve their playing.

B Whitehay Music Club brings together music lovers from around the district, for enjoyable evenings of food and music. We meet monthly in members’ homes, and during the evening we have a buffet meal and listen to recordings of both’ well-known and not so well-known music. The music is preceded by a brief talk providing background information about the composers and the music. Every few months we organise a coach trip to a musical event within a radius of 50 km.

C Whitehay Philharmonic is an amateur orchestra, founded in 1954, Two or three times a year, it performs a wide range of music to large and appreciative audiences from the area, in the town’s Jubilee Hall. New members are always welcome, and can take part in rehearsals, although there may not be room for everyone to perform in the concerts. Because the orchestra only partly finances its performances through ticket sales, members with marketing experience are particularly welcome, in order to build sales.

D Whitehay Music Society is primarily a fundraising group that organises a range of money-making activities — from street collections to seeking sponsorship from local businesses. The money raised is used to support professional musicians if, for example, illness prevents them from earning a living. As a member, you will receive a monthly newsletter describing our work, and containing details of concerts, operas and other performances, both locally and nationally. Everybody is welcome to join the society: children are particularly welcome, along with their parents.

Questions 1-8

Look at the four advertisements for music clubs in a town called Whitehay, A-D, on below page .

For which club are the following statements true?

Write the correct letter, A-D, in boxes 1-8 on your answer sheet.

1. It needs members who can find ways of increasing audience numbers.
2. All its members perform in club concerts.
3. It distributes information about musical events to its members.
4. It requires its members to have reached a certain level as performers.
5. One of its aims is to introduce its members to music they may not be familiar with.
6. It helps children to develop their musical skills.
7. Its performances are popular with local people.
8. It helps people who are in financial need.

Read the text below and answer Questions 9-14.

Biological Research Insititute

Welcome to the Biological Research Institute campus. We hope that your visit will be enjoyable and interesting. Please read the information below and comply with the instructions given.

On arrival, you should report to the Reception building by the main entrance gate, where you will be issued with a pass. This must be visible at all times during your visit to the campus.

If you are driving a vehicle, please inform Reception. They will contact Security, who will identify the area where you should park your car. Please ensure that you park it in the designated area. You must keep to the campus speed limit (10 mph) at all times. Cars are parked at the owners risk.
For your own safety, please follow the instructions displayed on noticeboards around the campus, as well as all instructions issued by authorised personnel. Do not enter any restricted areas or touch any machinery or other equipment unless authorised. Visitors must be accompanied by their host at all times whilst on the campus.

Entry into certain areas requires the wearing of special clothing or equipment. This will be provided for you by your host, who will advise you on the appropriate protection for the areas you visit.

Unless your host has previously obtained permission from the Institute management, photography, whether still or video, is not permitted in any part of the campus.

Children under the age of 16 must be accompanied by an adult at all times, and should only be brought on campus if the Institute management has previously agreed to this. No nursery facilities are available for visiting children.

In the event of an accident, call 3333 and request the assistance of site first-aid personnel.

Questions 9-14

Complete the sentences below.

Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the text for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 9-14 on your answer sheet.

9. If you come by car,…………………………………will tell you where to park it.
10. Advice on……………………………………can be seen on noticeboards.
11. You will need to obtain authorisation before touching equipment such as……………………………………….
12. Permission from the management is required if you want to do any kind of………………………………….
13. The Institute does not provide a…………………………………………for children visiting the campus
14. You should phone 3333 if any kind of………………………………….occurs.

SECTION 2 

Read the text below and answer Questions 15-20.

Negotiating A Better Salary Package For Your New Job

If you make it through the recruitment interview, a job offer may be just around the corner and you face having to talk about the nitty-gritty: your financial value.

Although many graduate training schemes have set starting salaries, there are loads of other jobs where you’ll need to exercise your negotiating skills. If you’re offered a job, it’s because the organisation sees you as a valuable asset and you should try to set your level of remuneration accordingly.

There are no general rules about how and when to conduct your negotiation but being sensitive to the culture of the organisation is essential. There are also some practical steps you can take to position yourself sensibly. Familiarise yourself with the company itself, as well as the range of salaries on offer. Doing careful research in this way prior to starting negotiations is very valuable. You can look at the range of packages offered for comparable jobs in adverts on the internet, or ask for advice from people you know professionally or personally. You could also approach a local Training and Enterprise Council. Finally, if you’re a member of a union, they will have information on acceptable salary ranges for your profession.

If the salary offered is less than you’d hoped for, you could negotiate an early pay review instead, say after the first six months. Ensure that the criteria are clearly set out though, and that they’re included in your contract.

Make sure you check out the salary package, not just the number of zeroes on your payslip. You may find that the total package of pay and benefits raises the worth of the salary to an acceptable level. For instance, you may be offered private health cover, a non-contributory pension, a car to use for work purposes and/or significant bonuses. When bonuses are mentioned, you may want to discuss the basis on which they’re paid, so that you’re absolutely clear about the terms and conditions attached. When negotiating, be persuasive and consistent in your arguments but be prepared to agree to a compromise if you really want the job.
If your negotiations are successful, ask for the agreed terms and conditions to be confirmed in writing ASAP.

Questions 15-20
Complete the sentences below.

Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the text for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 15-20 on your answer sheet.

15. When negotiating a salary, potential employees should take advantage of the company’s view of them as a useful…………………………
16. When negotiating a salary it is important to be aware of the company’s particular …………………………………..
17. Some people use the……………………………….to monitor salaries offered for similar positions.
18. People who belong to a………………………………can ask for recommendations on what is the norm for payment in their field.
19. Some people try to arrange for a…………………………………..of their salary to be carried out after an initial period.
20. It is important to be willing to accept a……………………………………if the negotiations are getting nowhere.

Read the text on below pages and answer Questions 21-27.

How To Run A Successful Project

A project manager’s main task is to bring a particular project to completion, both on time and within budget. There are many factors that can cause a project to veer off its tracks, but steps can be taken to ensure that your project experiences as little disruption as possible.

1. Prepare the framework

If you get everything down in writing at the beginning of the project, you have an excellent foundation to build upon. Change is inevitable, but you have to maintain control. This is critical to avoid problems of ‘scope creep’, which is when the company paying for the project asks for ‘just one more little thing’ repeatedly, until the project becomes unmanageable.

2. Select the team

Gather your human resources, and make sure that their skills align with their roles. This is an important first step: if you assign the wrong person to a task, you are reducing your chances of success.

Make sure each team member is clear on what is expected from them and when. Encourage them to ask questions to clarify anything that may be uncertain, and to always come to you whenever something seems to be out of place or going wrong. Clear communication is critical.

Make sure the whole team and the client company grasp the project’s limitations in terms of its achievable outcomes. You can finish a task successfully and on time as long as expectations are reasonable.

3. Staying on track

How can you know if your project is going to be successful if you don’t have any way of measuring success? You will need interim milestones, especially for a long-term project, so that you can determine if you are staying on track or straying from the project’s goals.

4. Manage project risks

Hopefully you have defined the more likely risks up front during the project preparation, so you should now put contingency plans in place for certain occurrences. If you can see when a risk is imminent, you can take preventive action to avoid it, but be ready to halt a project if the risk becomes unacceptable.

5. Evaluate the project
Once a project has been completed, it’s important to write a report, even if it is only for internal purposes. You can pinpoint what went right or wrong, determine what could have been done differently, and establish the best practices for use in future undertakings.

Questions 21-27

Complete the flow-chart below.

Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the text for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 21-27 on your answer sheet.

How to run a successful project
Bear in mind that your aim should be to keep to both the agreed deadline and the (21)………………….for the project
Fix the details at the start to prevent what is called (22)…………………- the client asking for more and more
Choose the team members wisely so that their (23)…………………..match the duties you want them to take on
Promote good (24)…………………….at all times so everyone knows what you require of them
Make sure (25)……………………are set so you can check whether the project is running to schedule
Prepare (26)……………………which can be activated if things go wrong on the project
Once the project is over produce a (27)………………….outlining its strengths and weaknesses for future reference

SECTION 3 

Read the text on below page and answer Questions 28-40.

Mass Appeal Of The Mantra Rays

A I am underwater, face to face with a large flat fish which I recognise immediately as being a manta ray. For an instant I look straight into its gaping mouth and see the row of small, flattened teeth in its lower jaw. Close on its tail comes another manta ray, and another and another. The manta rays are unaffected by my being there, cruising past in a leisurely fashion without seeming to expend any great effort.

B From above, the manta rays are great black silhouettes that fishermen called ‘devil fish’, because of the curious horn-like fins hanging down near their mouths. But looking into their eyes you get a sense of their peaceful nature. Unlike stingrays, mantas don’t have venomous spines in their tails, and unlike many fish species they seem to enjoy human company. Once, over-enthusiastically, I swim towards a manta. I am just a few inches away when it senses me. To my surprise, the whole fish twitches in alarm and shoots off, perhaps fearing that I will touch it. I feel ashamed to have given it a fright.

C I have come to Hanifaru, a small lagoon next to an uninhabited island in the Maldives, especially to see manta rays. These great harmless creatures congregate here during the south-west monsoons between May and November and, if the tides and winds are right, enter a shallow cul-de-sac in the reef to hunt for plankton, their main source of nutrition. On certain days the bay can attract more than 100 mantas. I have seen many manta rays on dives around the world, though not in these numbers.

D Guy Stevens is my guide, a British marine biologist who has been studying the mantas for the past five years. Based at the nearby Four Seasons resort, he has identified more than 2,000 individual manta rays, photographing and cataloguing them according to their distinctive skin patterns. Each day we make the 40-minute boat journey from the resort to Hanifaru. Feeding events, as Guy calls them, are never guaranteed, but, during the season, hotel guests can sign up for ‘manta alerts’. If Guy and his research assistants spot significant manta activity, the guests will be brought by fast speedboat to the lagoon to snorkel. When feeding, the mantas of Hanifaru tend to stay near the surface, making them accessible to snorkellers just as much as divers. They seem not to mind the human competition in this quite small space, and indeed they are often joined by other rays and even giant whale sharks, which feed on the same plankton.

E Word among the diving community about the possibility of finding a mass of manta rays at Hanifaru has slowly been spreading over the past year. Outside the shallow lagoon I can see five large safari boats – live-aboard cruisers that take divers around the best underwater sites in the Maldives. It is something that Guy has been monitoring closely. ‘Word is out that Hanifaru is a top manta spot,’ he explains, ‘and although the government has declared the bay a “protected area”, we still don’t have any regulations in force to limit the number of people in the water at any one time.’

F During my stay, the resort received a visit from the then-president of the Maldives, Mohamed Nasheed. Since coming to power in 2008, he had made his interest in the marine environment and concerns about climate change well known. In 2009 he held an underwater cabinet meeting, urging other world leaders to act decisively to combat climate change. The protection of wildlife areas such as Hanifaru was clearly one of his objectives, and I asked him why he took such an interest. ‘Maldivians have lived with the reefs and their fish life since long before there were tourists,’ he said. ‘And while tourist dollars are good for our country, the sea and its produce are even more vital to my people. I have to balance what tourists want to see with preserving the marine environment – and in some cases, like Hanifaru, those objectives coincide.’

G On several dives I am lucky enough to get close to the mantas, sometimes at underwater ‘cleaning stations’. Here, the mantas come in small numbers, or individually, to pause above a coral outcrop and wait while small fish pick at their skin, removing parasites. Adapted for fast swimming with their flattened bodies, they can accelerate rapidly with a twitch of their wings. They gaze at human swimmers with a kind of knowing calm, something people often remark on when they try to capture the emotion they experience after seeing them. The manta rays have the biggest brain of any fish,’ Guy explains, ‘and some manta researchers are convinced that mantas can recognise individual people underwater.’

H I return to the lagoon over the course of several days and learn more from Guy about his hopes for the future. ‘People can visit this place, but I want to be sure that they don’t harass the mantas by touching them or crowding them out while they’re feeding. We’re working to get a full-time ranger station and some kind of permit system to limit the number of boats that can enter the lagoon each day.’

Questions 28-30

The text on below page has 8 paragraphs, A-H.

Which paragraph mentions the following?

Write the correct letter, A-H, in boxes 28-30 on your answer sheet.

28. a record that is being kept of manta rays in the area
29. something that the writer regrets
30. the reason for the writer’s visit

Questions 31-36

Do the following statements agree with the information given in the text?

In boxes 31-36 on your answer sheet, write

• TRUE                            if the statement agrees with the information
• FALSE                          if the statement contradicts the information
• NOT GIVEN               if there is no information on this

31. It is difficult to distinguish one manta ray from another.
32. For hotel guests, viewing manta rays feeding has to be arranged at short notice.
33. The manta rays appear to object to the presence of people in the water while they are feeding.
34. Guy Stevens is concerned about the increasing interest in Hanifaru.
35. Mohamed Nasheed succeeded in persuading certain other countries to take steps to protect the environment.
36. A procedure has now been established to control the number of visitors.

Questions 37-40

Complete the summary below.

Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the text for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 37-40 on your answer sheet.

The manta ray

During certain times of year, depending on the weather conditions and the tides, manta rays collect to look for (37)………………………to feed on. They eat the same food as other species, such as giant whale sharks. As for keeping clean, they are kept free from (38)………………………by smaller fish.

Manta rays have certain characteristics which make them good swimmers; they use their (39)……………………to get up speed and they have flattened bodies, which help them to move quickly through the water. The nature of the manta’s (40)………………………is of particular interest to scientists.

Cambridge IELTS 12 General Reading Test 4 section 1 Music Clubs answers

1. C
2. A
3. D
4. A
5. B
6. A
7. C
8. D

Cambridge IELTS 12 General Reading Test 4 section 1 Biological Research Insititute answers

9. Security
10. Safety
11. Machinery
12. Photography
13. Nursery
14. Accident

Cambridge IELTS 12 General Reading Test 4 section 2 Negotiating A Better Salary Package For Your New Job answers

15. Asset
16. Culture
17. Internet
18. Union
19. Review
20. Compromise

Cambridge IELTS 12 General Reading Test 4 section 2 How To Run A Successful Project answers

21. Budget
22. Scope creep
23. Skills
24. (clear) communication
25. (interim) milestones
26. (contingency) plans
27. Report

Cambridge IELTS 12 General Reading Test 4 section 3 Mass Appeal Of The Mantra Rays answers

28. D
29. B
30. C
31. False
32. NOT GIVEN
33. False
34. True
35. Not given
36. False
37. Plankton
38. Parasites
39. Wings
40. Brain

Section 1

Read the text below and answer questions 1-8.

The Guardian Newspaper’s Travel

The photo competition is back, giving you another chance to win an incredible trip to Swedish Lapland.

Do you have a camera and love travelling? If so, our annual photography competition run by the Travel section of The Guardian is for you. It’s an opportunity for you to capture the essence of the journeys you make, whether far afield or close to home, and for us to showcase your work online. The winner of each month’s competition will also see their shot mounted and displayed in the end-of-year exhibition for the public at The Guardian’s offices in London. Once the exhibition is finished, each monthly winner will receive a framed copy of their shot to place with pride on their own wall.

There will be a different theme for each month. Members of The Guardian travel writing team, and photographer Michael Ryan of Fotovue.com will judge the monthly entries and the overall winner.

To enter you must be living in the UK from the time you submit your entry into the competition to the time you are selected as a winner. The competition is open to all photographers (both amateur and professional).

The overall winner (chosen from the 12 monthly winners) will go on an amazing four- night trip to Swedish Lapland. The host for this specialist holiday is Fredrik Broman, who has been a nature photographer for 21 years. Fredrik will assist the winner and other participants in photographing a wide variety of winter subjects. Each day has a specific focus. The trip includes winter light photography workshops, an image editing workshop, a night photography course, and an action photography workshop.

Included in the prize: return flights from the UK, four nights’ accommodation with full board, cold weather clothing for the duration of the trip – thermal overalls, winter boots, gloves, hats and woollen socks – fully qualified wilderness guides, and instructors.

The overall winner will be required to write a report of the trip, and take accompanying photographs, which will be printed in the Travel section of The Guardian at a later date. The Guardian reserves the right, however, to modify your report and photos as necessary. Your name will of course appear with the article and photos.

Questions 1-8

Do the following statements agree with the information given in the text?

In boxes 1-8 on your answer sheet, write

• TRUE                       if the statement agrees with the information
• FALSE                     if the statement contradicts the information
• NOT GIVEN         if there is no information on this

1. This is the first year that The Guardian has run a travel photography competition.
2. Any photograph for the competition must have been taken on an overseas trip.3. The end-of-year exhibition in London is free for the public to attend.
3. The judging panel is made up of a group of journalists and a professional photographer.
4. The trip to Swedish Lapland will only be offered to one winner.
5. Every activity on the trip is focused on improving photography techniques.
6. Anyone going on the trip may take some of the cold weather clothing home at the end of the trip.
7. Articles written about the trip may be changed before being published.

Read the text below and answer Questions 9-14.

Running Headphones

Listening to music on headphones makes running and even working out at the gym much more enjoyable. Here are some alternatives to choose from.

A Plantronics Backbeat Fit
These headphones are really tough so you don’t need to worry about just throwing them into your bag before or after a workout. As well as providing reasonably clear sound they will also last a remarkable eight hours on a single charge.

B Sennheiser CX685 Sports
These headphones are impressively practical. Designed to fit firmly in your ear, however energetic you are, they’re tight without being uncomfortable, and have a handy remote and a mic for phone calls. They will also resist some water being spilt on them.

C Nokia WH-510 Coloud Pop
These stylish headphones have fantastic bass, giving you a bit of extra oomph when you run. They also have a tangle-free cable which avoids any time-consuming messing about before you set off on your run.

D Sony NWZ-W273S
It’s hard to imagine using any other headphones once you’ve tried these. As well as being wireless and waterproof at a depth of 2m, they even have a built-in MP3 player that can hold up to 1,000 songs. A charge provides up to an hour of playback.

E Betron B750S
If you’re on a tight budget, it can always feel risky buying a bottom of the market pair of headphones, but with these you needn’t worry. Not only do they provide fair sound quality, they also come with a pouch to keep them in.

F Happy Plugs
The sound quality on these is decent, although you’re probably not going to be hugely impressed. They also come with a handy remote built into the cable to skip and pause songs with while you work out.

G Powerbeats 2
If money is not an issue, then these are definitely worth considering. They make everything sound so crisp and they’re so light and comfortable that it’s easy to forget that you’re even wearing them.

Questions 9-14

Look at the seven reviews of headphones, A-G.

For which headphones are the following statements true?

Write the correct letter, A-G, in boxes 9-14 on your answer sheet.

NB You may use any letter more than once.

9. These headphones would suit someone who doesn’t mind spending a lot to get good quality.
10. The battery on these headphones has a surprisingly long life.
11. It is possible to keep in contact with other people while using these headphones.
12. Although these headphones are cheaper than most, music sounds quite good through them.
13. These headphones are very strong and do not require gentle handling.
14. These headphones allow users to move around their playlist of music easily while they are exercising.

Section 2 – Questions 15-27

Read the text below and answer questions 15-21.

A Case Study Of A Risk Assessment For General Office Cleaning

A commercial cleaning service took on a new contract to clean an office complex. Before sending cleaning staff to the offices, the manager of the cleaning service carried out a risk assessment using guidance provided by the Health and Safety Executive (HSE).

To identify the hazards, the cleaning service manager visited the office complex and walked through the areas where cleaning staff would be working, noting things that might pose potential risks. Following this, he consulted the health and safety representatives of the cleaning service about these risks, taking into account the needs of any particular staff members, such as whether they were pregnant or aged under 18.

In order to gather further information, he then had a meeting with the client company during which a number of issues were discussed. These included the client company’s own standard of housekeeping, such as the immediate clearing up of spills and keeping walkways clear, as well as the action to be taken if a fire broke out. He also established what facilities and equipment would be available to the cleaners, including the amount of storage space available, as well as the availability of sinks and taps, etc. and agreed on a method of reporting near-miss accidents and risks discovered by cleaners (e.g. damaged floor tiles).

Following the meeting, the manager created a risk assessment document. He wrote down who could be harmed by each risk or hazard identified and in what way, and he then described what controls, if any, were in existence to manage these hazards. The manager then compared these to the good practice guidance set out on the HSE’s website and identified any areas where improvement was needed.

The manager discussed the findings with the cleaning staff, making sure they understood the risks of the job and how these risks would be monitored. One cleaner, whose first language was not English, had difficulty understanding this, so the manager arranged for translation to be done by a bilingual cleaner from another team. Finally, to ensure that all the cleaning staff had access to a copy of the risk assessment, the manager pinned a copy in the cupboard where cleaning equipment was kept.

Questions 15-21

Complete the flow-chart below.

Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the text for each answer.

Stages followed by manager in carrying out risk assessment
He visited the offices to be cleaned and noted potential risks
He talked to health and safety (15)……………………about the risks
At a meeting, he talked to the client company about – the policy of the company regarding (16)………………..(e.g. clear walkways) – procedures to be followed in case of a (17)………………….. – facilities available to cleaners (e.g. space available for (18)……………………) – a way of (19)……………….risks and hazards
He created a risk assessment document identifying existing controls of risks and hazards
He compared there to information that the HSE provided on its (20)…………………..
He displayed a copy of the risk assessment inside a (21)………………….available to all cleaning staff

Read the text below and answer Questions 22-27.

Preparing For A Virtual Job Interview

Businesses are always looking for new ways to increase efficiency and profits. For example, organisations often reduce costs by conducting virtual job interviews. The video or Skype interview benefits both interviewer and interviewee, especially when an applicant would otherwise need to travel far. Despite the convenience though, it poses unique challenges.

How a virtual interview is the same
The typical interview process usually entails multiple steps. First, there is screening, lasting about thirty minutes. Its purpose is to ensure candidates have the basic requirements. In the second interview, they’re assessed for their technical skills and on whether they would fit the organisation. Virtual interviews follow the same steps so you’ll need to focus on the same core topics. Identify what the critical topics are based on the job description and prepare to talk about them. If you can, gather inside information so you can impress interviewers with your knowledge.

How a virtual interview is different
Normally, you travel somewhere for an interview. One advantage of that is that you aren’t responsible for the place, whereas in a virtual interview you must ensure you have an appropriate location and appropriate equipment. Modern technology is great when it works, but a pain when it doesn’t. So, it’s wise to check you can operate your webcam, especially if you don’t use it often. Test the headset too and find out how intelligible your voice sounds. It’s also wise to establish what software the interviewer is going to work with and give it a trial run.

Probably the biggest problem in a virtual interview is what the camera can see. You want the interviewer to see you as a professional. Having a messy or cluttered room behind you won’t help you achieve this image – a clear white background is usually a safe bet.

The most important part of your preparation is to run through everything first as best you can. Have a friend conduct a rehearsal with you before the big day. This will help you know how to behave in front of the camera. All things considered, though, virtual interviews should be treated like any other type of interview. Being at home requires as much preparation as a traditional interview. If you follow the steps mentioned above, you have every chance of getting the job you want. Good luck!

Questions 22-27

Complete the sentences below.

Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the text for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 22-27 on your answer sheet.

22. Some companies prefer to interview job applicants digitally because of lower………………..
23. As with the standard recruitment process, virtual recruitment opens with…………..
24. Applicants should read any details about the advertised post carefully and pick out important…………………. which they can discuss if necessary.
25. It is a good idea for applicants to check if they can be clearly understood when they use a……………..
26. Applicants may not be familiar with the…………………….that the person conducting the interview will use, so they should try it out.
27. It is very useful to go through a…………………..of the interview, with someone playing the part of the interviewer.

Section 3 – Questions 28-40

Read the text below and answer Questions 28-40.

Tuning Up Your Leadership Skills

A Ever since management expert Peter Drucker compared the job of Chief Executive Officer to that of an orchestra conductor, the business world has been exploring comparisons and inspirations from the world of music. Now Warwick Business School Professors Deniz Ucbasaran and Andy Lockett are hitting all the right notes with their study of famous jazz musicians, Leading Entrepreneurial Teams: Insights From Jazz, providing some essential insights for entrepreneurial team leaders.

Ucbasaran and Lockett (together with Durham Business School Professor Michael Humphries) chose jazz for a number of reasons. For a start, jazz bands are synonymous with creativity, improvisation and innovation, all essential ingredients for entrepreneurship. Jazz groups and their members often operate in uncertain and dynamic environments, characterised by rapid change. Yet through collective endeavour many jazz bands find their own structure and harmony and become profitable enterprises – both creatively and commercially.

B The authors decided to focus on three of the best known names in jazz – Duke Ellington, Miles Davis and Art Blakey. American composer Duke Ellington was a pioneering jazz orchestra leader from the 1920s through to the 1970s. Trumpet player Miles Davis was instrumental in the development of a number of new jazz styles, including bebop and jazz fusion. Jazz drummer Arthur ‘Art’ Blakey became famous as the leader of his band the Jazz Messengers. The research focused on the way that these jazz greats created and ran their musical enterprises. In particular, Ucbasaran and Lockett focused on three specific areas of leadership activity: team formation, team coordination and team turnover.

There were strong similarities in the processes the band leaders used to assemble their diverse teams of talent. In particular, they looked for musicians with a different sound or way of playing, one that was unique to that band member and would improve the overall sound of the band. That feature was as much bound up with the personality of the individual musician as it was to do with their technical proficiency.

C But disparate teams, many different personalities, and high levels of creativity are a recipe for group conflict. And, sure enough, there was plenty of dysfunctional conflict and disruptive clashes of egos and personalities evident in the jazz ensembles. Traditional team leadership theory suggests that to get the best team performance the leader should foster conflict that is productive in its effects, while minimising destructive conflict. But this is difficult when the sources of productive and destructive conflict are the same; that is, differences in personality and thinking. So how do leaders deal with destructive conflict? It didn’t seem to bother the likes of Ellington, Davis and Blakey. Their attitude was ‘the music comes first’. The moments of musical genius when everything came together excused minor problems such as if individuals occasionally turned up late for practice, or stepped out of a performance for a quick snack.

D Teams must coordinate their behaviour and action to achieve an outcome. The team leader can assume a number of different roles when helping the team achieve its objectives. Some leaders are very directive, detailing what tasks they want team members to perform, and how they want them to go about those tasks. But that was not the approach Ellington, Davis and Blakey adopted. Instead, these leaders acted more as facilitators, empowering the musicians to collectively coordinate their behaviour and action to produce the desired outcome. As Ucbasaran and Lockett note, Miles Davis discouraged band members from rehearsing in case it led to musical cliches from over-practice. Similarly, he often asked his musicians to play a piece in an unusual key, so they did not rely on learned fingering patterns. The performers were not left entirely to their own devices though. All three leaders created a general framework within which team members could work, providing guidance but also the freedom to explore, express and make mistakes.

E The third aspect of leadership behaviour that Ucbasaran and her colleagues looked at was managing team turnover – people joining and leaving the team. In the jazz ensembles studied, musicians joined and left on a regular basis. Yet the high turnover of team members, despite the resulting loss of knowledge and skills, was seen in a positive light. That was partly because of the advantages of getting a fresh shot of knowledge, ideas and creativity when new members joined.

A common reason for the jazz musicians leaving was that they felt sufficiently qualified to go and run another band. The three band leaders were understanding about this, particularly as it was a process they had also been through. In some cases, in particular with Art Blakey, they actively encouraged and coached team members to become leaders. As the jazz icons Ellington, Davis and Blakey would no doubt agree, there is no magic score that if followed note by note will make you a great leader of creative talent. However, take an entrepreneur, a few cues from the aforementioned jazz trio, mix in a little improvisation, and you are more likely to hear the sweet sound of success. As Louis Armstrong once sang: ‘Now that’s jazz’.

Questions 28-33

The text has five sections, A-E.

Which section contains the following?

Write the correct letter, A-E, in boxes 28-33 on your answer sheet.

NB You may choose any letter more than once.

28. a summary of the different aspects of leadership that are covered in the study
29. a description of how band leaders sometimes passed on their leadership skills to others
30. a summary of the backgrounds of the band leaders chosen for the study
31. examples of ways in which one band leader encouraged his musicians to be more creative
32. an overview of the main similarities between the work of business people and jazz musicians
33. a description of two contrasting ways of leading a team

Questions 34-36

Do the following statements agree with the information given in the text?

In boxes 34-36 on your answer sheet, write

• TRUE                     if the statement agrees with the information
• FALSE                   if the statement contradicts the information
• NOT GIVEN        if there is no information on this

34. The study by Ucbasaran and Lockett was the first to compare the worlds of music and business.
35. One reason why jazz musicians were chosen for the research is because the setting in which they work is unpredictable.
36. The researchers decided to cover only certain aspects of leadership.

Questions 37-40

Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.

37. When assembling their teams, the band leaders all prioritised players
    1. who had special technical skill.
    2. who were used to working independently.
    3. who had an individual style of their own.
    4. who would get on well with other band members.
38. What obstacle might jazz leaders face in reducing destructive conflict among team members?
    1. They may also reduce productive conflict in the process.
    2. Their team members tend to have especially strong personalities.
    3. They are unaware of the theory concerning different types of conflict.
    4. Their team members may be unwilling to cooperate in reducing this.
39. What approach to group coordination was shared by Ellington, Davis and Blakey?
    1. They allowed musicians to be creative within certain agreed limits.
    2. They increased opportunities for success and reduced chances of failure.
    3. They provided a structure within which musicians could express themselves.
    4. They coordinated the work of their teams so each member contributed equally.
40. Ucbasaran and her colleagues found that the high turnover of members in jazz bands
    1. was eventually reduced by the policies of the band leaders.
    2. was welcomed by band leaders for the benefits it brought.
    3. was due to a shortage of effective band leaders.
    4. was a feature of the growing popularity of jazz.

Cambridge IELTS 13 General Reading Test 4 section 1 The Guardian Newspaper’s Travel answers

1. False
2. False
3. Not given
4. True
5. True
6. True
7. False
8. True

Cambridge IELTS 13 General Reading Test 4 section 1 Running Headphones answers

9. G
10. A
11. B
12. E
13. A
14. F

Cambridge IELTS 13 General Reading Test 4 section 2 A Case Study Of A Risk Assessment For General Office Cleaning answers

15. Representatives
16. Housekeeping
17. Fire
18. Storage
19. Reporting
20. Website
21. Cupboard

Cambridge IELTS 13 General Reading Test 4 section 2 Preparing For A Virtual Job Interview answers

22. Costs
23. Screening
24. Topics
25. Headset
26. Software
27. Rehearsal

Cambridge IELTS 13 General Reading Test 4 section 3 Tuning Up Your Leadership Skills answers

28. B
29. E
30. B
31. D
32. A
33. D
34. False
35. True
36. True
37. C
38. A
39. C
40. B

Cambridge IELTS 5 General Reading Test B

Section 1 – Questions 1-14

Walk For Charity

Dear Friend,

Please join us for our annual Walk for Charity, starting in Weldown, you and your friends can choose a delightful 10, 20 or 30 km route. The money raised will provide support to help people all over the world. Start collecting your sponsors now and then simply come along on the day. Please read the instructions below carefully especially if you require transport to and from Weldown. See you on Sunday 14 May.

V Jessop, Walk Co-ordinator

P.S. Well done to last years’ walkers for helping to raise a grand total of £ 21,000. The money has already been used to build a children’s playground.

START TIMES:

30 km: 8-10 am, 20 km: 8-10.30 am, 10 km: 8-11.30 am

The organisers reserve the right to refuse late comers.

CLOTHING should be suitable for the weather. If rain is forecast, bring some protection and be prepared for all eventualities. It is better to wear shoes that have been worn in rather than ones that are new.

ROUTE MAPS will be available from the registration point. The route will be sign-posted and marshelled. Where the route runs along the road, walkers should keep to one side in single file, facing oncoming traffic at all times. If you need help along the route please inform one of the marshals. Free car parking available in car parks and on streets in Weldown.

BUSES – For the 10 and 20 km routes a bus will be waiting at Fenton to take walkers back to Weldown. The bus will leave every half hour starting at midday. The service is free and there is no need to book.

Questions 1-7

Look at the information on the given page about a walk for charity.

Answer the questions below.

Use NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER from the text for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 1-7 on your answer sheet.

1. What is the starting point for the 30 km walk?
2. What is the latest start time for the 20 km walk?
3. Regarding footwear, what are you warned against wearing?
4. What are the officials who help participants on the route called?
5. Where does the 20 km walk finish?
6. What is the frequency of the Fenton to Weldown bus?
7. Which walk does not pass through Lower Brene?

Question 8-14

Read the information below and answer question 8-14

The Week’s Best

A Wild Rose
(Tuesday 19.00)
This TV drama is about a young private detective employed by a team of New York businessmen who send her to Brazil to look into a series of hotel robberies. When she gets there, she discovers that the hotels, which are owned by the businessmen, have been empty for the last two years and the local authorities have no record of any robberies.

B Animal Planet
(Wednesday 23.00)
This is a classic black-and-white film from the forties in which astronaut Charlie Huston crash-lands on a planet ruled entirely by animals. It is a first-class suspense adventure which also looks at the human condition, although this is not always a successful part of the film.

C Strange Encounter
(Saturday 21.00)
Suspense is skilfully built up in this clever, small-scale supernatural story. A young couple view a deserted old house that they are interested in buying. They meet a strange old lady who tells them of the mystical powers of the house and haw previous owners have been able to travel back through the centuries to meet their. ancestors.

D The Longest Walk
(Tuesday 21.30)
Ffyona Campbell is nearly there. All she has to do now is walk the length of France and Britain and she has succeeded in walking around the world. Tonight she drinks coffee in a tent and tells her story to Janet Street-Porter before she sets off for the Pyrenees mountains.

E Rubicon 5
(Thursday 20.30)
This is a TV film being used to launch a new science fiction series. It has impressive special effects and a strong, believable cast of characters who travel to the twenty-third century. The action takes place in underground cities where the environment is controlled by computers.

F New Science
(Friday 19.30)
This popular half-hour science magazine continues into its twenty-ninth year, proving itself to be a hardy survivor in the television world. Tonight it is presented by Carol Vorderman who introduces five reports, which include computer-driven cars and in-flight ten-pin bowling.

G There and Back Again
(Sunday 22.00)
Paul Theroux’s account of his recent journey from London to Japan and back makes ideal material for this evening’s travel slot. Based on his own novel, the progress of his journey on the railways of Europe and Asia (Victoria station, Paris, Istanbul…) acts as a fascinating travelogue as the inhabitants gradually shift from the West to the East.

Questions 8-14

Look at the seven television programmes A-G on the given page and answer Questions 8-14.

For which programme are the following statements true?

Write the correct letter A-G in boxes 8-14 on your answer sheet.

NB You may use any letter more than once.

8. This programme is in the form of a personal interview.
9. This programme is a documentary about technological developments.
10. These TWO programmes are about time travel.
11. This programme is taken from a book.
12. This film is the introduction to a set of programmes.
13. These TWO programmes are about present-day travellers.
14. This programme is about investigating a possible crime.

SECTION 2 – Question 15-27

BINGHAM REGIONAL COLLEGE

International Students’ Orientation Programme

What is it?
It is a course which will introduce you to the College and to Bingham. It takes place in the week before term starts, from 24th – 28th September inclusive, but you should plan to arrive in Bingham on the 22nd or 23rd September.

Why do we think it is important?
We want you to have the best possible start to your studies and you need to find out about all the opportunities that college life offers. This programme aims to help you do just that. It will enable you to get to know the College, its facilities and services. You will also have the chance to meet staff and students.

How much will it cost?
International students (non-European Union students)
For those students who do not come from European Union (EU) countries, and who are not used to European culture and customs, the programme is very important and you are strongly advised to attend. Because of this, the cost of the programme, exclusive of accommodation, is built into your tuition fees.

EU students
EU students are welcome to take part in this programme for a fee of £195, exclusive of accommodation. Fees are not refundable.

Accommodation costs (international and EU students)
If you have booked accommodation for the year ahead (41 weeks) through the College in one of the College residences (Cambourne House, Hanley House, the Student Village or a College shared house), you do not have to pay extra for accommodation during the Orientation programme. If you have not booked accommodation in the College residences, you can ask us to pre-book accommodation for you for one week only (Orientation Programme week) in a hotel with other international students. The cost of accommodation for one week is approximately £165. Alternatively, you can arrange your own accommodation for that week in a flat, with friends or a local family.

What is included during the programme?
Meals: lunch and an evening meal are provided as part of the programme, beginning with supper on Sunday 23rd September and finishing with lunch at midday on Friday 28th September. Please note that breakfast is not available.

Information sessions: including such topics as accommodation, health, religious matters, welfare, immigration, study skills, careers and other ‘essential information’.

Social activities: including a welcome buffet and a half-day excursion round Bingham.

Transport: between your accommodation and the main College campus, where activities will take place.

Questions 15-20

Do the following statements agree with the information given in the text above?

In boxes 15-20 on your answer sheet, write

• TRUE                           if the statement agrees with the information
• FALSE                         if the statement contradicts the information
• NOT GIVEN             if there is no information on this

15. Participants are advised to arrive one or two days early.
16. The cost of the programme for European Union students, excluding accommodation, is £195.
17. The number of places available is strictly limited.
18. Some students are not charged extra for accommodation during the programme.
19. The College will arrange accommodation with local families.
20. You can obtain breakfast at the College for an extra charge.

Read the information below and answer question 21-27

Student Accommodation

The College offers five basic accommodation options. Here is some information to help you make your choice

A CAMBOURNE HOUSE – self-catering, student residence, located in the town centre about 2 miles from the main College campus. Up to 499 students live in 6, 7 and 8 bedroom flats, all with en-suite shower rooms. Rent is £64 per week, including bills (not telephone). Broadband Internet connections and telephones, with communal kitchen/dining and lounge areas. Parking space is available, with permits costing £60 per term.

B STUDENT VILLAGE – features 3, 4, 5 and 7 bedroom, self-catering shared houses for 250 students close to the main College campus. Rent is £60 per week inclusive of bills (except telephone). Parking is available with permits costing £90 for the academic year.

C HANLEY HOUSE – a second, modern, self-catering residence in the town centre for 152 students. Eighteen rooms per floor with communal kitchens, lounges, bathrooms and toilets. Rent is £53 per week including bills (not telephone). There is no space for parking nearby.

D GLENCARRICK HOUSE – a privately-owned and managed student residence in the town centre above a multi-storey car park, close to a major nightclub and housing 120 students. Rooms are allocated by the College Accommodation Service. Rents range from £58.50 to £68.50 for a single en-suite room or larger en-suite room respectively. A small extra charge is made for electricity.

E HOUSE SHARES – this recent initiative is a range of shared houses for 140 students, conforming to standards set by us to meet all legal safety requirements. A room in a shared house costs between £45 and £55 per week, exclusive of bills, and will be within a 4-mile radius of both campuses. As with halls of residence, the rent is payable termly.

Questions 21-27

Look at the accommodation options A-E in the previous text.

For which options are the following statements true?

Write the correct letter A-E in boxes 21-27 on your answer sheet.

NB You may use any letter more than once.

21. This is possibly inconvenient for car owners.
22. This is best if you like surfing the Web.
23. Of the College residences, this has the fewest students.
24. This is a new option offered by the College.
25. You have to organise parking a year at a tim.
26. This accommodation does not belong to the College.
27. Here you definitely do not have your own bathroom.

Read the information below and answer question 28-40

GLOW-WORMS

A The glow-worm belongs to a family of beetles known as the Lampyridae or fireflies. The fireflies are a huge group containing over 2000 species, with new ones being discovered all the time. The feature which makes fireflies and glow-worms so appealing is their ability to produce an often dazzling display of light. The light is used by the adult fireflies as a signal to attract a mate, and each species must develop its own ‘call-sign’ to avoid being confused with other species glowing nearby. So within any one area each species will differ from its neighbours in some way, for example in the colour or pattern of its light, how long the pulses of light last, the interval between pulses and whether it displays in flight or from the ground.

B The firefly’s almost magical light has attracted human attention for generations. It is described in an ancient Chinese encyclopaedia written over 2000 years ago by a pupil of Confucius. Fireflies often featured in Japanese and Arabian folk medicine. All over the world they have been the inspiration for countless poems, paintings and stories. In Britain, for example, there are plenty of anecdotes describing how glow-worms have been used to read by or used as emergency bicycle lamps when a cyclist’s batteries have failed without warning. Early travellers in the New World came back with similar stories, of how the native people of Central America would collect a type of click beetle and release them indoors to light up their huts. Girls threaded them around their feet to illuminate the forest paths at night.

Fireflies very similar to those we see today have been found fossilised in rocks which were formed about 30 million years ago, and their ancestors were probably glowing long before then. It is impossible to be sure exactly when and where the first firefly appeared. The highest concentrations of firefly species today are to be found in the tropics of South America, which may mean either that this is where they first evolved, or simply that they prefer the conditions there.

Wherever they first arose, fireflies have since spread to almost every part of the globe. Today members of the firefly family can be found almost anywhere outside the Arctic and Antarctic circles.

C As with many insects, the glow-worm’s life is divided into four distinct stages: the egg, the larva (equivalent to the caterpillar of a butterfly), the pupa (or chrysalis) and the adult. The glow-worm begins its life in the autumn as a pale yellow egg. The freshly laid egg is extremely fragile but within a day its surface has hardened into a shell. The egg usually takes about 35 days to hatch, but the exact time varies according to the temperature, from about 27 days in hot weather to more than 45 days in cold weather. By the time it is due to hatch, the glow-worm’s light organ is fully developed, and its glow signals that the egg will soon hatch.

After it has left the egg, the larva slowly grows from a few millimetres into the size and shape of a matchstick. The larval stage is the only time the insect can feed. The larva devotes much of its life to feeding and building up its food reserves so that as an adult it will be free to concentrate all its efforts on the task of finding a mate and reproducing. Throughout its time as a larva, approximately 15 months, the glow-worm emits a bright light. The larva’s light is much fainter than the adult female’s but it can still be seen more than five metres away.

In the final stage of a glow-worm’s life, the larva encases itself in a pupa) skin while it changes from the simple larva to the more complex adult fly. When the adult fly emerges from the pupa the male seeks a female with whom it can mate. After mating, the female lays about 120 eggs. The adult flies have no mouth parts, cannot eat and therefore only live a few days. When people talk of seeing a glow-worm they normally mean the brightly glowing adult female.

D In some countries the numbers of glow-worms have been falling. Evidence suggests that there has been a steady decrease in the British glow-worm population since the 1950s and possibly before that. Possible causes for the decline include habitat destruction, pollution and changes in climate. Thousands of acres of grassland have been built upon and glow-worm sites have become increasingly isolated from each other. The widespread use of pesticides and fertilisers may also have endangered the glow-worm. Being at the top of a food chain it is likely to absorb any pollutants eaten by the snails on which it feeds. The effect of global warming on rainfall and other weather patterns may also be playing a part in the disappearance of glow-worms. A lot more research will be needed, however, before the causes of the glow-worm’s gradual decline are clear.

E Although glow-worms are found wherever conditions are damp, food is in good supply and there is an over-hanging wall, they are most spectacular in caves. For more than 100 years the glow-worm caves in New Zealand have attracted millions of people from all over the world. The caves were first explored in 1887 by a local Maori chief, Tane Tinorau, and an English surveyor, Fred Mace. They built a raft and, with candles as their only light, they floated into the cave where the stream goes underground. As their eyes adjusted to the darkness they saw myriad lights reflecting off the water. Looking up they discovered that the ceiling was dotted with the lights of thousands of glow-worms. They returned many times to explore further, and on an independent trip Tane discovered the upper level of the cave and an easier access. The authorities were advised and government surveyors mapped the caves. By 1888 Tane Tinorau had opened the cave to tourists.

Questions 28-37

The passage has five sections labelled A-E.

Which section contains the following information?

Write the correct letter A-E in boxes 28-33 on your answer sheet.

NB You may use any letter more than once.

28. threats to the glow-worm
29. ways in which glow-worms have been used
30. variations in type of glow-worm
31. glow-worm distribution
32. glow-worms becoming an attraction
33. the life-cycle of a glow-worm

Questions 34-40

Do the following statements agree with the information given in the passage?

In boxes 34-40 on your answer sheet, write

• TRUE                         if the statement agrees with the information
• FALSE                       if the statement contradicts the information
• NOT GIVEN            if there is no information on this

34. Scientists have only recently been able to list the exact number of glow-worm species.
35. The first fireflies appeared 30 million years ago.
36. Glow-worm populations are decreasing faster in some countries than in others.
37. Heat affects the production of glow-worm larvae.
38. Adulthood is the longest stage of a glow-worm’s life.
39. The exact reason why glow-worm numbers are decreasing is unknown.
40. Glow-worms are usually found in wet areas.

Cambridge IELTS 5 General Reading Test 2 section 1 Walk For Charity answers

1. weldown
2. 10.30 (am)
3. new shoes
4. (the) marshals
5. fenton
6. every half hoar
7. 10 kilometre (walk)

Cambridge IELTS 5 General Reading Test 2 section 1 The Week’s Best answers

8. D
9. F
10. C,E
11. G
12. E
13. D,G
14. A

Cambridge IELTS 5 General Reading Test 2 Section 2 answers BINGHAM REGIONAL COLLEGE answers

15. TRUE
16. TRUE
17. NOT GIVEN
18. TRUE
19. FALSE
20. FALSE

Cambridge IELTS 5 General Reading Test 2 section 2 Student Accommodation answers

21. C
22. A
23. D
24. E
25. B
26. D
27. C

Cambridge IELTS 5 General Reading Test 2 section 3 GLOW-WORMS answers

28. D
29. B
30. A
31. B
32. E
33. C
34. NOT GIVEN
35. FALSE
36. NOT GIVEN
37. TRUE
38. FALSE
39. TRUE
40. TRUE

Cambridge IELTS 7 General Reading Test A with answers

SECTION 1: Question 1-14

Read the text below and answer Question 1-7

EASTERN ENERGY

We are here to help and provide you with personal advice on any matters connected with your bill or any other queries regarding your gas and electricity supply.

Moving home
Please give as much notice as possible if you are moving home, but at least 48 hours is required for us to make the necessary arrangements for your gas and electricity supply. Please telephone our 24-hour line on 01316 753219 with details of your move. In most cases we are happy to accept your meter reading on the day you move. Tell the new occupant that Eastern Energy supply the household, to ensure the service is not interrupted. Remember we can now supply electricity and gas at your new address, anywhere in the UK. If you do not contact us, you may be held responsible for the payment for electricity used after you have moved.

Meter reading
Eastern Energy uses various types of meter ranging from the traditional dial meter to new technology digital display meters. Always read the meter from left to right, ignoring any red dials. If you require assistance, contact our 24-hour line on 0600 7310 310.

Energy Efficiency Line
If you would like advice on the efficient use of energy, please call our Energy Efficiency Line on 0995 7626 513. Please do not use this number for any other enquiries.

Special services
Passwords – you can choose a password so that, whenever we visit you at home, you will know it is us. For more information, ring our helpline on 0995 7290 290.

Help and advice
If you need help or advice with any issues, please contact us on 01316 440188.

Complaints
We hope you will never have a problem or cause to complain, but, if you do, please contact our complaints handling team at PO Box 220, Stanfield, ST55 6GF or telephone us on 01316 753270.

Supply failure
If you experience any problems with your electricity supply, please call free on 0600 7838 836,24 hours a day, seven days a week.

Question 1-7

Do the following statements agree with the information given in the text?

In boxes 1-7 on your answer sheet, write

• TRUE             if the statement agrees with the information
• FALSE             if the statement contradicts the information
• NOT GIVEN   if there is no information on this

1. Customers should inform Eastern Energy of a change of address on arrival at their new home.
2. Customers are expected to read their own gas or electricity meters.
3. It is now cheaper to use gas rather than electricity as a form of heating.
4. Eastern Energy supplies energy to households throughout the country.
5. The Energy Efficiency Line also handles queries about energy supply.
6. All complaints about energy supply should be made by phone.
7. Customers are not charged for the call when they report a fault in supply.

Read the text below and answer Questions 8-14.

Using your new microwave oven

A As microwave cooking times are much shorter than other cooking times, it is essential that recommended cooking times are not exceeded without first checking the food.

B Take care when heating small amounts of food as these can easily burn, dry out or catch fire if cooked too long. Always set short cooking times and check the food frequently.

C Take care when heating ‘dry’ foods, e.g. bread items, chocolate and pastries. These can easily burn or catch fire if cooked too long.

D Some processed meats, such as sausages, have non-porous casings. These must be pierced by a fork before cooking, to prevent bursting. Whole fruit and vegetables should be similarly treated.

E When heating soup, sauces and beverages in your microwave oven, heating beyond boiling point can occur without evidence of bubbling. Care should be taken not to overheat.

F When warming up food for a second time, it is essential that it is served ‘piping hot’, i.e. steam is being emitted from all parts and any sauce is bubbling. For foods that cannot be stirred, e.g. pizza, the centre should be cut with a knife to test it is well heated through.

G It is important for the safe operation of the oven that it is wiped out regularly. Use warm, soapy water, squeeze the cloth out well and use it to remove any grease or food from the interior. The oven should be unplugged during this process.

Questions 8-14

The previous text has seven sections, A-G.

Choose the correct heading for each section from the list of headings below.

Write the correct number; i–x, in boxes 8–14 on your answer sheet.

List of Headings

1. Re-heating
2. Foods with skins
3. Keeping your oven clean
4. Standing time
5. Rapid cooking times
6. Using a thermometer
7. Small quantities of food
8. Deep fat frying
9. Foods low in moisture
10. Liquids

8. Section A
9. Section B
10. Section C
11. Section D
12. Section E
13. Section F
14. Section G

SECTION 2: Question 15-27

Read the text below and answer Question 15-20.

CHOOSING PREMISES FOR A NEW BUSINESS

What you need
Three factors dominate the priorities of small businesses looking for premises: cost, cost and cost. Nobody ever has enough money, so there is an overwhelming temptation to go for the cheapest property. It is a mistake that can take decades to rectify – and even threaten the future of a promising business. Ironically some firms swing too far in the other direction, committing themselves to a heavy initial outlay because they believe in the importance of image – and that does not come cheap. Finding the right premises is the real secret. That can, and will, vary enormously according to the type of business. But there are some general rules that apply to any operation.

Location
High street premises are important for shops which rely on passing trade – but these are expensive. Rents fall quickly within a few metres of main roads. Offices, however, need not be located centrally, particularly if most business is done on the phone or via email.

Manufacturing and storage relies heavily on access. Think about how vans and lorries will deliver and collect goods from the premises. Nearby parking can be important for staff, and public transport can be even more so, as traffic restrictions tighten.

Size
This is a crucial decision. Health and Safety laws provide basic guidance on how much room is required per office desk or manufacturing operation. But remember to allow for growth.

Growth
Every small business aims to become a big business, but this prospect can be obstructed if the wrong decisions are made early on. It is important to consider flexibility from the start. Can a building be physically altered internally by knocking down walls or by extending outwards or adding extra floors? Is there spare land next door to expand later if necessary?

Landlords obviously have to agree to any changes so it is important that the contract includes details of what will be allowed and how much extra will be charged on top of the costs of rebuilding or alteration. Planning rules must also be considered. Local authorities are not always open to discussion about the future of premises. They may have rigid rules about increasing density of development. The building may be in a conservation area or near housing, in which case it will be much more difficult to consider changes.

Questions 15-20

Complete the sentences below.

Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the text for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 15-20 on your answer sheet.

15. Some people choose expensive premises because they want to create an impressive……………for their company.
16. Businesses which depend on………………..need to be on or near the principal shopping areas.
17. Businesses which produce goods must check there is……………………to the premises for delivery vehicles.
18. When choosing a building for your premises, find out whether………………could be removed to create more room.
19. Make sure that the………………….states what type of building alterations might be permitted.
20. If business premises are located close to………………, extensions may not be allowed.

Read the text below and answer Question 21-27

CALIFORNIA STATE COLLEGE

WORKING CONDITIONS AND BENEFITS FOR EMPLOYEES

Payday
Employees are paid every other Friday. If Friday is a holiday, payday will be the following Monday. Generally employees pick up the pay checks in their department if not they may be picked up at the Business Office.

Overtime
All time worked over eight hours in one day and forty hours in a workweek, and also the first eight hours worked on the seventh day of work in a workweek is considered overtime for non-exempt employees. The supervisor must approve all overtime before overtime occurs. Hours in excess of eight hours on the seventh day and in excess of twelve hours in one day will be paid at double time. Exempt employees receive no additional compensation for overtime hours.

Parking
All employees who will be parking in a staff parking zone must obtain a parking permit. A monthly pre-tax payroll deduction can be made by visiting Human Resources. If you wish to pay cash, present your staff I.D. and license number to the Cashier’s Office.The Safety Department will ticket cars without a parking permit and a fine will be applied.

I.D. Card
All employees are required to carry an I.D. card. If an employee loses his/her card, there will be an automatic charge of $5.00 to issue a duplicate. If an employee gives up employment, his/her I.D. card must be returned prior to release of final paycheck.

Holidays
All regular and temporary full-time employees generally receive approximately 13 paid holidays during the course of each calendar year Regular part-time employees will receive holiday benefits worked out using a prorated system.The holiday schedule is initiated annually

Personal Holiday
Each employee is granted one extra day as a Personal Holiday at the time of hire, and at the beginning of each calendar year Personal Holiday hours must be taken at one time (eight hours full-time or prorated based on the employee’s time). Employees requesting Personal Holiday will be required to complete ‘Leave Request’ forms. No more than one Personal Holiday is authorized annually

Birthday Holiday
All regular and temporary full-time or part-time employees are entitled to take their birthday off with pay. An employee has a fifteen-day span before and following his/her birthday to take the paid day off. What is known as a grace period through January 15th is given to those employees whose birthdays fall between December 16th and end of the year.

Question 21-27

Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the text for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 21-27 on your answer sheet.

21. Where do most employees collect their wages?
22. Who has to authorise any overtime an employee wishes to do?
23. Who is not paid extra for working more than 40 hours a week?
24. Where should employees go if they wish to have the parking charge taken off their salary?
25. What method is used to calculate part-time employees’ holidays?
26. Which documents must employees fill in to select their Personal Holiday?
27. What is the name of the special entitlement provided to employees with birthdays in the second half of December?

SECTION 3: Question 28-40

Read the text below and answer Question 28-40.

A Very Special Dog
Florence is one of a new breed of dog who is making the work of
the Australian Customs much easier

It is 8.15 a.m. A flight lands at Melbourne’s Tullamarine International Airport. Several hundred pieces of baggage are rushed from the plane onto a conveyor belt in the baggage reclaim annexe. Over the sound of roaring engines, rushing air vents and grinding generators, a dog barks. Florence, a sleek black labrador, wags her tail.

Among the cavalcade of luggage passing beneath Florence’s all-smelling nose, is a nondescript hardback suitcase. Inside the case, within styrofoam casing, packed in loose pepper and coffee, wrapped in freezer paper and heat-sealed in plastic, are 18 kilograms of hashish.

The cleverly concealed drugs don’t fool super-sniffer Florence, and her persistent scratching at the case alerts her handler. Florence is one of a truly new breed: the product of what is perhaps the only project in the world dedicated to breeding dogs solely to detect drugs. Ordinary dogs have a 0.1% chance of making it in drug detection. The new breeding programme, run by the Australian Customs, is so successful that more than 50% of its dogs make the grade.

And what began as a wholly practical exercise in keeping illegal drugs out of Australia may end up playing a role in an entirely different sphere – the comparatively esoteric world of neurobiology. It turns out that it’s not Florence’s nose that makes her a top drug dog, but her unswerving concentration, plus a few other essential traits. Florence could help neurobiologists to understand both what they call ‘attention processing’, the brain mechanisms that determine what a person pays attention to and for how long, and its flip side, problems such as Attention Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD). As many as 3 to 5% of children are thought to suffer from the condition in the US, where the incidence is highest, although diagnosis is often controversial.

The Australian Customs has used dogs to find drugs since 1969. Traditionally, the animals came from pounds
and private breeders. But, in 1993, fed up with the poor success rate of finding good dogs this way, John Vandeloo, senior instructor with the Detector Dog Unit, joined forces with Kath Champness, then a doctoral student at
the University of Melbourne, and set up a breeding programme.

Champness began by defining six essential traits that make a detector dog. First, every good detector dog must love praise because this is the only tool trainers have at their disposal, but the dog must still be able to work for long periods without it. Then it needs a strong hunting instinct and the stamina to keep sniffing at the taxing rate of around 300 times per minute. The ideal detector is also fearless enough to deal with jam-packed airport crowds and the roaring engine rooms of cargo ships.

The remaining two traits are closely related and cognitive in nature. A good detector must be capable of focusing on the task of searching for drugs, despite the distractions in any airport or dockside. This is what neurobiologists call ‘selective attention’. And finally, with potentially tens of thousands of hiding places for drugs, the dog must persevere and maintain focus for hours at a time. Neurobiologists call this ‘sustained attention’.

Vandeloo and Champness assess the dogs’ abilities to concentrate by marking them on a scale of between one and five according to how well they remain focused on a toy tossed into a patch of grass. Ivan scores a feeble one. He follows the toy, gets half-way there, then becomes distracted by places where the other dogs have been or by flowers in the paddock. Rowena, on the other hand, has phenomenal concentration; some might even consider her obsessive. When Vandeloo tosses the toy, nothing can distract her from the searching, not other dogs, not food. And even if no one is around to encourage her, she keeps looking just the same. Rowena gets a five.

A person’s ability to pay attention, like a dog’s, depends on a number of overlapping cognitive behaviours, including memory and learning – the neurobiologist’s attention processing. Attention in humans can be tested by asking subjects to spot colours on a screen while ignoring shapes, or to spot sounds while ignoring visual cues, or to take a ‘vigilance test’. Sitting a vigilance test is like being a military radar operator. Blips appear on a cluttered monitor infrequently and at irregular intervals. Rapid detection of all blips earns a high score. Five minutes into the test, one in ten subjects will start to miss the majority of the blips, one in ten will still be able to spot nearly all of them and the rest will come somewhere in between.

Vigilance tasks provide signals that are infrequent and unpredictable – which is exactly what is expected of the dogs when they are asked to notice just a few odour molecules in the air, and then to home in on the source. During a routine mail screen that can take hours, the dogs stay so focused that not even a postcard lined with 0.5 grams of heroin and hidden in a bulging sack of letters escapes detection.

With the current interest in attentional processing, as well as human conditions that have an attention deficit component, such as ADHD, it is predicted that it is only a matter of time before the super-sniffer dogs attract the attention of neurobiologists trying to cure these conditions.

Questions 28-32

Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.

Write the correct letter in boxes 28-32 on your answer sheet.

28. The drugs in the suitcase
    1. were hidden inside the lining.
    2. had pepper and coffee around them.
    3. had previously been frozen.
    4. had a special smell to repel dogs.
29. Most dogs are not good at finding drugs because
    1. they don’t work well with a handler.
    2. they lack the right training.
    3. the drugs are usually very well hidden.
    4. they lack certain genetic qualities.
30. Florence is a good drug detector because she
    1. has a better sense of smell than other dogs.
    2. is not easily distracted.
    3. has been specially trained to work at airports.
    4. enjoys what she is doing.
31. Dogs like Florence may help scientists understand
    1. how human and dog brains differ.
    2. how people can use both sides of their brain.
    3. why some people have difficulty paying attention.
    4. the best way for people to maintain their focus.
32. In 1993, the Australian Customs
    1. decided to use its own dogs again.
    2. was successful in finding detector dogs.
    3. changed the way it obtained dogs.
    4. asked private breeders to provide more dogs.

Question 33-36

Choose FOUR letters, A-J.

Write the correct letters in boxes 33-36 on your answer sheet.

The writer mentions a number of important qualities that detector dogs must have.

Which FOUR of the following qualities are mentioned by the writer of the text?

1. a good relationship with people
2. a willingness to work in smelly conditions
3. quick reflexes
4. an ability to work in noisy conditions
5. an ability to maintain concentration
6. a willingness to work without constant encouragement
7. the skill to find things in long grass
8. experience as hunters
9. a desire for people’s approval
10. the ability to search a large number of places rapidly

Questions 37-40

Do the following statements agree with the information given in the text?

In boxes 37-40 on your answer sheet, write

• TRUE             if the statement agrees with the information
• FALSE             if the statement contradicts the information
• NOT GIVEN   if there is no information on this

37. Methods of determining if a child has ADHD are now widely accepted.
38. After about five minutes of a vigilance test, some subjects will still notice some blips.
39. Vigilance tests help improve concentration.
40. 40. If a few grams of a drug are well concealed, even the best dogs will miss them.

Cambridge IELTS 7 General Reading Test 1 Answers Section 1 (1-7) EASTERN ENERGY

1. FASLE
2. TRUE
3. NOT GIVEN
4. TRUE
5. FALSE
6. 6. FALSE
7. 7. TRUE

Cambridge IELTS 7 General Reading Test 1 Answers Section 1 (8-14) Using your new microwave oven

8. V
9. VII
10. IX
11. ii
12. x
13. i
14. iii

Cambridge IELTS 7 General Reading Test 1 Answers Section 2 (15-20) CHOOSING PREMISES FOR A NEW BUSINESS

15. image
16. 16. passing trade
17. 17. access
18. 18. walls
19. 19. contract
20. 20. housing

Cambridge IELTS 7 General Reading Test 1 Answers Section 2 (21-27) CALIFORNIA STATE COLLEGE

21. their department
22. (the) supervisor
23. exempt employees
24. Human Resources
25. (a) prorated system
26. leave request forms
27. (a) grace period

Cambridge IELTS 7 General Reading Test 1 Answers Section 3 (28-40) A Very Special Dog

28. B
29. D
30. B
31. C
32. C
33. D (in any order 33-36)
34. E
35. F
36. I
37. FALSE
38. TRUE
39. NOT GIVEN
40. FALSE

SECTION 1: Questions 1-14

Read the text below and answer Questions 1-8.

The best travel wallets

Keep all your bank cards, documents, passports and ID in one of these convenient carriers, which have been selected by Becca Meier.

A Kipling Travel Doc Travel Document Holder
This zip-around wallet comes in five different patterns and is made of nylon. It also has a space where users can put a pen, pockets for cards, an ID window and a pocket for change.

B Lifeventure Mini Travel Document Wallet
This is a waterproof wallet, which uses anti-RFID (radio frequency identification) material so your financial details will be safe. It is black with smart sky-blue finishing touches and has a small internal compartment, a smartphone pocket and an external pocket, It can fit two passports.

C Cath Kidston Breton Stripe
A wallet so slim it could easily pass for a small notebook. The inside compartment labels identifying each separate section all have silver lettering on them. The wallet has a special coating which makes it easy to wipe anything like sand off.

D Ted Baker Voyager’s Travel Wallet
This wallet comes in smooth black leather, and is no bigger than a passport, but roomy enough for any insurance documents or flight tickets. A small navy-blue pen is supplied inside.

E Radley Abbey Travel Wallet
This plain travel wallet opens up to reveal pockets in various colours labelled ‘cards’, ‘passport’ and ‘tickets’, as well as others left blank for extras. It comes in a handy drawstring bag.

F Gotravel Organiser
The black wallet features seven slip-in card compartments, two small interior zip pockets and a load of other slip-in compartments, it can fit at least four passports.

G Gotravel Glo Travel Wallet
This is a simple, very reasonably priced wallet. It is made of PVC plastic and will suit those who like a wallet that is easy to spot. It comes in a range of bright colours with a white holiday-related design on the front. It has five compartments that can fit a passport with other cards/tickets.

Questions 1-8

Look at the seven reviews of travel wallets, A-G.

For which travel wallet are the following statements true?

Write the correct letter, A-G, in boxes 1-8 on your answer sheet.

NB You may use any letter more than once.

1. This wallet will suit people who prefer natural materials.
2. Users of this wallet do not need to worry about taking it out in the rain.
3. Parts of the inside of this wallet have categories printed on them in one colour.
4. This wallet would suit someone who needs to keep several passports together.
5. Something is provided for writing.
6. This will suit people who want to be able to find their document wallet easily in their luggage.
7. Something to keep this wallet in is provided.
8. This wallet has been specially made to prevent people detecting the numbers on any bank cards, etc. inside it.

Read the text below and answer Questions 9-14.

UK rail services – how do l claim for my delayed train?

Generally, if you have been delayed on a train journey, you may be able to claim compensation, but train companies all have different rules, so it can be confusing to work out what you’re entitled to. The type of delay you can claim for depends on whether the train company runs a Delay Repay scheme or a less generous, older-style scheme.

Delay Repay is a train operator scheme to compensate passengers when trains are late, and the train company will pay out even if it was not responsible for the delay. The scheme varies between companies, but up to 2016 most paid 50 percent of the single ticket cost for 30 minutes’ delay and 100 percent for an hour. On the London Underground, you get a full refund for 15-minute delays.

Companies that do not use Delay Repay and still use the older scheme will not usually pay compensation if the problem is considered to be out of their control. But it is still worth asking them for compensation, as some may pay out. You are unlikely to get compensation for a delay if any of the following occur:
• Accidents involving people getting onto the line illegally
• Gas leaks or fires in buildings next to the line which were not caused by a train company
• Line closures at the request of the emergency services
• Exceptionally severe weather conditions
• Strike action

National Rail Conditions of Travel state that you are entitled to compensation in the same form that you paid for the ticket. Some train companies are still paying using rail vouchers, which they are allowed to do if you do not ask for a cash refund.

Since 2016, rail passengers have acquired further rights for compensation through the Consumer Rights Act. This means that passengers could now be eligible for compensation due to: a severely overcrowded train with too few carriages available; a consistently late running service; and a service that is delayed for less than the time limit that applied under existing compensation schemes.

However, in order to exercise their rights beyond the existing compensation schemes, for instance Delay Repay, and where the train operating company refuses to compensate despite letters threatening court action, passengers may need to bring their claims to a court of law.

Questions 9-14

Do the following statements agree with the information given in the passage?

In boxes 9-14 on your answer sheet, write:

• TRUE if the statement agrees with the information
• FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
• NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this

9. The system for claiming compensation varies from one company to another.
10. Under Delay Repay, a train company will only provide compensation if it caused the delay.
11. Under Delay Repay, underground and other train companies give exactly the same amounts of money in compensation.
12. An increasing number of train companies are willing to pay compensation for problems they are not responsible for.
13. It is doubtful whether companies using the older scheme will provide compensation if a delay is caused by a strike.
14. Passengers may receive compensation in the form of a train voucher if they forget to request cash.

SECTION 2: Questions 15-27

Read the text below and answer Questions 15-19.

Vacancy for food preparation assistant

Durrant House pic runs restaurants and cafes as concessions in airports, train stations and other busy environments around the country. We currently have a vacancy for a food preparation assistant in our restaurant at Locksley Stadium, serving football fans and concert-goers before, during and after events. In addition, we cater for private parties several times a week. If you have relevant experience and a passion for preparing food to a very high standard, we’ll be delighted to hear from you. You must be able to multitask and to work in a fast-paced environment. It goes without saying that working as an effective and supportive member of a team is essential so you need to be happy in this type of work.

The role includes the usual responsibilities, such as treating hygiene as your number one priority, cleaning work areas, and doing whatever is required to provide food of excellent quality. The person appointed will carry out a range of tasks, including ensuring all raw food items are fresh, preparing vegetables to be cooked, making sure frozen food products are used in rotation, and throwing away any food products that are near or have passed their expiry date. He or she will be required to familiarise themselves with the storage system, so as to put food product supplies in the proper place and retrieve them in the right order. In particular; we are looking for someone with skill at baking, to play a large role in the production of pies and cakes.

Given the nature of the venue, working hours vary from week to week, depending on the events being held, and will often involve starting early in the morning or finishing late at night. You can expect to work an average of around 18 hours a week, although this cannot be guaranteed. You will also have the opportunity to work in another of our sites for one or two days a week, or for longer periods, and will be paid for ten days of holidays a year, Training will be provided in food safety.

If this sounds like the job for you, please contact Jo Simmons at simmons.j@durrant-house.com.

Questions 15-19

Complete the notes below.

Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the text for each answer.
Write your answers in boxes 15-19 on your answer sheet,

Vacancy for food preparation assistant
Location of restaurant: in a (15)……………………

Requirements:
• relevant experience
• ability to multitask
• must enjoy working in a (16)…………………..

Responsibilities include:
• maintaining high standards of (17)…………………….
• checking the freshness of raw food
• ensuring no food is used after its expiry date
• learning the procedure for the (18)……………………….
• doing a considerable amount of the baking

Conditions:
• working hours are not (19)……………………..
• payment is made for holidays

Read the text below and answer Questions 20-27

Setting up a business partnership in the UK

Two or more people can go into business together by setting up either a limited company or a partnership. A partnership is the easier way to get started, and simply links two or more people together in a simple business structure. Unlike a limited company, a partnership doesn’t have a separate legal status. The partners are usually self-employed individuals, although a limited company counts as a ‘legal person’ and can also be a partner.

In a partnership, you and your partner or partners personally share responsibility for your business. This means, among other things, that if your business cannot afford to pay its debts, you must pay them yourselves. Again, this is not the case with a limited company. Partners share the business’s profits, and each partner pays tax on their share.

When you set up a business partnership you need to choose a name. You can trade under your own names, for example, ‘Smith and Jones’, or you can choose another name for your business. You don’t need to register your name. However, you should register your name as a trademark if you want to stop people from trading under your business name.

Business partnership names must not include ‘limited’, ‘Ltd’, ‘limited liability partnership’, ‘LLP’, ‘public limited company’ or ‘pic’, be offensive, or be the same as an existing trademark. Your name also can’t suggest a connection with government or local authorities, unless you get permission. There is no central database of partnership names in the UK, so to avoid using the same name as another business, it is advisable to search on the internet for the name you are considering.

You must include all the partners’ names and the business name (if you have one) on official paperwork, for example invoices. You must choose a ‘nominated partner’ who is responsible for registering your partnership with HM Revenue and Customs (HMRC), the government department responsible for the collection of taxes. This person is responsible for managing the partnership’s tax returns and keeping business records. Alternatively, you can appoint an agent to deal with HMRC on your behalf.

All partners need to register with HMRC separately and send their own tax returns as individuals. You must register by 5 October in your business’s second tax year, or you could be charged a penalty. You must also register for VAT if your VAT taxable turnover is more than £85,000. You can choose to register if it’s below this, for example to reclaim VAT on business supplies.

Questions 20-27

Complete the sentences below.

Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the text for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 20-27 on your answer sheet.

20. A partnership is different from a limited company in not having its own…………………as a legal body.
21. The partners are personally responsible for paying all the partnership’s……………………….
22. The partnership’s…………………………..are divided between the partners.
23. Registering the partnership’s name prevents others from using that name when……………………….
24. The best way to find out if a name is already in use is to use the…………………………
25. The names of the partners and the partnership must appear on…………………and other documents.
26. You must have a nominated partner, or someone to act as your……………….for all contact with HIVIRC.
27. You will have to pay a………………………if you miss the deadline for registering the partnership.

SECTION 3: Questions 28-40

Read the text below and answer Questions 28-40.

THE ROLE OF THE SWISS POSTBUS

The Swiss PostBus Limited is the largest of the country’s 78 coach companies. Administered by the Motor Services Department of the Post Office, it carries over 120 million passengers each year and is carefully integrated with other public transport services: trains, boats and mountain cableways. The Swiss transportation system resembles a tree, with the larger branches representing federal and private railways, the smaller branches being the coaches, and the twigs being the urban transit operators running trams, city buses, boats, chairlifts and so on. But the trunk that holds the tree together is the vast postbus network, without which the whole network would not function.

There isn’t an inhabited place in Switzerland that cannot be reached by some sort of public transport. Federal law and the Swiss Constitution stipulate that every village with a population greater than 40 is entitled to regular bus services. The frequency of these services is directly related to population density. Timetables are put together four years in advance, and seldom change. If a new route is to be introduced, the population of the area affected is invited to vote in a referendum.

At times, postbuses are the main — sometimes the only — links between settlements. These coaches, often with a trailer in tow to increase their capacity, are a common sight in high-altitude regions, and their signature sound — part of Rossini’s William Tell Overturn, played by the drivers on three-tone post horns with electrical compressors at every road turn — is one of the most familiar Swiss sounds.

The three-tone horns can still be used to ‘talk’ to post offices (and each other) from a distance. By altering the combination of the tones, a driver can announce ‘departure of post1, ‘arrival of post’, ‘arrival of special post’, and so on – so much more romantic and often more reliable than radio or mobile phones. This musical ‘language’ started in the mid-nineteenth century, when the coach drivers could also blow their horns a certain number of times on approaching the station to indicate the number of horses needing to be fed, giving the stationmaster time to prepare the fodder.

The postbus history goes back to 1849, when the Swiss postal service was made a monopoly. The role of today’s modern yellow buses was, back then, played by horse-drawn carriages (or in winter by sleighs, in order to travel on snow), which were the same colour. By 1914, eight years after the first motor coaches were introduced, there were still 2,500 horses, 2,231 coaches (or carriages) and 1,059 sleighs in service.

After the First World War, Swiss Post bought a fleet of decommissioned military trucks which were converted into postbuses, but it was not until 1961 that the last horse-drawn coach was replaced with a motorised version.

Today, the Swiss Post Office boasts one of the worlds most advanced coach fleets, including fuel-cell models and the world’s first driverless bus. This was launched in 2015 in the town of Sion, the capital of the canton of Valais, one of the 26 cantons, or administrative regions, that make up the country.

Postbuses often go to places that other means of transport cannot reach. Most of the drivers therefore see themselves as educators and tour guides. Although it’s not in their job description, they’re likely to point out the sights — waterfalls, gorges, and so on — and are always ready to pull over for a photo opportunity.

Switzerland’s longest postbus journey, and one of the highest, crosses four mountain passes – an eight-hour trip undertaken by a single postbus. The route goes through several cantons; two languages (German and Italian); all four seasons – from burning sunshine to showers and heavy snowfalls; and countless places of interest, One of the passes, the Gotthard, is often described as ‘the People’s Road’, probably because it connects the German-speaking canton of Uri with Italian-speaking Ticino. Like Switzerland itself, postbuses ‘speak’ all four state languages: German, French, Italian and Romansh – and by law, their automated intercom announcements are given in the language of whichever canton the bus is currently passing through.

Irrespective of their previous driving experience, drivers undergo lots of training. During the first year, they have, to drive postbuses under the supervision of a more experienced driver. Only after two years of safe driving in the valleys can they be pronounced ready for a mountain bus.

Some routes are not at all busy, with the bus often carrying just two or three passengers at a time. But for most people living in small mountain villages, the postbus is of the utmost importance. It not only carries the villagers to town and back, it takes village children to and from school, delivers mail, transports milk from the village farms down to the valley, collects rubbish from the village (Swiss laws do not allow dumping anywhere in the mountains), and brings building materials to households. It takes elderly villagers to shops and carries their shopping up the hill to their homes. More a friend than just a means of transportation, for the dwellers of mountain villages the postbus is an essential part of life.

Questions 28-32

Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.

Write the correct letter in boxes 28-32 on your answer sheet.

28. When comparing the Swiss transportation system to a tree, the writer emphasises
    1. the size of the postbus system.
    2. how competitive the postbus system is.
    3. how important the postbus system is.
    4. the threat to the postbus system.
29. What is said about bus services in the second paragraph?
    1. Villages have the chance to request more buses every four years.
    2. New routes are often introduced to reflect an increase in population.
    3. Bus timetables tend to change every four years.
    4. The number of buses that call at a village depends on how many people live there,
30. According to the fourth paragraph, what were three-tone horns first used to indicate?
    1. how many coach horses required food
    2. how long the bus would stay at the station
    3. how many passengers wanted a meal
    4. how soon the bus would arrive at the station
31. What point does the writer make about the postbus drivers?
    1. Many choose to give passengers information about the surroundings.
    2. Most are proud of driving buses to places without other forms of transport.
    3. They are required to inform passengers about the sights seen from the bus.
    4. They are not allowed to stop for passengers to take photographs.
32. What is said about the buses’ automated announcements?
    1. They are given in the language of the bus’s starting point.
    2. The language they are given in depends on where the bus is at the time.
    3. They are always given in all the four languages of Switzerland.
    4. The language they are given in depends on the bus’s destination.

Questions 33-40

Do the following statements agree with the information given in passage?

in boxes 33-40 on your answer sheet, write:

• TRUE if the statement agrees with the information
• FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
• NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this

33. Some postbuses after the First World War were originally army vehicles.
34. The number of driverless buses has increased steadily since 2015.
35. On the longest postbus route in Switzerland, passengers have to change buses.
36. The weather on the longest postbus route is likely to include extreme weather conditions.
37. There is a widely used nickname for part of the longest route used by postbuses.
38. Bus drivers’ training can be shortened if they have driven buses before joining Postbus.
39. In some villages most passengers are school children.
40. Buses carry only rubbish that can be recycled.

Cambridge IELTS 14 General Reading Test 4 section 1 The best travel wallets answers

1. D
2. B
3. C
4. F
5. D
6. G
7. E
8. B

Cambridge IELTS 14 General Reading Test 4

Cambridge IELTS 14 General Reading Test 4

Cambridge IELTS 14 General Reading Test 4

Cambridge IELTS 14 General Reading Test 4 section 1 UK rail services – how do l claim for my delayed train? Answers

9. True
10. False
11. False
12. Not given
13. True
14. True

Cambridge IELTS 14 General Reading Test 4 Section 2 Vacancy for food preparation assistant answers

15. Stadium
16. Team
17. Hygiene
18. Storage
19. Guaranteed

Cambridge IELTS General Reading Test 4 Section 2 Setting up a business partnership in the UK

20. Status
21. Debts
22. Profits
23. Trading
24. Internet
25. Invoices
26. Agent
27. Penalty

Cambridge IELTS General Reading Test 4 Section 3 THE ROLE OF THE SWISS POSTBUS answers

28. C
29. D
30. A
31. A
32. B
33. True
34. Not given
35. False
36. True
37. True
38. False
39. Not give
40. Not given