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  • Cambridge IELTS 12 Listening Test 3

    Section 1: Questions 1-10

    Complete the notes below.

    Write NO MORE THAN ONE WORD OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    Public Library
    The library re-opened last month

    The library now has
    • A seating area with magazines
    • An expanded section for books on (1) ……………………….
    • A new section on local (2) ……………………….
    • A community room for meetings (also possible to (3)  ………………………. there)
    • A new section of books for (4) ……………………….

    For younger children
    • The next Science club meeting: experiments using things from your (5) ……………………….
    • Reading challenge: read six books during the holidays

    For adults
    • This Friday: a local author talks about a novel based on a real (6) ……………………….
    • IT support is available on Tuesday-no (7) ……………………….  is necessary
    • Free check of blood (8) ………………………. and cholesterol levels

    Other information
    • The library shop sells wall charts, cards and (9) ……………………….
    • Evenings and weekends: free (10) ………………………. is available

    Section 2: Questions 11-20

    Questions 11 and 12

    Choose TWO letters A-E.

    Which TWO age groups are taking increasing numbers of holidays with BC Travel?

    1. 16-30 years
    2. 31-42 years
    3. 43-54 years
    4. 55-64 years
    5. over 65 years
    Questions 13 and 14

    Choose TWO letters A-E.

    Which TWO are the main reasons given for the popularity of activity holidays?

    1. clients make new friends
    2. clients learn a useful skill
    3. clients learn about a different culture
    4. clients are excited by the risk involved
    5. clients find them good value for money
    Questions 15-17

    Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

    1. How does BC Travel plan to expand the painting holidays?
      1. by adding to the number of locations
      2. by increasing the range of levels
      3. by employing more teachers
    2. Why are BC Travel’s cooking holidays unusual?
      1. they only use organic foods
      2. they have an international focus
      3. they mainly involve vegetarian dishes
    3. What does the speaker say about the photography holidays?
      1. clients receive individual tuition
      2. the tutors are also trained guides
      3. advice is given on selling photographs
    Questions 18-20

    Complete the table below.

    Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

    FITNESS HOLIDAY

    LocationMain focusOther comments
    Ireland and ItalyGeneral fitness– personally designed programme
    – also reduces (18)……………
    Greece(19)……………….control– includes exercise on the beach
    MoroccoMountain biking– wide variety of levels
    – one holiday that is specially designed for (20)…………………


    Section 3: Questions 21-26

    Complete the flow chart below.

    Choose SIX answers from the options A-H given below.

    A. PatternsB. NamesC. SourcesD. Questions
    E. EmployeesF. SolutionsG. HeadingsH. Officials

    STAGES IN DOING A TOURISM CASE STUDY
    RESEARCH

    • Locate and read relevant articles, noting key information and also (21) ………………………. identify a problem or need
    • Select interviewees – these may be site (22) ………………………. , visitors for city (23) ……………………….
    • Prepare and carry out interview. If possible collect statistics.
    • Check whether (24)  of interviewees can be used

    ANALYSIS
    • Select relevant information and try to identify (25) ……………………….
    • Decide on the best form of visuals

    WRITING THE CASE STUDY
    • Give some background writing the main sections
    • Do not end with (26) ……………………….

    Questions 27-30

    Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

    The Horton Castle Site

    1. Natalie and Dave agree one reason why so few people visit Horton Castle is that
      1. the publicity is poor
      2. it is difficult to get to
      3. there is little there of interest
    2. Natalie and Dave agree that the greatest problem with a visitor centre could be
      1. covering the investment costs
      2. finding a big enough space for it
      3. dealing with planning restrictions
    3. What does Dave say about conditions in the town of Horton?
      1. there is a lot of unemployment
      2. there are few people of working age
      3. there are opportunities for skilled worker
    4. According to Natalie, one way to prevent damage to the castle site would be to
      1. insist visitors have a guide
      2. make visitors keep to the paths
      3. limit visitor numbers

    Section 4: Questions 31-40

    Complete the notes below.

    Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

    The effects of environmental change on birds

    Mercury (Hg)
    • Highly toxic
    • Released into the atmosphere from coal
    • In water it may be consumed by fish
    • It has also recently been found to affect birds which feed on (31) ……………………….

    Research on effects of mercury on birds
    • Claire Varian Ramos is investigating:
    o The effects on birds’ (32)  ………………………. or mental processes e.g. memory
    o The effects on bird song (usually learned from a bird’s (33) ………………………. )
    • Findings:
    o Songs learned by birds exposed to mercury are less (34) ……………………….
    o This may have a negative effect on birds’ (35) ……………………….
    • Lab based studies:
    o Allow more (36) ……………………….  for the experimenter

    Implications for humans
    • Migrating birds such as (37)  ………………………. containing mercury may be eaten by humans
    • Mercury also causes problems in learning (38) ……………………….
    • Mercury in a mother’s body from (39)  ………………………. may affect the unborn child
    • New regulations for mercury emissions will affect everyone’s energy (40) ……………………….

    Cambridge IELTS 12 Listening Test 3 Section 1 Answers
    1. travel
    2. history
    3. study
    4. teenagers
    5. kitchen
    6. crime
    7. appointment/ booking
    8. sugar
    9. stamps
    10. parking
    Cambridge IELTS 12 Listening Test 3 Section 2 Answers
    1. D
    2. E
    3. A
    4. C
    5. C
    6. B
    7. A
    8. stress
    9. weight
    10. families
    Cambridge IELTS 12 Listening Test 3 Section 3 Answers
    1. C
    2. E
    3. H
    4. B
    5. A
    6. F
    7. A
    8. C
    9. B
    10. B
    Cambridge IELTS 12 Listening Test 3 Section 4 Answers
    1. insects
    2. behaviour
    3. father
    4. complex
    5. reproduction
    6. control
    7. ducks
    8. language
    9. food
    10. cost/ price
  • Cambridge IELTS 6 Listening Test 2

    Part 1: Questions 1-5

    Complete the notes below.

    Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    Children’s Art and Craft Workshops
    • Adults must accompany children under (1) ……………
    • Cost: £2.50
    • Workshops held in: Winter House, (2) …………… Street
    • Security device: must push the (3) …………… to open door
    • Should leave car behind the (4) ……………
    • Book workshops by phoning the (5) …………… (on 200765)

    Questions 6-10

    Complete the table below.

    Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

    DateWorkshop titleChildren advised to wearPlease bring (if possible)
    16/11building (6)……………..(7)………………….(8)…………………..
    23/11(9)………………nothing special(10)…………………

    Section 2: Questions 11-14

    Complete the sentences below.

    Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    TRAIN INFORMATION

    1. Local services depart from  railway station.
    2. National services depart from the  railway station.
    3. Trains for London depart every  each day during the week.
    4. The price of a first class ticket includes 
    Questions 15-17

    Complete the form below.

    Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    Type of ticketDetails
    Standard opneno restrictions
    Supersavetravel after 8.45
    Specialtravel after (15)……………….and at weekends
    (16)…………………buy at least six days ahead limited numbers (17)………………essential
    Questions 18-20

    Which THREE attractions can you visit at present by train from Trebirch?

    1. a science museum
    2. a theme park
    3. a climbing wall
    4. a mining museum
    5. an aquarium
    6. a castle
    7. a zoo

    Section 3: Questions 21-30

    Complete the form below.

    Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    Target previously agreedWork completedFurther action suggested
    Investigate suitable data analysis software– read IT (21)……………
    – spoken to Jane Prince, Head of the (22)……………
    sign up for some software practice sessions
    Prepare a (23)……………….for survery– completed and sent for reviewadd questions in section three on (24)…………
    Further reading about discipline– read Banerjee
    – N.B. could not find Ericsson’s essays on managing the (25)……………………
    obtain from library through special loans service
    New targetWork completedTiming
    Do further work on Chapter 1 (give the title: Context (26)………………– add statistics on the (27)………… in various zones
    – include more references to works dated after (28)………………
    by the (29)………………….
    Prepare list of main sections for Chapter 2– use index cards to help in oranisationbefore stating the (30)………………..

    Section 4: Questions 31-37

    1. Some photographs of a horse running showed
      1. all feet off the ground
      2. at least one foot on the ground
      3. two feet off the ground
    2. The Scotsman employed by Edison
      1. designed a system to use the technology Edison had invited
      2. used available technology to make a new system
      3. was already an expert in motion picture technology
    3. One major problem with the first system was that
      1. only one person could be filmed
      2. people could only see very short films
      3. the camera was very heavy
    4. Rival systems started to appear in Europe after people had
      1. been told about the American system
      2. seen the American system
      3. used the American system
    5. In 1895, a famous new system was developed by
      1. a French team working alone
      2. a Fernch and German team working together
      3. a German team who invented the word ‘cinema’
    6. Longer filmes were not made at the time because of problems involving
      1. the subject matters
      2. the camera
      3. the film projector
    7. The ‘Lantham Loop’ invention relied on
      1. removing tension between the film reels
      2. adding three more films reels to the system
      3. making one of the film reels more effective
    Questions 38-40

    Complete the sentences below.

    Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

    1. The first motion picture was called The 
    2. were used for the first time on film in 1926.
    3. Subtitles were added to The Lights of New York because of its 
    Cambridge IELTS 6 Listening Test 2 Section 1 Answers
    1. 8
    2. (in/on) Tamer
    3. green button
    4. library
    5. education department
    6. castles
    7. old clothes
    8. bottle tops
    9. undersea worlds
    10. silver paper
    Cambridge IELTS 6 Listening Test 2 Section 2 Answers
    1. king street
    2. central
    3. half hour / 30 minutes
    4. refreshments
    5. 10.15
    6. advance
    7. (seat) reservations
    8. C OR D OR G (in any order)
    9. C OR D OR G (in any order)
    10. C OR D OR G (in any order)
    Cambridge IELTS 6 Listening Test 2 Section 3 Answers
    1. catalog(ue)s
    2. computer centre
    3. checklist
    4. teaching experience
    5. classroom
    6. review
    7. schools
    8. ((the) year) 2000
    9. end of term
    10. research
    Cambridge IELTS 6 Listening Test 2 Section 4 Answers
    1. A
    2. B
    3. C
    4. A
    5. A
    6. C
    7. A
    8. great train robbery
    9. sound effects
    10. poor sound quality
  • Cambridge IELTS 7 Listening Test 2

    Section 1: Questions 1-10

    Complete the form below.

    Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER.

    CAR INSURANCE

    Name: Patrick Jones
    Address: (1) …………………… , Greendale
    Contact number: (2) ……………………
    Size of car engine: 1200cc
    Type of car: Manufacturer: Hewton
    Model: (3) ……………………
    Year: 1997
    Previous insurance company: (4) ……………………
    Any insurance claims in the last five year? Yes
    If yes, give brief details: Car was (5)  in 1999
    Name(s) of other driver(s): Simon (6) ……………………
    Relationship to main driver: (7) ……………………
    Uses of car: Social and (8) ……………………
    Start date: 31st January
    Recommended insurance arrangement: Name of company: (9) ……………………
    Annual Cost: (10) ……………………  $ 

    Part 2: Questions 11-20

    Questions 11 and 12

    Label the map below.

    Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS.

    Cambridge IELTS 7 Listening Test 2 Boat trip road map
    Questions 13-18

    Complete the table below.

    Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS OR A NUMBER.

    AttractionFurther information
    STOP A:
    Main booking office
    First boat: 8 am
    Last boat: (13)………….pm
    Palace– has lovely (14)……………..
    STOP B:(15)……………..– has good (16)……………….of city centre
    STOP C:Museum– bookshop specializing in the (17)………………of the local area
    STOP D:Entertainment Complex(18)……………….cinema
    – bowling alley
    – video games arcade
    Questions 19 and 20

    Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    1. How often do the Top Bus Company tours run? 
    2. Where can you catch a Number One Sightseeing Tour from? 

    Section 3: Questions 21-26

    Questions 21-26

    Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

    1. The Antarctic Centre was established in Christchurch because
      1. New Zealand is a member of the Antarctic Treaty
      2. Christchurch is geographically well positioned
      3. the climate of Christchurch is suitable
    2. One role of the Antarctic Centre is to
      1. provide expeditions with suitable equipment
      2. provide researchers with financial assistance
      3. ensure that research is internationally relevant
    3. The purpose of the Visitors’ Centre is to
      1. provide accommodation
      2. run training sessions
      3. show people what Antarctica is like
    4. Dr Merrywhether says that Antarctica is
      1. unlike any other country
      2.  extremely beautiful
      3. too cold for tourists
    5. According to Dr Merrywhether, Antarctica is very cold because
      1. of the shape of the continent
      2. it is surrounded by a frozen sea
      3. it is an extremely dry continent
    6. Dr Merrywhether thinks Antarctica was part of another continent because
      1. he has done his own research in the area
      2. there is geological evidence of this
      3. it is very close to South America
    Questions 27 and 28

    Complete the table below.

    Write ONE WORD OR TWO NUMBERS.

    ANTARCTIC TREATY

    DateEvent
    1870polar search meeting
    (27)……………to………….1st international polar year
    1957Antarctic treaty was proposed
    1959Antarctic treaty was (28)…………………….
    Questions 29 and 30

    Choose TWO letters A-E.

    Which TWO achievements of the Antarctic Treaty are mentioned by the speakers?

    1. no military use
    2.  animals protected
    3.  historic sites reserved
    4.  no nuclear testing
    5.  fishing rites protected

    Section 4: Questions 31-40

    Questions 31-35

    Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

    Left and Right Handedness in Sport

    1. Anita first felt the Matthews article was of value when she realised
      1. how it would help her difficulties with left-handedness
      2. the relevance of connections he made with music
      3. the impressive size of his research project
    2. Anita feels that the findings on handedness will be of value in
      1. helping sportspeople identify their weaknesses
      2. aiding sportspeople as they plan tactics for each game
      3. developing suitable training programmes for sportspeople
    3. Anita feels that most sports coaches
      1. know nothing about the influence of handedness
      2. focus on the wrong aspects of performance
      3. underestimate what science has to offer sport
    4. A German study showed there was greater ‘mixed handedness’ in musicians who
      1. started playing instruments in early youth
      2. Blplay a string instrument such as the violin
      3. practise a great deal on their instrument
    5. Studies on ape behaviour show that
      1. apes which always use the same hand to get food are most successful
      2. apes have the same proportion of left- and right-handers as humans
      3. more apes are left-handed than right-handed
    Questions 36-40

    Complete the table below.

    Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS OR A NUMBER.

    SportBest lateralityComments
    Hockeymixed laterality– hockey stick has to be used in (36)……………
    – mixed-handed players found to be much more (37)……………than others
    Tennissingle laterality– gives a larger relevant field of (38)…………..
    – cross lateral players make (39)……………….too late
    Gymnasticscross laterality– gymnasts’ (40)………………..is important for performances
    Cambridge IELTS 7 Listening Test 2 Section 1 Answers
    1. 27 bank road
    2. (a) dentist
    3. sable
    4. northern star
    5. stolen
    6. Paynter
    7. brother-in-law
    8. (travel(ling/ing)) (to) work
    9. red flag
    10. 450
    Cambridge IELTS 7 Listening Test 2 Section 2 Answers
    1. city bridge
    2. newton
    3. 6.30
    4. (formal) garden
    5. (tower) restaurant
    6. view(s)
    7. history
    8. 7 screen
    9. every 20 minutes
    10. (from/ the) Central Station
    Cambridge IELTS 7 Listening Test 2 Section 3 Answers
    1. B
    2. A
    3. C
    4. B
    5. A
    6. B
    7. 1882 (to / -) (18)83
    8. signed
    9. A or D (In either order)
    10. A or D (In either order)
    Cambridge IELTS 7 Listening Test 2 Section 4 Answers
    1. C
    2. B
    3. C
    4. A
    5. A
    6. 2 directions
    7. confident
    8. lvision
    9. corrections
    10. balance
  • Cambridge IELTS 2 Listening Test 3

    Section 1: Questions 1-10

    Questions 1-4
    1. The respondent works in
      1. the professions
      2. business
      3. other
    2. The respondent has a salary of
      1. £ 0-15,000 a year
      2. £ 15,000-35,000 a year
      3. over £35,000 a year
    3. The respondent watched TV for
      1. relaxation
      2. entertainment
      3. information
    4. Every day the respondent watches TV for
      1. 30 min – 1 hour
      2. 1 hour – 2 hours
      3. more than 2 hours
    Questions 5-7

    Choose TWO letters A-E

    1. The respondent mainly watches TV
      1. in the early morning
      2. around midday
      3. in the afternoon
      4. in the early evening
      5. at night
    2. 6. On the new channel the respondent would like to see more
      1. children’s programmes
      2. documentaries
      3. local service programmes
      4. travel programmes
      5. health programmes
    3. The respondent would advise the new channel to
      1. spend more money on drama
      2. train their broadcasters to higher standards
      3. improve sound quality
      4. broadcast interviews with famous people
      5. talk more to customers
    Questions 8-10

    Circle the correct letter A-C.

    1. The respondent feels that adverts should occur only
      1. 10 minutes
      2. 15 minutes
      3. 20 minutes
    2. The respondent would like to attend special promotions if
      1. expenses are paid
      2. he is invited specially
      3. they are held locally
    3. The respondent would like to receive
      1. no mail
      2. requested mail
      3. all mail

    Section 2: Questions 11-14

    Questions 11-14

    Circle FOUR letters A-G.

    Which FOUR activities of the Union are mentioned by the speaker?

    1. raising money for good causes
    2. political campaigning
    3. running a new agency
    4. running a supermarket
    5. providing cheap tickets
    6. helping with accommodation
    7. providing catering services
    Questions 15 and 16

    Circle TWO letters A-E.

    Which TWO of the following can you get advice about from the Union?

    1. immigration
    2. grants
    3. medical problems
    4. personal problems
    5. legal matters
    Questions 17-20

    Write the appropriate letters A-C against questions 17-20.

    What are the locations of the following places in Radford?

    1. part of the Metro Tower Building
    2. in the main square in the centre of the town
    3. some distance from the centre of the town
    1. the hi-tech fitness centre 
    2. the ice rink 
    3. the new cinema 
    4. the Theatre Royal 

    Section 3: Questions 21-30

    Questions 21-23

    Complete the notes below.

    Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    DISSERTATION INFORMATION
    Hand-in-date: (21) ……………………….
    Length: (22) ………………………. to 
    Extra programme offered on: (23) ……………………….

    Question 24-26

    Complete the table below.

    DISSERTATION TIMETABLE

    DateAction
    31 Januarybasic bibliography
    7 February(24)………………..
    February – March(25)……………….
    (26)……………….to……………….write up work
    21 Mayhand in work
    Questions 27-30

    What is Dr Simon’s opinions on the following points?

    Tick column A if he is in favour
    Tick column B if he has no strong opinion either way
    Tick column C if he is against

    ABC
    27. Buying a computer…..…..…..
    28. Reading previous year’s dissertation…..…..…..
    29. Using questionnaires as main research instrument…..…..…..
    30. Interviewing tutors…..…..…..

    Section 4: Questions 31-40

    Questions 31-37

    Circle the correct letters A-C.

    1. The driest continent is
      1. Australia
      2. Africa
      3. Antarctica
    2. The evaporation rate in Australia is
      1. lower than Africa
      2. higher than Africa
      3. about the same as Africa
    3. Rainfall in Australia hardly penetrates the soil because
      1. the soil is too hard
      2. the soil is too hot
      3. plants use it up
    4. In sandy soils water can
      1. evaporate quickly
      2. seep down to rock
      3. wash the soil away
    5. Water is mainly pumped up for
      1. people to drink
      2. animals to drink
      3. watering crops
    6. Natural springs are located
      1. in unexplored parts of Australia
      2. quite commonly over all Australia
      3. in a few areas of Australia
    7. Underground water supplies
      1. 18% of Australia’s water
      2. 48% of Australia’s water
      3. 80% of Australia’s water
    Questions 38-40

    Circle THREE letters A-E.

    Which THREE of the following uses of dam water are mentioned?

    1. providing water for livestock
    2. watering farmland
    3. providing water for industry
    4. controlling flood water
    5. producing hydro-electric power
    Cambridge IELTS 2 Listening Test 3 Section 1 Answers
    1. B
    2. C
    3. A
    4. B
    5. A, E
    6. A, C
    7. C, E
    8. B
    9. C
    10. B
    Cambridge IELTS 2 Listening Test 3 Section 2 Answers
    1. A
    2. C
    3. E
    4. G
    5. B
    6. E
    7. C
    8. A
    9. A
    10. B
    Cambridge IELTS 2 Listening Test 3 Section 3 Answers
    1. 21 May
    2. 18000-20000
    3. research methods
    4. plan
    5. research
    6. march to may
    7. A
    8. A
    9. C
    10. B
    Cambridge IELTS 2 Listening Test 3 Section 4 Answers
    1. C
    2. B
    3. C
    4. B
    5. B
    6. C
    7. A
    8. B
    9. D
    10. E




  • Cambridge IELTS 13 Listening Test 2

    Section 1: Questions 1-10

    Complete the notes below.

    Write ONE WORD OR A NUMBER.

    South city cycling club

    Name of club secretary: Jim Hunter

    Membership
    • Full membership costs $260; this covers cycling and (1) ………………………. all over Australia
    • Recreational membership costs $108
    • Cost of membership includes the club fee and ………………………. (2) 
    • The club kit is made by a company called (3) ……………………….

    Training rides
    • Chance to improve cycling skills and fitness
    • Level B: speed about (4) ………………………. kph
    • Weekly sessions
    o Tuesdays at 5.30 am, meet at the (5) ……………………….
    o Thursdays at 5.30 am, meet at the entrance to the (6) ……………………….

    Further information
    • Rides are about an hour and half
    • Members often have (7) ……………………….  together afterwards
    • There is not always a (8) ……………………….  with the group on these rides
    • Check and print the (9) ………………………. on the website beforehand
    • Bikes must have (10) ……………………….

    Section 2: Questions 11-20

    Questions 11-16

    Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

    Information on company volunteering projects

    1. How much time for volunteering does the company allow per employee?
      1. two hours per week
      2. one day per month
      3. 8 hours per year
    2. In feedback almost all employees said that volunteering improved their
      1. chances of promotion
      2. job satisfaction
      3. relationships with colleagues
    3. Last year some staff helped unemployed people with their
      1. literacy skills
      2. job applications
      3. communication skills
    4. This year the company will start a new volunteering project with a local
      1. school
      2. park
      3. charity
    5. Where will the Digital inclusion Day be held?
      1. at the company’s training facility
      2. at a college
      3. in a community centre
    6. What should staff do if they want to take part in the Digital Inclusion Day?
      1. fill in a form
      2. attend a training workshop
      3. get permission from their managers
    Questions 17 and 18

    Choose TWO letters A-E.

    Which TWO things are mentioned about the participants on the last Digital Inclusion Day?

    1. they were all over 70
    2. they never used their computer
    3. their phones were mostly old fashioned
    4. they only used their phones for making calls
    5. they initially showed little interest
    Questions 19 and 20

    Choose TWO letters A-E.

    What TWO activities on the last Digital Inclusion Day did participants describe as useful?

    1. learning to use tablets
    2. communicating with family
    3. shopping online
    4. playing online games
    5. sending emails

    Section 3: Questions 21-30

    Questions 21-25

    Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

    Planning a presentation on nanotechnology

    1. Russ says that his difficulty in planning the presentation is due to
      1. his lack of knowledge about the topic.
      2. his uncertainty about what he should try to achieve.
      3. the short time that he has for preparation.
    2. Russ and his tutor agree that his approach in the presentation will be
      1. to concentrate on how nanotechnology is used in one field.
      2. to follow the chronological development of nanotechnology.
      3. to show the range of applications of nanotechnology.
    3. In connection with slides, the tutor advises Russ to
      1. talk about things that he can find slides to illustrate.
      2. look for slides to illustrate the points he makes.
      3. consider omitting slides altogether.
    4. They both agree that the best way for Russ to start his presentation is
      1. to encourage the audience to talk.
      2. to explain what Russ intends to do.
      3. to provide an example.
    5. What does the tutor advise Russ to do next while preparing his presentation?
      1. summarise the main point he wants to make
      2. read the notes he has already made
      3. list the topics he wants to cover
    Questions 26-30

    Choose FIVE answers from the box and write the correct letter A-G next to questions 26-30.

    What comments do the speakers make about each of the following aspects of Russ’s previous presentation?

    Comments

    1. lacked a conclusion
    2. useful in the future
    3. not enough
    4. sometimes distracting
    5. showed originality
    6. covered a wide range
    7. not too technical

    Aspects of Russ’s previous presentation

    1. structure 
    2. eye contact 
    3. body language 
    4. choice of words 
    5. handouts 

    Section 4: Questions 31-40

    Complete the notes below.

    Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

    Episodic memory
    • The ability to recall details e.g. the time and (31) ………………………. of past events
    • Different to semantic memory- the ability to remember general information about the
    (32)
    ……………………….  which does not involve recalling (33) ………………………. information

    Forming episodic memories involves three steps:
    Encoding
    • Involves receiving and processing information
    • The more (34) ………………………. given to an event the more successfully it can be encoded
    • To remember a (35) ………………………. it is useful to have a strategy for encoding such information

    Consolidation
    • How memories are strengthened and stored
    • Most effective when memories can be added to a (36) ……………………….
    • The (37)  ………………………. of retrieval affects the strength of memories

    Retrieval
    • Memory retrieval often depends on using a prompt e.g. the (38)  ………………………. of an object near to the place where you left your car

    Episodic memory impairments
    • These affect people with a wide range of medical conditions
    • Games which stimulate the (39)  ………………………. have been found to help people with schizophrenia
    • Children with autism may have difficulty forming episodic memories – possibly because their concept of the (40)  ………………………. may be absent
    • Memory training may help autistic children to develop social skills

    Cambridge IELTS 13 Listening Test 2 Section 1 Answers
    1. races
    2. insurance
    3. Jerriz
    4. 25
    5. stadium
    6. park
    7. coffee
    8. leader
    9. route
    10. lights
    Cambridge IELTS 13 Listening Test 2 Section 2 Answers

    1. 11. C
    2. 12. B
    3. 13. C
    4. 14. B
    5. 15. B
    6. 16. A
    7. 17. C
    8. 18. E
    9. 19. B
    10. 20. D
    Cambridge IELTS 13 Listening Test 2 Section 3 Answers
    1. 21. B
    2. 22. A
    3. 23. C
    4. 24. C
    5. 25. A
    6. 26. A
    7. 27. C
    8. 28. D
    9. 29. G
    10. 30. B
    Cambridge IELTS 13 Listening Test 2 Section 4 Answers

    1. 31. location
    2. 32. world
    3. 33. personal
    4. 34. attention
    5. 35. name
    6. 36. network
    7. 37. frequency
    8. 38. color
    9. 39. brain
    10. 40. self
  • Cambridge IELTS 3 Listening Test 1

    Section 1: Questions 1-10

    Complete the notes below.

    Areas dealt with: (1) ………………………. and north suburbs
    Rent: from (2) ………………………. £  to £  a month
    Depends on: the area availability of (3) ………………………. garage
    Properties available: West Park Road
    rent (4) ………………………. £  a month
    including (5) ……………………….
    Tithe Road rent £380 a month including (6) ………………………. rental
    Viewing arrangements: meet at office on (7) ………………………. at 5.00 pm
    Need: letter from bank
    reference from (8) ……………………….
    Must: give (9) ……………………. notice of moving in
    give deposit of (10)  ………………………. pay for contract

    Section 2: Questions 11-20

    Questions 11 and 12

    Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

    1. Who is Mrs Sutton worried about? 
    2. What is the name for a group of family doctors working in the same building together? 
    Questions 13-17

    Complete the form below.

    Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    Name of health centreNumber of doctorsOther informationInformation about doctors
    Dean End(13)………………..appointment system (15)…………..than South HayDr. Jones is good with (16)…………patients

    Dr. Shaw is good with small children
    South Hay(14)………………..building less modern than Dean EndDr. Williams helps people with (17)………….
    Question 18

    Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS OR A NUMBER.

    1. Doctors start seeing patients at the Health Centre from  o’clock.
    Question 19

    Choose TWO letters A-E.

    Which TWO groups of patients receive free medication?

    1. people over 17 years old
    2. unemployed people
    3. non-UK residents
    4. people over 60 years old
    5. pregnant women
    Question 20

    Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS OR A NUMBER.

    20. The charge for one item of medication is about £ 

    Section 3: Questions 21-30

    Complete the form below.

    Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    Name: Jonathan Briggs
    Degree: Economic and (21) ……………………….
    Teaching experience: Volunteer teacher
    Location: (22) ……………………….
    Dates: (23) ……………………….
    Volunteer organization: (24) ……………………….
    Type of school: (25) ……………………….
    Subject taught: (26)  Forms 1, 2 and 3
    English Form (27) ……………………….
    Agriculture science Form 6

    Reasons for wanting to leave in first year: (28) ……………………….
    – Few teaching resources
    Reasons for wanting to extend tour: – success of cattle breeding project
    – Obtained funds for farm building
    Reasons for wanting to train to teach Geography: it is his (29) ……………………….
    It has many (30) ……………………….

    Part 4: Questions 31-40

    Questions 31-36

    Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

    31. Which column of the bar chart represents the figures quoted?

    Cambridge IELTS 3 Listening Test 1 Question 31 chart. Which column of the bar chart represents the figures quoted?
    1. According to the speaker, the main cause of back pain in women is
      1. pregnancy
      2. osteoporosis
      3. lack of exercise
    2. As treatment for back pain the Clinic mainly recommends
      1. pain killers
      2. relaxation therapy
      3. exercise routines
    3. The back is different from other parts of the body because
      1. it is usually better at self-repair.
      2. a back injury is usually more painful.
      3. its response to injury often results in more damage.
    4. Bed rest is advised
      1. for a maximum of two days.
      2. for extreme pain only.
      3. for pain lasting more than two days.
    5. Being overweight
      1. is a major source of back pain.
      2. worsens existing back pain.
      3. reduces the effectiveness of exercise.
    Questions 37-40

    Choose the correct option.

    A – Strongly recommendedB – Recommended in certain circumstancesC – Not recommended
    Example: diet if overweightyes
    37. buy special orthopedic chairs
    38. buy shock-absorbing inserts
    39. wear flat shoes
    40. buy TENS machine
    Cambridge IELTS 7 Listening Test 3 Section 1 Answers
    1. city centre
    2. 250 to 500
    3. garden
    4. 325
    5. water bills
    6. phone
    7. wednesday
    8. employer
    9. 2 weeks
    10. one month’s rent
    Cambridge IELTS 7 Listening Test 3 Section 2 Answers
    1. her daughter Anna
    2. a practice
    3. about 6
    4. about 4
    5. better/ more efficient
    6. old
    7. back problems
    8. 9 am
    9. B and E
    10. 5
    Cambridge IELTS 7 Listening Test 3 Section 3 Answers
    1. politics
    2. africa
    3. 1990 to 1992
    4. teach south
    5. rural cooperative
    6. geography
    7. (form) 5
    8. homesick/ missed
    9. favorite subject
    10. applications
    Cambridge IELTS 7 Listening Test 3 Section 4 Answers
    1. A
    2. B
    3. B
    4. C
    5. A
    6. B
    7. B
    8. A
    9. B
    10. C
  • Cambridge IELTS 2 Listening Test 4

    Part 1: Questions 1-10

    Questions 1 and 2

    Complete the notes below.

    Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

    MIC HOUSE AGENCY REPAIRS

    Address: Apartment 2, (1) ……………………….  , Newton
    Length of lease: one year
    Date moved in: (2) ……………………….

    Questions 3-9
    Complete the table below. Write

    A if the repair will be done immediately
    B if the repair will be done during the following week
    C if the repair will be done in two or more weeks

    ItemProblemWhen to be done
    Cooker(3)…………………(4)………………..
    Windows(5)………………….B
    (6)………………….flickers(7)…………………
    (8)………………….torn(9)…………………..
    Question 10

    Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    Workman to call between (10) ………………………. and 

    Part 2: Questions 11-20

    Questions 11 and 12

    Circle the correct letters A-C.

    1. At rainforest lodge there aren’t any
      1. telephones or TVs
      2. newspapers or TVs
      3. telephones or newspapers
    2. The guests are told to
      1. carry their luggage to the cabin
      2. go straight to the restaurant
      3. wait an hour for dinner
    Questions 13-15

    Complete the table below.

    Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

    Tour NameDetails
    Orchid and Fungiwalking tour
    Four Wheel Drivetour to the (13)………………
    Fishingto catch lunch
    Crocodile Cruisedeparts at (14)………………..daily
    (15)…………………departs at sundown
    Questions 16-20

    Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

    What THREE items of clothing does the speaker recommend for the rainforest?
    (16) …………………………
    (17) …..…………………….
    (18) …………………………

    Which TWO things in the rainforest does the speaker give a warning about?
    (19)  …………………………. and (20) ………………………….

    Part 3: Questions 21-30

    Questions 21-25

    Circle the correct letters A-C

    1. These sessions with a counsellor are
      1. compulsory for all students
      2. available to any students
      3. for science students only
    2. The counsellor says that new students have to
      1. spend more time on the college premises
      2. get used to working independently
      3. work harder than they did at school
    3. John complains that the resource centre
      1. has limited opening hours
      2. has too few resources
      3. gets too crowded
    4. The counsellor suggests to John that
      1. most other students can cope
      2. he needs to study all the time
      3. he should be able to fit in some leisure activities
    5. Before being able to help John the counsellor needs to
      1. talk with some of his lecturers
      2. consult his tutor
      3. get more information from him
    Questions 26-30

    Complete the notes below.

    Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

    Writing
    • Pay careful attention to the question
    • Leave time to (26) ……………………….

    Listening
    • Try to (27) ………………………. lectures
    • Check notes with (28) ……………………….

    Reading
    • Choose topics of (29) ……………………….
    • Buy a good (30) ……………………….

    Part 4: Questions 31-40

    Questions 31-35

    Circle the correct letters A-C.

    1. John was first interested in the subject because of something
      1. he had witnessed
      2. he had read about
      3. he had experienced
    2. The main research method was
      1. interviews
      2. questionnaires
      3. observation

     A
     B
     C

    1. How many respondents were there?
      1. 50-100
      2. 100-150
      3. 150-200
    2. The most common type of road rage incident involved
      1. damage to property
      2. personal violence
      3. verbal abuse
    Questions 36-40

    Which group gave the following advice?

    Tick Column A if it was mainly women.
    Tick Column B if it was mainly men.
    Tick Column C if it was both men and women.

    ABC
    Example: do not stop to ask directions
    36. Avoid eye contact with other drivers
    37. Inform someone of your likely arrival time
    38. Ensure car keys are ready when you return to the car
    39. Leave plenty of space when parking
    40. Keep all doors locked
    Cambridge IELTS 2 Listening Test 4 Section 1 Answers
    1. 16 rose lane
    2. 27 June
    3. door broken
    4. C
    5. no locks
    6. bathroom light
    7. A
    8. kitchen curtains
    9. B
    10. 1 pm and 5 pm
    Cambridge IELTS 2 Listening Test 4 Section 2 Answers
    1. B
    2. C
    3. waterfall
    4. 11
    5. spotlight
    6. walking boots
    7. socks
    8. long trousers
    9. snakes
    10. plants
    Cambridge IELTS 2 Listening Test 4 Section 3 Answers
    1. B
    2. B
    3. A
    4. C
    5. C
    6. check work
    7. record
    8. friend
    9. general interest
    10. dictionary
    Cambridge IELTS 2 Listening Test 4 Section 4 Answers
    1. B
    2. A
    3. A
    4. B
    5. C
    6. B
    7. A
    8. C
    9. B
    10. C




  • Cambridge IELTS 7 Listening Test 2 Transcript

    Cambridge IELTS 7 Listening Test 2 Audioscript/Tapescript with answer keys and explanation

    Section 1

    WOMANHello…motor insurance department…
    MANOh hello… I’d like to ask about insurance for my car.
    WOMANYes, of course. I’ll just take a few details. What’s your name?
    MANPatrick Jones.Example
    WOMANAnd your address?
    MANIt’s 27 Bank Road.Q1
    WOMAN27 Bank Road. Is that in Greendale?
    MANYes.
    WOMANAnd what’s your daytime phone number?
    MANMy work number is 730453.
    WOMANAnd could I ask what your occupation is?
    MANDentist.Q2
    WOMANOK… now a few details about your car… What size is the engine?
    MAN It’s 1200 ccs.
    WOMANThank you… and the make and model?
    MANIt’s a Hewton Sable.
    WOMANCould you spell the model name please?
    MANYes… S-A-B-L-E.Q3
    WOMANAh yes…thanks. And when was it made?
    MAN1997.
    WOMANLovely… right… I presume you’ve had a previous insurer?
    MANYes.
    WOMANRight… we need to know the name of the company.
    MANYes… it was Northern Star.Q4
    WOMANThank you, and have you made any insurance claims in the last five years?
    MANYes… one in 1999.
    WOMANAnd what was the problem?
    MANIt was stolenQ5… but…
    WOMANThat’s fine, Mr Jones… that’s all we need to know at the moment… And will there be any other named drivers?
    MAN Just the one…
    WOMANAnd his name?
    MANSimon Paynter.
    WOMANCould you spell the surname please?
    MANP-A-Y-N-T-E-R.Q6
    WOMANOK thank you… And what relationship is he to you?
    MANHe’s my brother-in-law.Q7
    WOMANAnd what will you or Mr Paynter be using the car for?
    MANWell… mainly for social use…
    WOMANSocial use (murmuring). Will you be using it to travel to work?Q8
    MAN Yes…sometimes.Q8
    WOMAN…Anything else?
    MANNo. That’s it…
    WOMANAnd finally… when would you like to start the insurance?
    MAN I’ll need it from the 31st of January.
    WOMANRight… Mr Jones… I’m getting a couple of quotes coming up on the computer now… and the best bet looks like being with a company called Red Flag.Q9
    MANYeah.
    WOMANAnd that comes out at $450 per yearQ10
    MANWell…that seems OK… it’s quite a bit lower than I’ve been paying up to now…
    WOMANGreat…so would you like me to go ahead with that?
    Sure… why not?
    WOMANHow would you like to pay?

    Section 2

    Thank you for calling the Tourist Line. There are many different ways of getting round the city and we’d like to suggest some you may not have thought of.

    How about a city trip by boat? There are four main stopping points – from west to east: stop A Green Banks, stop B City BridgeQ11, stop C Roman Landing and stop D Newtown.Q12

    You can find the main booking office at stop A.
    The first boat leaves at 8 a.m. and the last one at 6.30 p.m.Q13 There are also many attractions you can visit along the river. At Stop A, if you have time, you can visit the fine 16th century palace here built for the king with its beautiful formal gardens.Q14 It’s very near the booking office. Now you can enjoy every corner of this superb residence.

    Stop B Why don’t you visit Tower RestaurantQ15 with its wide range of refreshments? This is a place where you can sit and enjoy the wonderful viewsQ16 over the old commercial and banking centre of the city.

    Stop C is the area where, in the first century AD, invading soldiers crossed the river; this was much shallower than it is now. That’s why this area is called Roman Landing. There’s an interactive Museum to visit here with a large shop which has a good range of local history books.Q17

    At the furthest point of the trip, stop D, the most exciting place to visit is the new Entertainment Complex with seven-screen cinema,Q18 bowling alley and video games arcade.

    Besides the boat tours, there are city buses. Two companies offer special services:
    The Top Bus Company runs all its tours with a live commentary in English. Tours leave from 8.30 a.m. every 20 minutes.Q19 There are departures from Central Station, Castle Hill and Long Walk. This is a hop-on hop-off service and tickets are valid for 24 hours. For further details call Top Bus on 0208 9447810.

    The Number One Sightseeing Tour is available with a commentary in eight languages. Buses depart from Central StationQ20 every five to six minutes from about 9 a.m. with the last bus at around 7 p.m. There are also Number One services with an English-speaking…

    Section 3

    INTERVIEWERWe’re pleased to welcome Dr Martin Merrywhether of the Antarctic Centre in Christchurch, New Zealand who has come along to talk to us today about the role of the Centre and the Antarctic Treaty.
    INTERVIEWERNow my first question is about the choice of location for the centre. Why Christchurch? Was it because of the climate?
    DOCTORWell actually New Zealand is the second closest country to AntarcticaQ21 and Christchurch is often used on Antarctic expeditions.
    INTERVIEWERRight, so it’s because of where we are… coupled with our historical role. So tell us – what is the main purpose of the centre?
    DOCTORWell…we have two complementary roles. One is as a scientific base for expeditions and research and the other is as an information centre.
    INTERVIEWERTell us something about the role as a scientific base.
    DOCTORWe’re able to provide information about what scientists should takeQ22 with them to the South Pole – for example, the centre contains a clothing warehouse where expeditions are supplied with suitable clothing for the extreme conditions.
    INTERVIEWERI suppose you need a bit more than your normal winter coat!
    DOCTORYes, exactly and then there’s also the specialist library and mapping services.
    INTERVIEWERRight. And which countries are actually located at the centre?
    DOCTORWell…the centre houses research programmes for New Zealand, for The United States as well as for Italy… there’s even a US post office at the American airforce base here.
    INTERVIEWERReally? And what does the visitor’s centre offer?
    DOCTORWell, since very few people will ever experience the Antarctic first hand, the visitors’ centre aims to recreate the atmosphere of Antarctica.Q23 There’s a mock camp site where you can see inside an Antarctic tent and imagine yourself sleeping there. And the centre also acts as a showcase for the unique international co-operation which exists in Antarctica today.
    INTERVIEWERWhat is it actually like at the South Pole? I know you’ve been there on a number of occasions.
    DOCTORYes, I have and each time I’m struck by the awesome beautyQ24 of the place. It’s magnificent but you can really only visit it in the summer months.
    INTERVIEWEROctober to March.
    DOCTORYes, because it’s completely dark for four months of the year (pause) … and in addition it has to be the coldest place on earth.
    INTERVIEWERColder than the North Pole? Why’s that?
    DOCTORWell, unlike the North Pole, which is actually a frozen sea, Antarctica is a land mass shaped like a dome, with the result that the winds blow down the slopes at speeds of up to 150 km an hour and that’s what makes it so cold.Q25 And one other interesting thing is that Antarctica is the driest continent on earth, surprisingly, and so you have to drink large amounts of water when you’re there.
    INTERVIEWERHow old is Antarctica?
    DOCTORWe’re pretty sure it was part of a larger land mass but it broke away from the rest of the continent 170 million years ago.
    INTERVIEWERHow can you be certain of this?
    DOCTOR…because fossils and rocks have been discovered in Antarctica which are the same as those found in places such as Africa and Australia.Q26
    INTERVIEWERAmazing… To think that it was once attached to Africa…
    INTERVIEWERNow let’s just have a look at the Antarctic Treaty. How far back does the idea of an international treaty go?
    DOCTORWell, as far back as the 19th century, when eleven nations organised an international event.
    INTERVIEWERWhen was that exactly?
    DOCTORIn 1870. And it was called the Polar Research Meeting. And then, not long after that, they organised something called the First International Polar Year.
    INTERVIEWERAnd that took place when exactly?
    DOCTOROver two years from 1882 to 1883.Q27 But it wasn’t until the 1950s that the idea of an international treaty was proposed. And in 1959 the Treaty was actually signed.Q28
    INTERVIEWERWhat do you see as the main achievements of the treaty?
    Well, firstly it means that the continent is reserved for peaceful use.Q29&30
    INTERVIEWERThat’s Article 1, isn’t it?
    Yes…
    INTERVIEWERThat’s important since the territory belongs to everyone.
    DOCTORYes but not as important as Article 5, which prohibits any nuclear explosions or waste disposal.Q29&30
    INTERVIEWERWhich is marvellous. Well, I’m afraid we’re going to have to stop there because I’m afraid we’ve run out of time. Thanks for coming along today and telling us all about the centre and its work.

    Section 4

    My topic is handedness – whether in different sports it is better to be left- or right-sided or whether a more balanced approach is more successful. I’m left-handed myself and I actually didn’t see any relevance to my own life when I happened to start reading an article by a sports psychologist called Peter Matthews. He spent the first part of the article talking about handedness in music instead of sport, which I have to say almost put me off from reading further. But what I soon became struck by was the sheer volumeQ31 of both observation and investigation he had done in many different sports and I felt persuaded that what he had to say would be of real interest. I think Matthews’ findings will be beneficial, not so much in helping sportspeople to work on their weaker side, but more that they can help them identify the most suitable strategies to use in a given game. Q32 Although most trainers know how important handedness is, at present they are rather reluctant to make use of the insightsQ33 scientists like Matthews can give, which I think is rather short-sighted because focusing on individual flexibility is only part of the story.

    Anyway, back to the article.

    Matthews found a German study which looked at what he called ‘mixed-handedness’, that is, the capacity to use both left and right hands equally. It looked at mixed-handedness in 40 musicians on a variety of instruments. Researchers examined a number of variables, e.g. type of instrument played, regularity of practice undertaken and length of time playing instrument…and found the following: keyboard players had high levels of mixed- handedness, whereas string players like cellists and violinists strongly favoured one hand. Also those who started younger were more mixed-handed.Q34


    Matthews also reports studies of handedness in apes. Apes get a large proportion of their food by ‘fishing’ ants from ant hills. The studies show that apes, like humans, show handedness – though for them right- and left-handedness is about equal, whereas about 85% of humans are right-handed. Studies showed that apes consistently using the same hand fished out 30% more antsQ35 than those varying between the two.

    Matthews started researching several different sports and found different types of handedness in each. By the way, he uses ‘handedness’ to refer to the dominant side for feet and eyes as well as hands. Anyway, his team measured the hand, feet and eyes of 2,611 players and found that there were really three main types of laterality: mixed – you work equally well on both sides – both hand and eye; single- you tend to favour one side but both hand and eye favour the same side; and cross-laterality – a player’s hands and eyes favour only one side but they are opposite sides. Let’s start with hockey. Matthews found that it was best to be mixed- handed – this is because a hockey stick must be deployed in two directionsQ36 – it would be a drawback to have hand or eye favouring one side. An interesting finding is that mixed-handed hockey players were significantly more confidentQ37 than their single-handed counterparts. Things are slightly different in racket sports like tennis. Here the important thing is to have the dominant hand and eye on the one side. This means that there is a bigger area of visionQ38 on the side where most of the action occurs. If a player is cross lateral the racket is invisible from the dominant eye for much of the swing. It means that they can only make corrections much later…Q39 and often the damage has been done by then.


    And moving to a rather different type of sport which involves large but precise movements – gymnastics. It’s been found that cross hand-eye favouring is best. The predominant reason for this is because it aidsQ40 balance – which is of course absolutely central to performance in this sport.

  • Cambridge IELTS 7 Speaking Test 2

    PART 1

    The examiner asks the candidate about him/herself, his/her home, work or studies and other familiar topics.

    EXAMPLE

    Laughing

    • What kinds of thing make you laugh?
    • Do you like making other people laugh? [Why/Why not?]
    • Do you think it’s important for people to laugh? [Why/Why not?]
    • Is laughing the same as feeling happy, do you think? [Why/Why not?]

    PART 2

    Describe an idea you had for improving something at work or college.

    • You should say:
      • when and where you had your idea what your idea was
      • who you told about your idea
      • and explain why you thought your idea would make an improvement.

    • You will have to talk about the topic for one or two minutes.
    • You have one minute to think about what you are going to say.
    • You can make some notes to help you if you wish

    PART 3

    Discussion topics:


    Ideas and education

    Example questions:

    • Some people think that education should be about memorising the important ideas of the past. Do you agree or disagree? Why?
    • Should education encourage students to have their own new ideas? Why?
    • How do you think teachers could help students to develop and share their own ideas?

    Ideas in the workplace

    Example questions:

    • Should employers encourage their workers to have new ideas about improving the company? Why?
    • Do you think people sometimes dislike ideas just because they are new? Why?
    • What is more difficult: having new ideas or putting them into practice? Which is more important for a successful company?
    Cambridge IELTS 7 Speaking Test 2 Part 1 Model Answer

    – What kinds of thing make you laugh?

    * I laugh at things that are funny, surprising, or absurd. For example, I laugh at jokes, puns, memes, cartoons, comedies, pranks, or bloopers. I also laugh at things that are ironic, sarcastic, or witty. For example, I laugh at satire, parody, spoof, or mockumentary. I also laugh at things that are cute, adorable, or silly. For example, I laugh at animals, babies, or children.

    – Do you like making other people laugh? [Why/Why not?] * I like making other people laugh, because I think it is a good way to communicate and connect with them. I think laughter is a universal language that can break the ice, ease the tension, or express the emotion. I also like making other people laugh, because I think it is a good way to show my personality and creativity. I think laughter is a reflection of my sense of humor and my perspective on life.

    – Do you think it’s important for people to laugh? [Why/Why not?]

    * I think it is important for people to laugh, because I think laughter has many benefits for the physical, mental, and social health. I think laughter can reduce stress, boost immunity, relieve pain, improve mood, enhance memory, or increase productivity. I also think laughter can strengthen relationships, foster teamwork, resolve conflicts, or promote happiness.

    – Is laughing the same as feeling happy, do you think? [Why/Why not?]

    * I think laughing is not the same as feeling happy, because I think laughter is a behavior, while happiness is an emotion. I think laughter is a way to express or cope with happiness, but it is not the only way. I think people can feel happy without laughing, and they can also laugh without feeling happy. I think laughter can sometimes mask or contrast other emotions, such as sadness, anger, or fear. I think laughter can also vary in intensity, frequency, or duration, depending on the context, the person, or the situation.

    Cambridge IELTS 7 Speaking Test 2 Part 2 Model Answer

    Some notes that I made to help me:

    – Idea: a chatbot for answering common questions from students or customers

    – When and where: last month, at home

    – Told: my boss or professor- Why: save time, reduce workload, increase efficiency, satisfaction

    One of the ideas I had for improving something at work or college was to create a chatbot for answering common questions from students or customers. I had this idea last month, when I was working from home due to the pandemic.

    I work as a teaching assistant at a college, and part of my job is to respond to emails from students who have questions about the course, the assignments, the grades, or the schedule. I noticed that many of the questions were repetitive and predictable, and that I spent a lot of time typing the same answers over and over again. I also noticed that some of the questions were urgent or important, and that I could not always reply to them in a timely manner.

    I thought that a chatbot would be a useful tool to solve this problem. A chatbot is a software program that can simulate a conversation with a human user, using natural language processing and artificial intelligence. I thought that a chatbot could be trained to recognize and answer the most frequent and relevant questions from students, using the information from the course syllabus, the assignment instructions, the grading rubrics, or the online platform. I thought that a chatbot could also be programmed to redirect the more complex or specific questions to me or the professor, or to provide contact details or feedback forms for further assistance.

    I told my idea to my boss, who is the professor of the course, and he was very interested and supportive. He agreed that a chatbot would be a great way to improve the communication and interaction with the students, and to save time and reduce the workload for both of us. He also suggested that we could test the chatbot with a small group of students first, and then evaluate its performance and feedback.

    I thought that my idea would make an improvement, because I thought that a chatbot would increase the efficiency and satisfaction of both the students and the staff. I thought that a chatbot would provide faster and more accurate answers to the students, and that it would help them to learn better and to feel more confident and motivated. I also thought that a chatbot would free up more time and energy for me and the professor, and that it would allow us to focus on more creative and meaningful tasks, such as designing the curriculum, preparing the lectures, or conducting the research.

    That was the idea I had for improving something at work or college. Thank you for listening.

    Cambridge IELTS 7 Speaking Test 2 Part 3 Model Answer

    These are some challenging questions about ideas and education, and ideas in the workplace.

    Ideas and education-

    Some people think that education should be about memorising the important ideas of the past. Do you agree or disagree? Why?

    * I disagree with this view, because I think that education should be more than just memorising the important ideas of the past. I think that education should also be about understanding, analysing, evaluating, and applying the ideas of the past, as well as creating, innovating, and discovering the ideas of the present and the future. I think that memorising the ideas of the past is useful, but not sufficient, for developing the knowledge, skills, and attitudes that are needed for the 21st century.

    – Should education encourage students to have their own new ideas? Why?

    * I think that education should encourage students to have their own new ideas, because I think that having new ideas is essential for learning, problem-solving, and creativity. I think that having new ideas can help students to explore their interests and passions, to express their opinions and perspectives, to challenge their assumptions and biases, and to contribute to their communities and societies. I think that having new ideas can also make learning more enjoyable and meaningful for students, and more relevant and responsive to the changing world.

    – How do you think teachers could help students to develop and share their own ideas?

    * I think that teachers could help students to develop and share their own ideas by using various strategies and methods, such as: – Providing a supportive and stimulating learning environment, where students feel safe, respected, and valued, and where they have access to diverse and rich resources and opportunities.

    – Encouraging curiosity and inquiry, where students are motivated and empowered to ask questions, to seek answers, to investigate phenomena, and to experiment with possibilities.

    – Facilitating collaboration and communication, where students are engaged and involved in meaningful and authentic tasks and projects, and where they can interact and exchange ideas with their peers, teachers, and other experts.

    – Promoting reflection and feedback, where students are guided and supported to think critically and creatively, to evaluate and improve their ideas, and to share and receive constructive comments and suggestions.

    Ideas in the workplace

    – Should employers encourage their workers to have new ideas about improving the company? Why?

    * I think that employers should encourage their workers to have new ideas about improving the company, because I think that having new ideas can benefit both the workers and the company. I think that having new ideas can help the workers to enhance their performance and productivity, to develop their professional and personal growth, and to increase their satisfaction and motivation. I also think that having new ideas can help the company to improve its quality and efficiency, to gain a competitive edge and a loyal customer base, and to achieve its vision and mission.

    – Do you think people sometimes dislike ideas just because they are new? Why?

    * I think that people sometimes dislike ideas just because they are new, because I think that people have different psychological and social factors that influence their attitudes and behaviors towards new ideas. Some of these factors are:

    – Fear of change: People may dislike new ideas because they are afraid of the uncertainty and risk that come with change, and they prefer to stick to the familiar and comfortable status quo.

    – Resistance to learning: People may dislike new ideas because they are reluctant to learn new skills or knowledge, and they feel that they are already competent and confident in their current abilities and roles.

    – Lack of trust: People may dislike new ideas because they do not trust the source or the intention of the new ideas, and they suspect that the new ideas may have hidden agendas or ulterior motives.

    – What is more difficult: having new ideas or putting them into practice? Which is more important for a successful company?

    * I think that both having new ideas and putting them into practice are difficult, but in different ways. I think that having new ideas is difficult, because it requires imagination, inspiration, and originality, and it involves breaking the rules, challenging the norms, and overcoming the barriers. I think that putting new ideas into practice is difficult, because it requires planning, execution, and evaluation, and it involves testing the feasibility, measuring the impact, and overcoming the obstacles. I think that both having new ideas and putting them into practice are important for a successful company, because they complement and reinforce each other, and they create a cycle of innovation and improvement.

  • Cambridge IELTS 14 General Reading Test 1

    SECTION 1: Questions 1-14

    Read the text below and answer Questions 1-6.

    TRANSITION CARE FOR THE ELOEHLY

    What is transition care?
    Transition care is for older people who have been receiving medical treatment, but need more help to recover, and time to make a decision about the best place for them to live in the longer term. You can only access transition care directly from hospital.

    • Transition care is focused on individual goals and therapies and is given for a limited time only. It offers access to a package of services that may include:
    • low-intensity therapy such as physiotherapy (exercise, mobility, strength and balance) and podiatry (foot care)
    • access to a social worker
    • nursing support for clinical care such as wound care
    • personal care

    Who provides transition care services?
    Transition care is often provided by non-government organisations and is subsidised by the government. If your circumstances allow, it is expected you’ll contribute to the cost of your care.

    Daily care fees are set by the organisation that provides your transition care services (your service provider). They should explain these fees to you, and the amount charged should form part of the agreement between you and the service provider. The fee is calculated on a daily basis.

    Where do I receive transition care?
    Transition care is provided in your own home or in a ‘live-in’ setting. This setting can be part of an existing aged-care home or health facility such as a separate wing of a hospital.

    What if I’m already receiving services through a different programme?
    If you’re already receiving subsidised residential care in an aged-care home, but you need to go somewhere else for transition care, your place in the aged-care home will be held until you return.

    Questions 1-6

    Do the following statements agree with the information given in the passage?

    In boxes 1-6 on your answer sheet, write

    • TRUE  if the statement agrees with the information
    • FALSE  if the statement contradicts the information
    • NOT GIVEN  if there is no information on this
    1. Only hospital patients can go on to have transition care.
    2. Transition care may be long term or short term.
    3. Everyone receiving transition care must contribute to the cost.
    4. Transition care at home is only available for patients who live alone.
    5. Transition care may be given on a hospital site.
    6. You may lose your place in a care home if you have to leave it to receive transition care.

    Read the text below and answer Questions 7-14.

    CABIN BAGS FOR AIR TRAVEL

    If you want a small bag with wheels that you can take onto the plane with you, there’s a wide choice. Here are some of the best.

    A The Flyer B3 is an ultra-lightweight cabin bag which can withstand some pretty harsh treatment, its nylon and polyester sides won’t rip or burst open if it’s dropped or thrown whilst in transit. However, the trolley handle feels quite thin and flimsy. The top carrying handle is hard and flat, and the side handle isn’t easy to grip.

    B The Lightglide has two external pockets, both of which are zipped and lockable, but the inside pocket does not zip. In tests, we found the contents remain dry when given a good soaking, even around the zips. The trolley handle has a choice of two heights and the plastic hand grip doesn’t have any sharp ridges that’ll make your hands sore. For carrying there are fabric handles at the top and side.

    C The Foxton is easy to control across most surfaces. However, the zips don’t always run smoothly especially around the corners, so you may have to give them a good tug, especially if the case is very full. This is definitely one to avoid if you’re going somewhere rainy as it lets loads of water in, and documents in the pockets will also get pretty wet unless they’re in plastic folders.

    D The Skybag has a single external zipped pocket and another located inside the lid. Your clothes are kept in place by two adjustable straps. The zips, are easy to grip and they run smoothly around the case. However, this cabin bag felt a little heavy to pull on all but smooth floors, and it was hard to steer compared with some of the other suitcases.

    E The Travelsure 35 is available in a huge range of fabric designs including leopard print or lipstick kisses. The retractable trolley handle is comfortable but can’t be adjusted to suit users of different heights. There’s no internal divider, but there are two handy zipped pockets in the lid. We test each bag by letting it fall onto a hard . floor – and our results show that you’ll have to treat this bag with great care if you want it to last. The fabric tore so badly at one of the corners that it was unusable.

    Questions 7-14

    The text above has five paragraphs, A-E.
    Which paragraph mentions the following?

    Write the correct letter, A-E, in boxes 7-14 on your answer sheet.

    NB You may use any letter more than once.

    1. The zips on this cabin bag may be difficult to use.
    2. This cabin bag may be badly damaged if it is dropped.
    3. The handles of this cabin bag have a number of different problems.
    4. This cabin bag is very resistant to water.
    5. There’s a good choice of patterns for the fabric of this cabin bag.
    6. This cabin bag isn’t very easy to move around.
    7. This cabin bag has just one internal zipped pocket.
    8. The trolley handle of this cabin bag is adjustable.

    SECTION 2: Questions 15-27

    Read the text below and answer Questions 15-20

    College car parking policy – staff

    Parking permits and tickets
    Staff permits are required to park a motor vehicle (other than a motorcycle parked in the cycle bays) on campus between 8.30 am and 4.30 pm, Monday to Friday, during term time. Annual permits can be purchased from the Hospitality Department. Application forms can be downloaded from the College website. All permits/tickets must be clearly displayed in the windscreen of vehicles during the dates of term time, as published in the academic calendar. Please inform the Services Administrator of any changes to registration details on telephone ext. 406. Annual car parking permits can be purchased from 20th September and are valid for one academic year from 1st October to 30th June. The annual charges for car parking are displayed on the application form.

    Enforcement
    The nominated contractor will issue fixed Penalty Charge Notices (see below) on vehicles that fail to display a valid permit and/or parking ticket, or vehicles that are parked on yellow lines or in disabled parking bays without displaying a blue disabled-parking permit. Reductions of parking space availability may arise in order to accommodate College recruitment activities and/or estate development/maintenance projects. Vehicles that are in breach of the policy will be issued with a Penalty Charge Notice.

    Penalty Charge Notice (PCM)
    The PCN is £30, increasing to £60 seven days after issue. The nominated contractor is responsible for the collection of unpaid PCNs and may use legal action where necessary to recover unpaid PCNs. If issued with a PCN, appeals must be taken up directly with the parking enforcement company (details included on the notice) not the college.

    Disabled parking
    The college has designated car parking spaces for disabled car drivers. The college will make all reasonable efforts to ensure these parking spaces are used only by drivers who display their blue disabled-parking permits, and a valid pay-and-display or annual permit, as appropriate.

    If issues arise concerning the availability of the parking spaces, those concerned should raise the matter with the Domestic Services Department in order to effect a temporary solution.

    Visitors
    The College welcomes visitors and provides parking arrangements through pre-arranged permits, which must be displayed in the vehicle. Please contact the Hospitality Department for further information, On Open Days, sections of car parking on campus may be reserved for visitors.

    Short-term drop-off/pick-up provision
    There will be two short-term drop-off/pick-up spaces for users of the nursery, with a maximum often minutes’ waiting time allowed. These are located outside Concorde Building. The nursery staff bays may not be used under any circumstances.

    Questions 15-20

    Answer the questions below.

    Write your answers in boxes 15-20 on your answer sheet

    Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER from the text for each answer.

    1. Where can you buy parking permits at the college?
    2. Which document shows the dates of term time?
    3. What is the start date of annual parking permits?
    4. Who is responsible for giving out parking fines if you park in the wrong place?
    5. What do visitors need to show when parking?
    6. Where can the nursery pick-up point be found?

    Read the text below and answer Questions 21-27.

    Maternity benefits

    If you are expecting a baby, there are a number of benefit schemes that could help you financially. However, eligibility differs for each individual scheme.

    Statutory Maternity Pay (SSVSP)
    You may be entitled to Statutory Maternity Pay (SMP) from your employer. This is a weekly payment, to help make it easier for you to take time off, both before and after the birth of your baby. SMP can be paid for up to 39 weeks.

    You are entitled to SMP if you have been employed by the same company for at least 26 weeks by the end of the 15th week before your baby is due. You must also be earning an average of at least £87 per week (before tax). The amount you get depends on how much you earn. For 6 weeks, you will receive 90% of your average weekly earnings. Then you will receive £112.75 per week for the remaining 33 weeks.

    Maternity Allowance (MA)
    Maternity Allowance (MA) is available to those who are employed or self-employed but not eligible for Statutory Maternity Pay (SMP). You may be entitled to Maternity Allowance if you have been employed or self-employed for at least 26 weeks in the 66 weeks before you are due to give birth. You don’t have to work for the same employer for those 26 weeks. You also don’t have to work full weeks (as a part week counts as a full week) during the same period. Maternity Allowance can be paid for up to 39 weeks, and is either paid at the same standard rate as SMP or 90% of your average weekly earnings. You’ll receive whichever amount is the lower. You can find Maternity Allowance forms at antenatal clinics throughout the country.

    Child Tax Credit
    If you’re on a low income, over 16, and are responsible for at least one child, you may also be entitled to Child Tax Credit. The amount you get will depend on your personal circumstances and income. When your income is being assessed, any child benefit, maintenance payments or Maternity Allowance payments will not be classed as income. This means that it will not be taken into account when calculating your Child Tax Credit.

    Sure Start Maternity Payments
    If you get benefits or Child Tax Credit because you’re on a low income, then you may be entitled to Sure Start Maternity Payments. These are individual grants to help towards the cost of a new baby.

    Questions 21-27

    Answer the questions below.

    Write your answers in boxes 21-27 on your answer sheet.

    Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER from the text for each answer.

    1. What is the minimum period you must have worked for an employer in order to be eligible for SMP?
    2. For how long is SMP payable every week as a percentage of your average weekly earnings?
    3. What sum is payable every week as the second part of SMP entitlement?
    4. What is the maximum length of time MA is payable?
    5. Where can MA forms be obtained?
    6. Apart from income, what else is considered when assessing how much Child Tax Credit is paid?
    7. What are Sure Start Maternity Payments?

    SECTION 3: Questions 28-40

    Questions 28-32

    The text below has five sections, A-E.

    Choose the correct heading for each section from the list of headings below.

    Write the correct number i-viii in boxes 28-32 on your answer sheet.

    List of Headings

    1. Solving the puzzle of a papyrus document
    2. The importance of written records and different ways of recording them
    3. The use of papyrus for a range of purposes
    4. Suggestions for future possibilities for papyrus
    5. How papyrus was cultivated and different manufacturing methods
    6. The decline of papyrus use
    7. The preservation and destruction of papyrus documents
    8. The process of papyrus production
    1. Section A
    2. Section B
    3. Section C
    4. Section D
    5. Section E

    PAPYRUS
    Used by the ancient Egyptians to make paper, the papyrus plant has
    helped to shape the world we live in

    A Libraries and archives are cultural crossroads of knowledge exchange, where the past transmits information to the present, and where the present has the opportunity to inform the future. Bureaucracies have become the backbone of civilizations, as governments try to keep track of populations, business transactions and taxes. At a personal level, our lives are governed by the documents we possess; we are certified on paper literally from birth to death. And written documentation carries enormous cultural importance: consider the consequences of signing the Foundation Document of the United Nations or the Convention on Biological Diversity.

    Documentation requires a writing tool and a surface upon which to record the information permanently. About 5,000 years ago, the Sumerians started to use reeds or sticks to make marks on mud blocks which were then baked, but despite being fireproof, these were difficult to store. Other cultures used more flexible but less permanent surfaces, including animal skins and wood strips. In western culture, the adoption of papyrus was to have a great impact. Sheets of papyrus not only provide an invaluable record of people’s daily lives, they can also be dated using carbon-dating techniques, giving precise information about the age of the text written on them.

    B Papyrus is strongly associated with Egyptian culture, although all the ancient civilizations around the Mediterranean used it. The papyrus sedge is a tall grass-like plant. It was harvested from shallow water and swamplands on the banks of the River Nile. Manufacturing sheets of papyrus from papyrus sedge was a complex, messy process. Pith from inside the plant’s stem was cut into long strips that were laid side by side. These were then covered with a second layer of strips which were laid at right angles to the first, then soaked in water and hammered together. The sheet was then crushed to extract the water, dried and then polished to produce a high-quality writing surface, individual sheets could be glued together and rolled up to make scrolls or folded and bound to form books.

    C In moist climates the cellulose-rich sheets of papyrus would readily decay, becoming covered by mould or full of holes from attacks by insects. But in dry climates, such as the Middle East, papyrus is a stable, rot-resistant writing surface. The earliest known roll of papyrus scroll was found in the tomb of an official called Hemeka near Memphis, which was then the capital city of Egypt, and is around five thousand years old. in 79CE, nearly 2,000 papyrus scrolls in the library of Julius Caesar’s father-in-law were protected at Herculaneum by ash from the catastrophic eruption of Mount Vesuvius. However, the most famous discoveries of papyrus have come from the rubbish dumps of the ancient town of Oxyrhynchus, some 160km south-west of Cairo, in the desert to the west of the Nile. Oxyrhynchus was a regional administrative capital and for a thousand years generated vast amounts of administrative documentation, including accounts, tax returns and correspondence, which was periodically discarded to make room for more. Over time, a thick layer of sand covered these dumps, andthey were forgotten. But the documents were protected by the sand, creating a time capsule that allowed astonishing glimpses into the lives of the town’s inhabitants over hundreds of years.

    Collections of documents that record information and ideas have frequently been viewed as potentially dangerous. For thousands of years, governments, despots and conquerors have resorted to burning libraries and books to rid themselves of inconvenient evidence or obliterate cultures and ideas that they found politically, morally or religiously unacceptable. One such calamity, the burning of the Great Library of Alexandria, and the papyrus scrolls and books it contained, has been mythologized and has come to symbolize the global loss of cultural knowledge.

    D Besides their use in record-keeping, papyrus stems were used in many other aspects of Mediterranean life, such as for boat construction and making ropes, sails and baskets, as well as being a source of food. In 1969 the adventurer Thor Heyerdahl attempted to cross the Atlantic from Morocco in the boat Ra, to show that it was possible for mariners in ancient times to cross the Atlantic Ocean. Ra was made from bundles of papyrus stems and modelled on ancient Egyptian craft. As a marshland plant, papyrus sedge stabilizes soils and reduces erosion, while some investigations show that it has potential for water purification and sewage treatment.

    E True paper was probably invented in China in the first century CE. Like papyrus, it was constructed from a meshwork of plant fibres, but the Chinese used fibres from the white mulberry tree, which yielded a tough, flexible material that could be folded, stretched, and compressed. The adoption of this paper by western cultures soon rendered papyrus obsolete.

    Despite dreams of paper-free societies, western cultures still use enormous quantities of paper, often in ways that it would be inconceivable to use papyrus for. As a paper substitute, the role of the papyrus sedge in western cultures has been superseded; papyrus is little more than a niche product for the tourist market. What makes papyrus noteworthy for western societies nowadays is its use as the surface upon which our ancient ancestors recorded their lives, their art and their science. In the words of the ancient Roman philosopher Pliny the Elder, it is ‘the material on which the immortality of human beings depends’.

    Questions 33-37

    Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.

    Write the correct letter in boxes 33-37 on your answer sheet.

    1. What was the problem with using animal skins and wood strips for writing on?
      1. They did not last for a long time.
      2. They were not easy to store.
      3. They were insufficiently flexible.
      4. They could be destroyed by fire.
    2. Why did papyrus manufacturers hammer the papyrus?
      1. to remove water from the pith strips
      2. to join the layers of pith strips together
      3. to allow the pith strips to be easily cut
      4. to position the layers of pith strips at the correct angle
    3. When referring to burning libraries and books, the writer is suggesting that
      1. information can be used for harm as well as for good.
      2. new ways must be found to ensure information is not lost.
      3. cultural knowledge depends on more than written texts.
      4. those in power may Wish to keep others in ignorance.
    4. The writer refers to Thor Heyerdahl to illustrate the point that
      1. papyrus could be used as a food on long sea voyages.
      2. the ancient Egyptians already had advanced navigation skills.
      3. papyrus could be used to build boats for long sea journeys.
      4. the ancient Egyptians knew of the environmental benefits of papyrus
    5. What does the writer conclude about papyrus today?
      1. It is better for the environment than using paper.
      2. Its significance is restricted to its role in the past.
      3. It is still the best writing surface for some purposes.
      4. More efforts need to be made to ensure it stays in use.
    Questions 38-40

    Complete the summary below.

    Write your answers in boxes 38-40 on your answer sheet.

    Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the text for each answer.

    How papyrus documents have survived

    Papyrus is rich in cellulose and in some conditions will be destroyed by fungal growths or be consumed by (38)…………………….However, it can survive for long periods in an environment that is dry. It has been found in a 5,000-year-old (39)………………………..in Egypt, and in Herculaneum many papyrus documents were preserved following a huge (40)………………………….in 79 CE. in the town of Oxyrhynchus, unwanted administrative documents were left on rubbish dumps which were covered with sand, preserving them for many years.

    Cambridge IELTS 14 General Reading Test 1 Section 1 Answers
    1. True
    2. False
    3. False
    4. Not given
    5. True
    6. False
    7. C
    8. E
    9. A
    10. B
    11. E
    12. D
    13. D
    14. B
    Cambridge IELTS 14 General Reading Test 1 Section 2 Answers
    1. Hospitality Department
    2. Academic Calendar
    3. 1st October
    4. Nominated Contractor
    5. Permits
    6. Concorde building
    7. 26 weeks
    8. 6 weeks
    9. 112.75
    10. 39 weeks
    11. Antenatal clinics
    12. Personal circumstances
    13. Grants
    Cambridge IELTS 14 General Reading Test 1 Section 3 Answers
    1. ii
    2. viii
    3. vii
    4. iii
    5. vi
    6. A
    7. B
    8. D
    9. C
    10. B
    11. Insects
    12. Tomb
    13. Eruption



  • Cambridge IELTS 14 Academic Reading Test 1

    Reading Passage 1

    You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-13, which are based on Reading Passage 1 below.

    THE IMPORTANCE OF CHILDREN’S PLAY

    Brick by brick, six-year-old Alice is building a magical kingdom. Imagining fairy-tale turrets and fire-breathing dragons, wicked witches and gallant heroes, she’s creating an enchanting world. Although she isn’t aware of it, this fantasy is helping her take her first steps towards her capacity for creativity and so it will have important repercussions in her adult life.

    Minutes later, Alice has abandoned the kingdom in favour of playing schools with her younger brother. When she bosses him around as his ‘teacher’, she’s practising how to regulate her emotions through pretence. Later on, when they tire of this and settle down with a board game, she’s learning about the need to follow rules and take turns with a partner.

    ‘Play in all its rich variety is one of the highest achievements of the human species,’ says Dr David Whitebread from the Faculty of Education at the University of Cambridge, UK. ‘It underpins how we develop as intellectual, problem-solving adults and is crucial to our success as a highly adaptable species.’

    Recognising the importance of play is not new: over two millennia ago, the Greek philosopher Plato extolled its virtues as a means of developing skills for adult life, and ideas about play-based learning have been developing since the 19th century.

    But we live in changing times, and Whitebread is mindful of a worldwide decline in play, pointing out that over half the people in the world now live in cities. ‘The opportunities for free play, which I experienced almost every day of my childhood, are becoming increasingly scarce,’ he says. Outdoor play is curtailed by perceptions of risk to do with traffic, as well as parents’ increased wish to protect their children from being the victims of crime, and by the emphasis on ‘earlier is better’ which is leading to greater competition in academic learning and schools.

    International bodies like the United Nations and the European Union have begun to develop policies concerned with children’s right to play, and to consider implications for leisure facilities and educational programmes. But what they often lack is the evidence to base policies on.

    ‘The type of play we are interested in is child-initiated, spontaneous and unpredictable – but, as soon as you ask a five-year-old “to play”, then you as the researcher have intervened,’ explains Dr Sara Baker. ‘And we want to know what the long-term impact of play is. It’s a real challenge.’

    Dr Jenny Gibson agrees, pointing out that although some of the steps in the puzzle of how and why play is important have been looked at, there is very little data on the impact it has on the child’s later life.

    Now, thanks to the university’s new Centre for Research on Play in Education, Development and Learning (PEDAL), Whitebread, Baker, Gibson and a team of researchers hope to provide evidence on the role played by play in how a child develops.

    ‘A strong possibility is that play supports the early development of children’s self-control,’ explains Baker. ‘This is our ability to develop awareness of our own thinking processes – it influences how effectively we go about undertaking challenging activities.’

    In a study carried out by Baker with toddlers and young pre-schoolers, she found that children with greater self-control solved problems more quickly when exploring an unfamiliar set-up requiring scientific reasoning. ‘This sort of evidence makes us think that giving children the chance to play will make them more successful problem-solvers in the long run.’

    If playful experiences do facilitate this aspect of development, say the researchers, it could be extremely significant for educational practices, because the ability to self-regulate has been shown to be a key predictor of academic performance.

    Gibson adds: ‘Playful behaviour is also an important indicator of healthy social and emotional development. In my previous research, I investigated how observing children at play can give us important clues about their well-being and can even be useful in the diagnosis of neurodevelopmental disorders like autism.’

    Whitebread’s recent research has involved developing a play-based approach to supporting children’s writing. ‘Many primary school children find writing difficult, but we showed in a previous study that a playful stimulus was far more effective than an instructional one.’ Children wrote longer and better-structured stories when they first played with dolls representing characters in the story. In the latest study, children first created their story with Lego , with similar results. ‘Many teachers commented that they had always previously had children saying they didn’t know what to write about. With the Lego building, however, not a single child said this through the whole year of the project.’

    Whitebread, who directs PEDAL, trained as a primary school teacher in the early 1970s, when, as he describes, ‘the teaching of young children was largely a quiet backwater, untroubled by any serious intellectual debate or controversy.’ Now, the landscape is very different, with hotly debated topics such as school starting age.

    ‘Somehow the importance of play has been lost in recent decades. It’s regarded as something trivial, or even as something negative that contrasts with “work”. Let’s not lose sight of its benefits, and the fundamental contributions it makes to human achievements in the arts, sciences and technology. Let’s make sure children have a rich diet of play experiences.’

    Questions 1 – 8

    Complete the notes below.

    Choose ONLY ONE WORD from the passage for each answer.

    Children’s Play

    Uses of children’s play
    – building a magical kingdom may help develop (1)………………..
    – board games involve (2)…………….and turn-taking

    Recent changes affecting children’s play
    – populations of (3)…………….have grown
    – opportunities for free play are limited due to
    – fear of (4)……………
    – fear of (5)……………
    – increased (6)………………in schools

    International policies on children’s play
    – it is difficult to find (7)…………….to support new policies
    – research needs to study the impact of play on the rest of the child’s (8)……………..

    Questions 9 – 13

    Do the following statements agree with the following information given in the Reading Passage?

    In the boxes 9-13 write

    • TRUE                        if the statement agrees with the information
    • FALSE                      if the statement contradicts the information
    • NOT GIVEN           if there is no information on this
    1. Children with good self-control are known to be likely to do well at school later on.
    2. The way a child plays may provide information about possible medical problems.
    3. Playing with dolls was found to benefit girls’ writing more than boys’ writing.
    4. Children had problems thinking up ideas when they first created the story with Lego.
    5. People nowadays regard children’s play as less significant than they did in the past.

    Reading Passage 2

    You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 14-26, which are based on Reading Passage 2 below.

    The growth of bike-sharing schemes around the world

    A The original idea for an urban bike-sharing scheme dates back to a summer’s day in Amsterdam in 1965. Provo, the organisation that came up with the idea, was a group of Dutch activists who wanted to change society. They believed the scheme, which was known as the Witte Fietsenplan, was an answer to the perceived threats of air pollution and consumerism. In the centre of Amsterdam, they painted a small number of used bikes white. They also distributed leaflets describing the dangers of cars and inviting people to use the white bikes. The bikes were then left unlocked at various locations around the city, to be used by anyone in need of transport.

    B Luud Schimmelpennink, a Dutch industrial engineer who still lives and cycles in Amsterdam, was heavily involved in the original scheme. He recalls how the scheme succeeded in attracting a great deal of attention – particularly when it came to publicising Provo’s aims – but struggled to get off the ground. The police were opposed to Provo’s initiatives and almost as soon as the white bikes were distributed around the city, they removed them. However, for Schimmelpennink and for bike-sharing schemes in general, this was just the beginning. The first Witte Fietsenplan was just a symbolic thing,’ he says. ‘We painted a few bikes white, that was all. Things got more serious when I became a member of the Amsterdam city council two years later.’

    C Schimmelpennink seized this opportunity to present a more elaborate Witte Fietsenplan to the city council. ‘My idea was that the municipality of Amsterdam would distribute 10,000 white bikes over the city, for everyone to use,’ he explains. ‘I made serious calculations. It turned out that a white bicycle – per person, per kilometre – would cost the municipality only 10% of what it contributed to public transport per person per kilometre.’ Nevertheless, the council unanimously rejected the plan. They said that the bicycle belongs to the past. They saw a glorious future for the car,’ says Schimmelpennink. But he was not in the least discouraged.

    D Schimmelpennink never stopped believing in bike-sharing, and in the mid-90s, two Danes asked for his help to set up a system in Copenhagen. The result was the world’s first large-scale bike-share programme. It worked on a deposit: ‘You dropped a coin in the bike and when you returned it, you got your money back.’ After setting up the Danish system, Schimmelpennink decided to try his luck again in the Netherlands – and this time he succeeded in arousing the interest of the Dutch Ministry of Transport. Times had changed,’ he recalls. ‘People had become more environmentally conscious, and the Danish experiment had proved that bike-sharing was a real possibility.’A new Witte Fietsenplan was launched in 1999 in Amsterdam. However, riding a white bike was no longer free; it cost one guilder per trip and payment was made with a chip card developed by the Dutch bank Postbank. Schimmelpennink designed conspicuous, sturdy white bikes locked in special racks which could be opened with the chip card – the plan started with 250 bikes, distributed over five stations.

    E Theo Molenaar, who was a system designer for the project, worked alongside Schimmelpennink. ‘I remember when we were testing the bike racks, he announced that he had already designed better ones. But of course, we had to go through with the ones we had.’ The system, however, was prone to vandalism and theft. ‘After every weekend there would always be a couple of bikes missing,’ Molenaar says. ‘I really have no idea what people did with them, because they could instantly be recognised as white bikes.’ But the biggest blow came when Postbank decided to abolish the chip card, because it wasn’t profitable. That chip card was pivotal to the system,’ Molenaar says. To continue the project we would have needed to set up another system, but the business partner had lost interest.’

    F Schimmelpennink was disappointed, but – characteristically – not for long. In 2002 he got a call from the French advertising corporation JC Decaux, who wanted to set up his bike-sharing scheme in Vienna. That went really well. After Vienna, they set up a system in Lyon. Then in 2007, Paris followed. That was a decisive moment in the history of bike-sharing.’ The huge and unexpected success of the Parisian bike-sharing programme, which now boasts more than 20,000 bicycles, inspired cities all over the world to set up their own schemes, all modelled on Schimmelpennink’s. ‘It’s wonderful that this happened,’ he says. ‘But financially I didn’t really benefit from it, because I never filed for a patent.’

    G In Amsterdam today, 38% of all trips are made by bike and, along with Copenhagen, it is regarded as one of the two most cycle-friendly capitals in the world – but the city never got another Witte Fietsenplan. Molenaar believes this may be because everybody in Amsterdam already has a bike. Schimmelpennink, however, cannot see that this changes Amsterdam’s need for a bike-sharing scheme. ‘People who travel on the underground don’t carry their bikes around. But often they need additional transport to reach their final destination.’Although he thinks it is strange that a city like Amsterdam does not have a successful bike¬sharing scheme, he is optimistic about the future. ‘In the ’60s we didn’t stand a chance because people were prepared to give their lives to keep cars in the city. But that mentality has totally changed. Today everybody longs for cities that are not dominated by cars.’

    Questions 14 – 18

    Reading Passage 2 has seven paragraphs, A-G.

    Write the correct letter, A-G, in boxes 14-18 on your answer sheet.

    Which paragraph contains the following information?.

    NB You may use any letter more than once.

    1. a description of how people misused a bike-sharing scheme
    2. an explanation of why a proposed bike-sharing scheme was turned down
    3. a reference to a person being unable to profit from their work
    4. an explanation of the potential savings a bike-sharing scheme would bring
    5. a reference to the problems a bike-sharing scheme was intended to solve
    Questions 19 and 20

    Write the correct letters in boxes 19 and 20 on your answer sheet.

    Choose TWO letters, A-E.

    Which TWO of the following statements are made in the text about the Amsterdam bike-sharing scheme of 1999?

    1. It was initially opposed by a government department.
    2. It failed when a partner in the scheme withdrew support.
    3. It aimed to be more successful than the Copenhagen scheme.
    4. It was made possible by a change in people’s attitudes.
    5. It attracted interest from a range of bike designers.
    Questions 21 and 22

    Write the correct letters in boxes 21 and 22 on your answer sheet.

    Choose TWO letters, A-E.

    Which TWO of the following statements are made in the text about Amsterdam today?

    1. The majority of residents would like to prevent all cars from entering the city.
    2. There is little likelihood of the city having another bike-sharing scheme.
    3. More trips in the city are made by bike than by any other form of transport.
    4. A bike-sharing scheme would benefit residents who use public transport.
    5. The city has a reputation as a place that welcomes cyclists.
    Questions 23 – 26

    Write your answers in boxes 23-26 on your answer sheet.

    Complete the summary below.

    Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the passage for each answer.

    The first urban bike-sharing scheme

    The first bike-sharing scheme was the idea of the Dutch group Provo. The people who belonged to this group were (23)……………….They were concerned about damage to the environment and about (24)…………………, and believed that the bike-sharing scheme would draw attention to these issues. As well as painting some bikes white, they handed out (25)………………….that condemned the use of cars. However, the scheme was not a great success: almost as quickly as Provo left the bikes around the city, the (26)………………..took them away. According to Schimmelpennink, the scheme was intended to be symbolic. The idea was to get people thinking about the issues.

    Reading Passage 3

    You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 27-40, which are based on Reading Passage 3 below.

    Motivational factors and the hospitality industry

    A critical ingredient in the success of hotels is developing and maintaining superior performance from their employees. How is that accomplished? What Human Resource Management (HRM) practices should organizations invest in to acquire and retain great employees?

    Some hotels aim to provide superior working conditions for their employees. The idea originated from workplaces – usually in the non-service sector – that emphasized fun and enjoyment as part of work-life balance. By contrast, the service sector, and more specifically hotels, has traditionally not extended these practices to address basic employee needs, such as good working conditions.

    Pfeffer (1994) emphasizes that in order to succeed in a global business environment, organizations must make investment in Human Resource Management (HRM) to allow them to acquire employees who possess better skills and capabilities than their competitors. This investment will be to their competitive advantage. Despite this recognition of the importance of employee development, the hospitality industry has historically been dominated by underdeveloped HR practices (Lucas, 2002).

    Lucas also points out that ‘the substance of HRM practices does not appear to be designed to foster constructive relations with employees or to represent a managerial approach that enables developing and drawing out the full potential of people, even though employees may be broadly satisfied with many aspects of their work’ (Lucas, 2002). In addition, or maybe as a result, high employee turnover has been a recurring problem throughout the hospitality industry. Among the many cited reasons are low compensation, inadequate benefits, poor working conditions and compromised employee morale and attitudes (Maroudas et al., 2008).

    Ng and Sorensen (2008) demonstrated that when managers provide recognition to employees, motivate employees to work together, and remove obstacles preventing effective performance, employees feel more obligated to stay with the company. This was succinctly summarized by Michel et al. (2013): ‘[Providing support to employees gives them the confidence to perform their jobs better and the motivation to stay with the organization.’ Hospitality organizations can therefore enhance employee motivation and retention through the development and improvement of their working conditions. These conditions are inherently linked to the working environment.

    While it seems likely that employees’ reactions to their job characteristics could be affected by a predisposition to view their work environment negatively, no evidence exists to support this hypothesis (Spector et al., 2000). However, given the opportunity, many people will find something to complain about in relation to their workplace (Poulston, 2009). There is a strong link between the perceptions of employees and particular factors of their work environment that are separate from the work itself, including company policies, salary and vacations.

    Such conditions are particularly troubling for the luxury hotel market, where high-quality service, requiring a sophisticated approach to HRM, is recognized as a critical source of competitive advantage (Maroudas et al., 2008). In a real sense, the services of hotel employees represent their industry (Schneider and Bowen, 1993). This representation has commonly been limited to guest experiences. This suggests that there has been a dichotomy between the guest environment provided in luxury hotels and the working conditions of their employees.

    It is therefore essential for hotel management to develop HRM practices that enable them to inspire and retain competent employees. This requires an understanding of what motivates employees at different levels of management and different stages of their careers (Enz and Siguaw, 2000). This implies that it is beneficial for hotel managers to understand what practices are most favorable to increase employee satisfaction and retention.

    Herzberg (1966) proposes that people have two major types of needs, the first being extrinsic motivation factors relating to the context in which work is performed, rather than the work itself. These include working conditions and job security. When these factors are unfavorable, job dissatisfaction may result. Significantly, though, just fulfilling these needs does not result in satisfaction, but only in the reduction of dissatisfaction (Maroudas et al., 2008).

    Employees also have intrinsic motivation needs or motivators, which include such factors as achievement and recognition. Unlike extrinsic factors, motivator factors may ideally result in job satisfaction (Maroudas et al., 2008). Herzberg’s (1966) theory discusses the need for a ‘balance’ of these two types of needs.

    The impact of fun as a motivating factor at work has also been explored. For example, Tews, Michel and Stafford (2013) conducted a study focusing on staff from a chain of themed restaurants in the United States. It was found that fun activities had a favorable impact on performance and manager support for fun had a favorable impact in reducing turnover. Their findings support the view that fun may indeed have a beneficial effect, but the framing of that fun must be carefully aligned with both organizational goals and employee characteristics. ‘Managers must learn how to achieve the delicate balance of allowing employees the freedom to enjoy themselves at work while simultaneously maintaining high levels of performance’ (Tews et al., 2013).

    Deery (2008) has recommended several actions that can be adopted at the organizational level to retain good staff as well as assist in balancing work and family life. Those particularly appropriate to the hospitality industry include allowing adequate breaks during the working day, staff functions that involve families, and providing health and well-being opportunities.

    Questions 27 – 31

    Look at the following statements (Questions 27-31) and the list of researchers below.

    Match each statement with the correct researcher, A-F.

    Write the correct letter, A-F, in boxes 27-31 on your answer sheet.

    NB You may use any letter more than once.

    1. Hotel managers need to know what would encourage good staff to remain.
    2. The actions of managers may make staff feel they shouldn’t move to a different employer.
    3. Little is done in the hospitality industry to help workers improve their skills.
    4. Staff are less likely to change jobs if cooperation is encouraged.
    5. Dissatisfaction with pay is not the only reason why hospitality workers change jobs.

    List of Researchers

    1. Pfeffer
    2. Lucas
    3. Maroudas et al.
    4. Ng and Sorensen
    5. Enz and Siguaw
    6. Deery
    Questions 32 – 35

    Do the following statements agree with the claims of the writer in Reading Passage 3?

    In boxes 32-35 on your answer sheet, write

    • YES                           if the statement agrees with the claims of the writer
    • NO                             if the statement contradicts the claims of the writer
    • NOT GIVEN          if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this
    1. One reason for high staff turnover in the hospitality industry is poor morale.
    2. Research has shown that staff have a tendency to dislike their workplace.
    3. An improvement in working conditions and job security makes staff satisfied with their jobs.
    4. Staff should be allowed to choose when they take breaks during the working day.
    Questions 36 – 40

    Complete the summary below.

    Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the passage for each answer.

    Write your answers in boxes 36-40 on your answer sheet.

    Fun at work

    Tews, Michel and Stafford carried out research on staff in an American chain of (36)……………….They discovered that activities designed for staff to have fun improved their (37)………………., and that management involvement led to lower staff (38)……………….They also found that the activities needed to fit with both the company’s (39)……………….and the (40)………………..of the staff. A balance was required between a degree of freedom and maintaining work standards.

    Cambridge IELTS 14 Academic Reading Test 1 Reading Passage 1 THE IMPORTANCE OF CHILDREN’S PLAY Answers
    1. creativity
    2. rules
    3. cities
    4. traffic OR crime (IN EITHER ORDER)
    5. traffic OR crime (IN EITHER ORDER)
    6. competition
    7. evidence
    8. life
    9. True
    10. True
    11. Not given
    12. False
    13. True
    Cambridge IELTS 14 Academic Reading Test 1 Reading Passage 2 The growth of bike-sharing schemes around the world Answers
    1. E
    2. C
    3. F
    4. C
    5. A
    6. B OR D (IN EITHER ORDER)
    7. B OR D (IN EITHER ORDER)
    8. D OR E (IN EITHER ORDER)
    9. D OR E (IN EITHER ORDER)
    10. activists
    11. consumerism
    12. leaflets
    13. police
    Cambridge IELTS 14 Academic Reading Test 1 Reading Passage 3 Motivational factors and the hospitality industry Answers
    1. E
    2. D
    3. B
    4. D
    5. C
    6. Yes
    7. No
    8. No
    9. Not given
    10. restaurants
    11. performance
    12. turnover
    13. goals
    14. characteristics



  • Cambridge IELTS 12 Listening Test 1

    Section 1: Questions 1-10

    Complete the notes below.

    Write NO MORE THAN ONE WORD OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    FAMILY EXCURSIONS

    Cruise on a lake
    • Travel on an old steamship
    • Can take photos of the (1) …,………………….  that surround the lake

    Farm visit
    • Children can help feed the sheep
    • Visit can include a 40 minute ride on a (2) …,………………….
    • Visitors can walk in the farm’s (3) …,………………….  by the lake
    • (4) …,…………………. is available at extra cost

    Cycling trips
    • Cyclists explore the back road
    • A (5) …,…………………. is provided
    • Only suitable for cyclists who have some (6) …,………………….
    o Bikes can be hired from (7)  …,…………………. (near the cruise ship terminal)

    • Cyclists need:
    o A repair kit
    o Food and drink
    o A (8) …,………………….  (can be hired)
    • There are no (9) …,…………………. or accommodation in the area

    Cost
    • Total cost for whole family of cruise and farm visit: (10) …,…………………. $ 

    Section 2: Questions 11-20

    Questions 11-14

    Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

    Talk to new kitchen assistants

    1. According to the manager what do most people like about the job of kitchen assistant?
      1. the variety of work
      2. the friendly atmosphere
      3. the opportunities for promotion
    2. The manager is concerned about some of the new staff’s
      1. jewelry
      2. hair styles
      3. shoes
    3. The manager says that the day is likely to be busy for kitchen staff because
      1. it is a public holiday
      2. the head chef is absent
      3. the restaurant is almost fully booked
    4. Only kitchen staff who are 18 or older are allowed to use
      1.  the waste disposal unit
      2.  the electric mixer
      3.  the meat slicer
    Questions 15 and 16

    Choose TWO letter A-E.

    According to the manager which TWO things can make the job of kitchen assistant stressful?

    1. they have to follow orders immediately.
    2. the kitchen gets very hot
    3. they may not be able to take a break
    4. they have to do overtime
    5. the work is physically demanding
    Questions 17-20

    Choose FOUR answers from below.

    What is the responsibility of each of the following restaurant staff?

    Responsibilities

    1. training courses
    2. food stocks
    3. first aid
    4. breakages
    5. staff discounts
    6. timetables

    Restaurant staff

    1. Joy Parkins 
    2. David Field 
    3. Dexter Wills 
    4. Mike Smith 

    Section 3: Questions 21-30

    Questions 21-23

    Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

    Paper on Public Libraries

    1. What will be the main topic of Trudie and Stewart’s paper?
      1.  how public library services are organized in different countries
      2.  how changes in society are reflected in public libraries
      3.  how the funding of public libraries has changed
    2. They agree that one disadvantage of free digitalized books is that
      1.  they may take a long time to read
      2.  they can be difficult to read
      3.  they are generally old
    3. Stewart expects that in the future libraries will
      1.  maintain their traditional function
      2.  become centres for local communities
      3.  no longer contain any books
    Questions 24-30

    Complete the notes below.

    Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

    Study of local library: possible questions
    • Whether it has a (24) ………………………. of its own
    • Its policy regarding noise of various kinds
    • How it’s affected by laws regarding all aspects of (25) ……………………….
    • How the design needs to take the (26) ……………………….  of customers into account
    • What (27) ………………………. is required in case of accidents
    • Why a famous person’s (28) ………………………. is located in the library
    • Whether it has a (29) ……………………….  of local organisations
    • How it’s different from a library in a (30) ……………………….

    Section 4: Questions 31-40

    Complete the notes below.

    Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

    Four business rules
    • Many business values can result in (31) ……………………….
    • Senior managers need to understand and deal with the potential (32) ………………………. that may result

    Collaboration
    • During a training course the speaker was in a team that had to build a (33) ……………………….
    • Other teams experienced (34)  ………………………. from trying to collaborate
    • The speaker’s team won because they reduced collaboration
    • Sales of a (35) ………………………. were poor because of collaboration

    Industriousness
    • Hard work may be a bad use of various company (36) ……………………….
    • The word lazy in the context refers to people who avoid doing tasks that are (37) ……………………….

    Creativity
    • An advertising campaign for a (38) ………………………. was memorable but failed to boost sales
    • Creativity should be used as a response to a particular (39) ……………………….

    Excellence
    • According to one study on average pioneers had a (40) ………………………. that was far higher than that of followers.

    Cambridge IELTS 12 Listening Test 1 Section 1 Answers
    1. mountains
    2. horse
    3. gardens
    4. lunch
    5. map
    6. experience
    7. Ratchesons
    8. helmet
    9. shops
    10. 267
    Cambridge IELTS 12 Listening Test 1 Section 2 Answers
    1. A
    2. A
    3. C
    4. C
    5. A
    6. E
    7. F
    8. C
    9. D
    10. B
    Cambridge IELTS 12 Listening Test 1 Section 3 Answers
    1. B
    2. C
    3. C
    4. budget
    5. employment
    6. safety
    7. insurance
    8. diary
    9. database
    10. museum
    Cambridge IELTS 12 Listening Test 1 Section 4 Answers
    1. damage
    2. side effects
    3. bridge
    4. confusion
    5. smartphone
    6. resources
    7. unnecessary
    8. chocolate bar
    9. problem
    10. market share