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Cambridge IELTS 14 Listening Test 3
Section 1: Questions 1–10

Complete the notes below.

Write ONE WORD AND/ OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Flanders Conference Hotel

Customer Services Manager – Angela

Date available
• weekend beginning February 4th

Conference facilities
• the (1) ………………………… room for talks, (projector and (2)  ………………………… available)
• area for coffee and an (3) …………………………
• free (4) ………………………… throughout
• a standard buffet lunch costs (5) ………………………… $  per head

Accommodation
• Rooms will cost (6) ………………………… $  including breakfast.

Other facilities
• The hotel also has a spa and rooftop (7) …………………………
• There’s a free shuttle service to the (8) …………………………

Location
• Wilby Street (quite near the (9) ………………………… )
• near to restaurants and many (10) …………………………

Section 2: Questions 11-20

Questions 11 and 12

Choose TWO letters A-E.

Which TWO activities that volunteers do are mentioned?
1. decorating
2. cleaning
3. delivering meals
4. shopping
5. childcare
Questions 13 and 14

Choose TWO letters A-E.

Which TWO ways that volunteers can benefit from volunteering are mentioned?
1. learning how to be part of a team
2. having a sense of purpose
3. realising how lucky they are
4. improved ability at time management
5. boosting their employment prospects
Questions 15–20

Choose SIX answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-G, next to Questions 15-20.

What has each of the following volunteers helped someone to do?

What volunteers have helped people to do
1. overcome physical difficulties
2. rediscover skills not used for a long time
3. improve their communication skills
4. solve problems independently
5. escape isolation
6. remember past times
7. start a new hobby
Volunteers
1. Habib
2. Consuela
3. Minh
4. Tanya
5. Alexei
6. Juba
Sect 3: Questions 21-30

Questions 21–26

Complete the notes below.

Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Background on school marching band

It consists of around (21) ………………………… students.
It is due to play in a (22) ………………………… band competition.
It has been invited to play in the town’s (23) …………………………
They have listened to a talk by a (24) …………………………
Joe will discuss a (25) ………………………… with the band.
Joe hopes the band will attend a (26) ………………………… next month.

Questions 27 – 30

Choose FOUR answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-F, next to Questions 27-30.

What problem does Joe mention in connection with each of the following band members?

Problems
1. makes a lot of mistakes in rehearsals
2. keeps making unhelpful suggestions
3. has difficulty with rhythm
4. misses too many rehearsals
5. has a health problem
6. doesn’t mix with other students
Band members
1. flutist
2. trumpeter
3. trombonist
4. percussionist
Section 4: Questions 31 – 40

Complete the notes below.

Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer

Concerts in university arts festival

Concert 1
• Australian composer: Liza Lim
• studied piano and (31) ………………………… before turning to composition
• performers and festivals around the world have given her a lot of commissions
• compositions show a great deal of (32) ………………………… and are drawn from various cultural sources
• her music is very expressive and also (33) …………………………
• festival will include her (34) ………………………… called The Oresteia
• Lim described the sounds in The Oresteia as (35) …………………………
• British composers: Ralph Vaughan Williams, Frederick Delius

Concert 2
• British composers: Benjamin Britten, Judith Weir
• Australian composer: Ross Edwards
• festival will include The Tower of Remoteness, inspired by nature
• The Tower of Remoteness is performed by piano and (36) …………………………
• compositions include music for children
• celebrates Australia’s cultural (37) …………………………

Concert 3
• Australian composer: Carl Vine
• played cornet then piano
• studied (38) ………………………… before studying music
• worked in Sydney as a pianist and composer
• became well known as composer of music for (39) …………………………
• festival will include his music for the 1996 (40) …………………………
Cambridge IELTS 14 Listening Test 3 Section 1 Answers
1. Tesla
2. microphone
3. exhibition
4. wifi
5. 45
6. 135
7. pool
8. airport
9. sea
10. clubs
Cambridge IELTS 14 Listening Test 3 Section 2 Answers
1. A
2. E (in any order)
3. B
4. E (in any order)
5. F
6. A
7. E
8. G
9. D
10. C
Cambridge IELTS 14 Listening Test 3 Section 3 Answers
1. 50
2. regional
3. carnival
4. drummer
5. film
6. parade
7. D
8. B
9. E
10. F
Cambridge IELTS 14 Listening Test 3 Section 4 Answers
1. violin
2. energy
3. complex
4. opera
5. disturbing
6. clarinet
7. diversity
8. physics
9. dance
10. Olympics
January 5, 2024
Cambridge IELTS 13 Listening Test 4
Section 1: Questions 1-10

Complete the notes below.

Write ONE WORD OR A NUMBER.

Alex’s Training

Alex completed his training in 2014

About the applicant:
• At first Alex did his training in the (1) ………………………. department
• Alex did not have a qualification from school in (2) ……………………….

• Alex thinks he should have done the diploma in (3) ………………………. skills
• Age of other trainees: the youngest was (4) ……………………….

Benefits of doing training at JPNW:
• Lots of opportunities because of the size of the organization
• Trainees receive the same amount of (5) ………………………. as permanent staff
• The training experience increases people’s confidence a lot
• Trainees go to (6) ………………………. one day per month
• The company is in a convenient (7) ……………………….

Advice for interview:
• Do not wear (8) ……………………….
• Do not be (9) ……………………….
• Make sure you (10) ……………………….

Section 2: Questions 11-20

Questions 11-16

Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

The Snow Centre
1. Annie recommends that when cross-country skiing, the visitors should
  1. get away from the regular trails.
  2. stop to enjoy views of the scenery.
  3. go at a slow speed at the beginning.
2. What does Annie tell the group about this afternoon’s dog-sled trip?
  1. Those who want to can take part in a race.
  2. Anyone has the chance to drive a team of dogs.
  3. One group member will be chosen to lead the trail.
3. What does Annie say about the team relay event?
  1. All participants receive a medal.
  2. The course is 4 km long.
  3. Each team is led by a teacher.
4. On the snow-shoe trip, the visitors will
  1. visit an old gold mine.
  2. learn about unusual flowers.
  3. climb to the top of a mountain.
5. The cost of accommodation in the mountain hut includes
  1. a supply of drinking water.
  2. transport of visitors’ luggage.
  3. cooked meals.
6. If there is a storm while the visitors are in the hut, they should
  1. contact the bus driver.
  2. wait until the weather improves.
  3. use the emergency locator beacon.
Questions 17-20

Choose FOUR answers from the options below.

write the correct letter A-F next to questions 17-20

What information does Annie give about skiing on each of the following mountain trails?

Information
1. it has a good place to stop and rest
2. it is suitable for all abilities
3. it involves crossing a river
4. it demands a lot of skill
5. it may be closed in bad weather
6. it has some very narrow sections
Mountain trails
1. Highland trail
2. Pine trail
3. Stony trail
4. Loser’s trail
Section 3: Questions 21-30

Questions 21-26

Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

Labels giving nutritional information on food packaging
1. What was Jack’s attitude to nutritional food labels before this project?
  1. He didn’t read everything on them.
  2. He didn’t think they were important.
  3. He thought they were too complicated.
2. Alice says that before doing this project.
  1. she was unaware of what certain foods contained.
  2. she was too lazy to read food labels.
  3. she was only interested in the number of calories.
3. When discussing supermarket brands of pizza, Jack agrees with Alice that
  1. the list of ingredients is shocking.
  2. he will hesitate before buying pizza again.
  3. the nutritional label is misleading.
4. Jack prefers the daily value system to other labelling systems because it is
  1. more accessible.
  2. more logical.
  3. more comprehensive.
5. What surprised both students about one flavour of crisps?
  1. The percentage of artificial additives given was incorrect.
  2. The products did not contain any meat.
  3. The labels did not list all the ingredients.
6. What do the students think about research into the impact of nutritional food labelling?
  1. It did not produce clear results.
  2. It focused on the wrong people.
  3. It made unrealistic recommendations
Questions 27 and 28

Choose TWO letters A-E.

Which TWO things surprised the students about the traffic-light system for nutritional labels?
1. its widespread use
2. the fact that it is voluntary for supermarkets
3. how little research was done before its introduction
4. its unpopularity with food manufacturers
5. the way that certain colours are used
Questions 29 and 30

Choose TWO letters, A-E

Which TWO things are true about the participants in the study on the traffic-light system?
1. They had low literacy levels.
2. They were regular consumers of packaged food.
3. They were selected randomly.
4. They were from all socio-economic groups.
5. They were interviewed face-to-face.
Section 4: Questions 31-40

Complete the notes below.

Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

The history of coffee

Coffee in the Arab world
• There was small-scale trade in wild coffee from Ethiopia.
• 1522: Coffee was approved in the Ottoman court as a type of medicine.
• 1623: In Constantinople, the ruler ordered the (31) ………………………. of every coffee house.

Coffee arrives in Europe (17th century)
• Coffee shops were compared to (32) ……………………….
• They played an important part in social and (33) ………………………. changes.

Coffee and European colonisation
• European powers established coffee plantations in their colonies
• Types of coffee were often named according to the (34) ………………………. they came from.
• In Brazil and the Caribbean, most cultivation depended on (35)
• In Java, coffee was used as a form of (36) ……………………….
• Coffee became almost as important as (37) ……………………….
• The move towards the consumption of (38) ……………………….in Britain did not also take place in the USA.

Coffee in the 19th century
• Prices dropped because of improvements in ……………………….(39)
• Industrial workers found coffee helped them to work at ………………………. (40)
Cambridge IELTS 13 Listening Test 4 Section 1 Answers
1. finance
2. maths
3. business
4. 17
5. holidays/ vacations
6. college
7. location
8. jeans
9. late
10. smile
Cambridge IELTS 13 Listening Test 4 Section 2 Answers
1. A
2. B
3. A
4. C
5. A
6. B
7. B
8. D
9. A
10. E
Cambridge IELTS 13 Listening Test 4 Section 3 Answers
1. A
2. A
3. C
4. C
5. B
6. A
7. B
8. C
9. D
10. E
Cambridge IELTS 13 Listening Test 4 Section 4 Answers
1. destruction
2. university
3. political
4. port(s)
5. slaves/ slavery
6. taxation
7. sugar
8. tea
9. transportation
10. night
January 5, 2024
Cambridge IELTS 12 Listening Test 2
Section 1: Questions 1-10

Complete the notes below.

Write NO MORE THAN ONE WORD OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Events during Kenton Festival

Start date: 16th May

Opening ceremony (first day)
• In town centre, starting at (1) …………………….
• The mayor will make a speck
• A (2) ……………………. will perform
• Performance of a (3)  ……………………. about Hele Tungate (a (4)  ) …………………….
• Evening fireworks display situated across the (5) …………………….

Other events
• Videos about relationships that children have with their (6) …………………….
• Venue: (7)  House
• Performance of (8)  ……………………. dances
• Venue: the (9)  ……………………. market in the town centre
• Time: 2 and 5 pm every day except 1st day of festival
• Several professional concerts and one by children
• Venue: library
• Time: 6.30 pm on the 18th
• Tickets available online from festival box office and from shops which have the festival (10) …………………….  in their windows

Section 2: Questions 11-20

Questions 11-15

Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

Theatre trip to Munich
1. When the group meet at the airport they will have
  1. breakfast
  2. coffee
  3. lunch
2. The group will be met at Munich airport by
  1. an employee at the National Theatre
  2. a theatre manager
  3. a tour operator
3. How much will they pay per night for a double room at the hotel?
  1. 110 euros
  2. 120 euros
  3. 150 euros
4. What type of restaurant will they go to on Tuesday evening?
  1. an Italian restaurant
  2. a Lebanese restaurant
  3. a typical restaurant of the region
5. Who will they meet on Wednesday afternoon?
  1. an actor
  2. a playwright
  3. a theatre director
Questions 16-20

What does the man say about the play on each of the following days?

Choose FIVE answers from options given below.

Comments
1. The playwright will be present
2. The play was written to celebrate an anniversary
3. The play will be performed inside historic building
4. The play will be accompanies by live music
5. The play will be performed outdoors
6. The paly will be performed for the first time
7. The performance will be attended by officials from the town
Days
1. Wednesday
2. Thursday
3. Friday
4. Saturday
5. Monday
Section 3: Questions 21-30

Questions 21-25

Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

Scandinavian Studies
1. James chose to take Scandinavian Studies because when he was a child
  1. he was often taken to Denmark
  2. his mother spoke to him in Danish
  3. a number of Danish people visited his family
2. When he graduates James would like to
  1. take a postgraduate course
  2. work in the media
  3. become a translator
3. Which course will end this term?
  1. Swedish cinema
  2. Danish television programmes
  3. Scandinavian literature
4. They agree that James’ literature paper this term will be on
  1. 19th century playwrights
  2. the Icelandic sagas
  3. modern Scandinavian novels
5. Beth recommends that James’ paper should be
  1. a historical overview of the genre
  2. an in depth analysis of a single write
  3. a study of the social background to the literature
Questions 26-30

Complete the flow chart below.

Choose FIVE answers from options given below and write correct letter A-G next to questions 26-30
1. bullet points
2. film
3. notes
4. structure
5. student paper
6. textbook
7. documentary
How James will write his paper on the Vikings
• He’ll read a (26) ……………………. and choose his topic
• He’ll borrow a (27)  ……………………. from Beth
• He’ll plan the (28) …………………….  of the paper
• He’ll read some material and write (29) …………………….
• He’ll write paper using (30) …………………….

Section 4: Questions 31-40

Complete the notes below.

Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

Conflict at work

Conflict mostly consists of behavior in the general category of (31) …………………….
Often a result of people wanting to prove their (32) …………………….
Also cause by differences in (33) ……………………. between people
(34)  conflicts: people more concerned about own team than about company
Conflict related stress can cause (35) ……………………. that may last for months

Chief Executives (CEOs)
Many have both (36) …………………….  and anxiety
May not like to have their decisions questioned
There may be conflict between people who have different (37) …………………….

Other managers
A structure that is more (38) …………………….  may create a feeling of uncertainty about who staff should report to

Minimizing conflict
Bosses need to try hard to gain (39) …………………….
Someone from outside the company may be given the role of (40) …………………….  in order to resolve conflicts
Cambridge IELTS 12 Listening Test 2 section 1 answers
1. 2.45
2. band
3. play
4. scientist
5. river
6. grandparents
7. handsworth
8. traditional
9. outdoor
10. logo
Cambridge IELTS 12 Listening Test 2 section 2 answers
1. B
2. C
3. A
4. B
5. C
6. F
7. B
8. E
9. G
10. C
Cambridge IELTS 12 Listening Test 2 section 3 answers
1. C
2. B
3. C
4. A
5. C
6. E
7. G
8. D
9. C
10. A
Cambridge IELTS 12 Listening Test 2 section 4 answers
1. bullying
2. superiority
3. personality
4. structural
5. absence
6. confidence
7. visions
8. democratic
9. respect
10. mediator
January 2, 2024

Cambridge IELTS 11 General Reading Test 1

SECTION 1: Questions 1-14

Read the text below and answer Questions 1-5.

Is Your Child At School Today?

School Attendance Information For Parents/ Carers

Introduction
Receiving a good full-time education will give your child the best possible start in life. Attending school regularly and punctually is essential if children are to make the most of the opportunities available to them. The law says that parents must ensure that their child regularly attends the school where he/she is registered.

What you can do to help
• Make sure your child arrives at school on time. This encourages habits of good timekeeping and lessens any possible classroom disruption. If your child arrives after the register has closed without a good reason, this will be recorded as an ‘unauthorised’ absence for that session.
• If your child has to miss school it is vital that you let the school know why, preferably on the first morning of absence. (Your child’s school will have an attendance policy explaining how this should be done.)
• If you know or think that your child is having difficulties attending school you should contact the school. It is better to do this sooner rather than later, as most problems can be dealt with very quickly.

Authorised and Unauthorised Absence
If your child is absent and the school either does not receive an explanation from you, or considers the explanation unsatisfactory, it will record your child’s absence as ‘unauthorised’, that is, as truancy.

Most absences for acceptable reasons will be authorised by your child’s school:
• Sickness
• Unavoidable medical or dental appointments (if possible, arrange these for after school or during school holidays)
• An interview with a prospective employer or college
• Exceptional family circumstances, such as bereavement
• Days of religious observance.

Your child’s school will not authorise absence for the following reasons:
• Shopping during school hours
• Day trips
• Holidays which have not been agreed
• Birthdays
• Looking after brothers or sisters or ill relatives.

Questions 1-5

Do the following statements agree with the information given in the text?

In boxes 1-5 on your answer sheet, write

TRUE if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this

Children must go to the school where they are registered.
All arrivals after the register has closed are recorded as ‘unauthorised’ absences.
If your child is absent from school, you must send the school a letter to explain why.
Staff who think a child is having difficulties at school will contact the parents.
Schools will contact other authorities about children who take frequent unauthorised absences.

Read the text below and answer Questions 6-14.

Holiday Apartment To Let

A Sleeps 2-3. One-bedroom apartment with uninterrupted sea views. This is a small first floor apartment in a well-established apartment complex containing a range of leisure facilities and a supermarket for residents. On the edge of the town but close to cafés and restaurants. On-street parking is generally available.

B Sleeps 2-4. Spacious one-bedroom apartment in a complex that has only just opened, five minutes’ walk from the sea. Private parking in front of building. It is located in a quiet, unspoilt village with a local market, banks, cafés and restaurants. There are some fabulous championship golf courses within easy walking distance.

C Sleeps 2+child. One-bedroom cottage (child’s bed can also be provided), large terrace with uninterrupted views of the river and mountains. A truly peaceful location in a picturesque village, but less than ten minutes’ drive from the coast and all the amenities of a town. Owners live nearby and are happy to help in any way they can.

D Sleeps 2-5. Two-bedroom apartment in a complex with its own pool and beautiful views of the national park. A peaceful location just 3 km from the town centre, where there are plenty of shops and excellent sports facilities. Superb local golf courses within easy reach.

E Sleeps 2-4. Modern one-bedroom first floor apartment in house, owners resident on ground floor. This great location offers easy access to all that this fantastic town has to offer, a few minutes’ drive from its supermarket, bank, cafés, restaurants. The ferry to the island beach leaves from 100 m away. Ten minutes walk from the new shopping centre, which has many shops, food hall, cinema and multi-storey car park.

F Sleeps 2. One-bedroom first floor apartment. Beautifully furnished, offering a high standard of comfort. Situated in a peaceful location on the edge of an inland village, with attractive views of the golf course. Many restaurants, bars, shops etc. are within easy walking distance. Garage available by arrangement with the owners.

G Sleeps 2-4. Two-bedroom apartment in central location in busy street with shops, restaurants etc. not far from the beach. The town has ideal facilities for holidays all year round, including swimming pool, tennis courts and golf course.

Questions 6-14

The previous text has seven sections, A-G.

For which apartment are the following statements true?

Write the correct letter, A-G, in boxes 6-14 on your answer sheet.

NB You may use any letter more than once.

It overlooks a golf course.
It has its own parking space.
It is in the centre of a town.
The sea can be seen from it.
There is a swimming pool for residents of the apartment complex.
It is in a new apartment complex.
It is part of an apartment complex with its own supermarket.
It has a private outdoor area where you can sit.
The owners will organise parking on request.

SECTION 2

Read the text below and answer Questions 15-21.

GZJ Travel – Recruitment Info

We’re looking for keen and effective people who are passionate about travel to work as Travel Sales Consultants in our rapidly-growing team. Our recruitment process has five stages. Here’s how it works:

The first stage is to use our online application form to apply for a current vacancy. This is your chance to tell us about yourself, and the qualities and experience you have that make you the ideal person for the job. For the Travel Sales Consultant role, you’ll need to provide us with evidence that you have extensive experience in a marketing environment, as well as a solid academic background. If you’re interested in a career as a Corporate Travel Consultant, you’ll need at least one year’s experience as a Travel Consultant.

If you reach Stage Two, we’ll arrange a telephone discussion, where you can find out more about us, including the rewards on offer. For instance, once a year we like to acknowledge outstanding efforts and celebrate successes with our co-workers, and we have prize-giving ceremonies designed to do just this.

In Stage Three we’ll be able to give you more information about GZJ Travel, and find out more about you, at an interview which you’ll attend with a small group of other applicants. We’ll be asking you about your ambitions and of course your sales ability, the most vital quality for our business You’ll also be required to complete a psychometric test so we can find out more about your working style and characteristics. We’ll also tell you about some of the perks – for example, as a Flight Center employee you can take advantage of the free consultations conducted by our in-house health and wellbeing team, Healthwise.

Next, in Stage Four, you’ll be introduced to the Area Leader and you’ll also visit one of our shops, where you’ll meet the team and find out more about the sort of work that’s involved. If you successfully pass Stage Four, you’ve reached the final stage of the process and we’ll be in touch with a job offer! And if you accept, we’ll book you into our Learning Center to get your training under way as soon as possible. Careerwise, the department responsible for the training, will then organise individual coaching to assist in setting goals for your career path.

Questions 15-21

Complete the flow-chart below.

Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the text for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 15-21 on your answer sheet.

GZJ Travel – Recruitment Process
Stage One – Application Form – go online and apply for jobs advertised ⬇️ – give proof of achievements so far both in education and in a (15)………………. ⬇️ (Note: additional requirements for applicants interested in the role of (16)……………….)
⬇️
Stage Two – Telephonic Discussion – more information given about company and the (17)………………..you could receive ⬇️ – information about annual event where prizes are given to those who have made (18)…………………
⬇️
Stage Three – Group Interview – chance to tell us about how good you are at selling, and also about the (19)…………………you have ⬇️ – take part in a (20)………………….(used to learn about your way of working) – information given on benefits (e.g. health consultations)
⬇️
Stage Four – Individual Interview – meet a manager, and the (21)………………working in a particular store
⬇️
Stage Five – Job Offer – job offer sent out to successful applicants

Read the text below and answer Questions 22-27.

Hilton Laboratory
Health And Safety In The Workplace

Personal safety
You must be familiar with the emergency procedures in your building so that you know what to do in the event of fire, spillages or other accidents. Do not enter restricted areas without authorization, and at all times observe the warnings given. Do not wedge open fire doors or tamper with door closures, and do not block doorways, corridors or stairs, as obstructions may affect access in the event of a fire. Avoid leaving drawers and doors open unnecessarily and do not trail cables or flexes across the floor.

How to dispose of rubbish safely
We aim to protect the environment by saving and recycling glass, waste paper, and an increasing range of other materials. It is important to check materials carefully for contamination before placing them in recycling containers. Never put sharp objects such as razor blades or broken glass into waste bins without having wrapped the items carefully to protect those emptying the bins. Other waste procedures may vary — contact your Building Manager or Divisional Safety Officer for advice with regard to your particular department.

How to handle heavy objects
Make sure that shelves are not overloaded and that glass and heavy objects are stored at working height where they will be easier to reach. Use steps or ladders to reach items at height; never climb on benches, tables or chairs. Never move anything that is beyond your capability. Wherever possible you should use the trolleys provided in the workplace to do the job for you. If repetitive manual operations are routine in your work, your department will ensure you receive appropriate instruction on safe working practices and posture.

Staying alert
If you become mentally or physically tired during the working day, and find that you’re feeling drowsy or not concentrating properly, you could be at risk of causing an accident or making a mistake that could harm you or your colleagues. To prevent this, make sure that you take regular breaks when necessary.

Questions 22-27

Complete the sentences below.

Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the text for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 22-27 on your answer sheet.

There are certain places in the building that staff should avoid unless they have…………..
To ensure people can get out easily, it is important that there are no…………………. to exits.
Items which could cause injury must be………..……before they are disposed of.
Not all departments have the same system for dealing with…… so you need to check before throwing things away.
…………… are available to make tasks which require moving objects easier.
27. You should have……………. while you are working.

SECTION 3: Questions 28-34

The previous text has seven sections. A-G.

Choose the correct heading for each section from the list of headings below.

Write the correct number i-x, in boxes 28-34 on your answer sheet.

List of Headings

A decrease in the zebra population
An obstruction on the traditional route
An unknown species
Some confusing information
Staying permanently in the Makgadikgadi
Nearly a record in the zebra world
Three different ways of living
The original aim of the work
How was the information passed on?
Why it is important to study zebras

Section A
Section B
Section C
Section D
Section E
Section F
Section G

The Zebra’s Long Walk Across Africa

James Gifford investigates some interesting new research into migration patterns of zebras living in Botswana in southern Africa

A For any animal to travel over 270 km in Botswana partly across the sand and low bush terrain of the Kalahari Desert is a remarkable achievement. But to do so in 11 days and without any obvious motivation, as this zebra population does, is quite extraordinary. On average their journey involves an exhausting round-trip of 588 km — between the Makgadikgadi salt pan area and the Okavango river — making it second only to the great trek undertaken by the zebra herds in the Serengeti National Park. However, what is even more incredible still in my view is that until recently it was completely unheard of.

B Hattie Bartlam, a researcher, discovered this migration while she was tracking zebra groups, officially known as harems, by the Okavango river for her PhD. Each harem consists of a stallion and his seven or eight mares with juvenile foals. There is no loyalty between zebras beyond this social group, though harems often gather together into so-called herds. For her study, Hattie had planned to compare the small-scale movement patterns of 11 different zebra herds in the area.

C In December, when the annual rains had transformed the roads into rivers, Hattie was, therefore, more than a little surprised when she checked the data sent by the radio collars she fits to the zebras she is tracking to find that six of the harems were 270 km away on the edge of the Makgadikgadi, a huge mineral-rich area where salt has collected over the years as water evaporates in the heat. Then, when the last of the moisture from the rains had disappeared in May the following year, five of those harems came wearily back to the Okavango. This raised the question: why, despite a plentiful supply of food and water, were the zebras being drawn eastwards to the salt pans? Even more difficult to understand was what made six of the groups travel so far, while the other five remained by the Okavango.

D This discovery created quite a buzz in the research community. I decided to visit Hattie and she explained that a century ago the large number of Botswana’s zebra and wildebeest herds and the resulting competition for grass made migration essential. One of the migration tracks went from the Okavango to Makgadikgadi. But in the late 1960s, giant fences were put up to stop foot and mouth and other diseases spreading between wildlife and domestic cattle. One of these went across the migration track. Though the animals could get round the obstacle, each leg of their journey would now be 200 km longer – an impossible distance given the lack of permanent water on the extended route. Even today, with the fence gone (it was taken down in 2004), there is dangerously little drinking water to support the zebras on the return journey to the Okavango.

E As a zebra can live up to 20 years, the migration must have skipped at least one generation during the 40 or so years that the fences were up. This prompts another question: it has always been assumed that the young of social herbivores like zebras learn migratory behaviour from their parents, so how did the latest generation learn when and where to go? Not from their parents, who were prevented from migrating. Did they follow another species, such as elephants? We may never know.

F Hattie’s data points to the conclusion that there are several zebra populations adopting different behaviour. The first, like the vast majority of the Okavango zebras, take it easy, spending the entire year by the river. The second group, 15,000-20,000 strong, work a bit harder. They divide their time between the Makgadikgadi salt pans and the Boteti River, which is reasonably near by. They sometimes struggle to find water in the Boteti area during the dry season, often moving 30 km in search of fresh grazing. Their reward: the juicy grass around the Makgadikgadi after the rains. The final group of zebras, whose numbers are more modest (though as yet unknown), must surely be considered as among the animal kingdom’s most remarkable athletes. By moving between the Okavango and the salt pans, they enjoy the best of both worlds. But the price they pay is an extraordinary journey across Botswana.

G Endangered species naturally tend to grab the headlines, so it’s refreshing for a relatively abundant animal like the zebra to be the centre of attention for once. Zebras are a vital part of the food chain: understanding their migration in turn helps us to interpret the movements of their predators, and Hattie’s research has shed light on the impact of fences on migratory animals. So what triggered her interest in zebras? She explains that it is easier to get funding to study exciting animals like lions. Crucial as that undoubtedly is, she believes that herbivores like zebras are key to understanding any ecosystem. The scientific community is fortunate that people like Hattie are willing to take the hard option.

Questions 35-37

Complete the summary below. Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the text for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 35-37 on your answer sheet.

Social behaviour in zebras

Zebras tend to live together in small units, which experts call (35)……….……… Here, a male zebra has charge of a number of adult (36)………….….. and their young. These units sometimes assemble in bigger groupings or 37………… but it is still clear that the zebras’ loyalty only extends to the small unit they live in.

Questions 38-40

Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.

Write the correct letter in boxes 38-40 on your answer sheet.

How did Hattie feel when she heard some of the zebras had travelled so far?
1. annoyed because she would have to follow them to Makgadikgadi
2. disappointed that not all of them made it back to Okavango
3. frustrated as the rains had made the roads unusable
4. unsure as to their real motivation for going
When describing the different Botswana zebra populations, the writer indicates
1. his admiration for the ones who migrate the furthest distance.
2. his sympathy for the ones who stay by the Okavango River.
3. his disbelief that those by the Boteti have difficulty finding food.
4. his anxiety that their migration patterns may not be able to continue.
What does the writer suggest in the final paragraph?
1. Too much time has been wasted on research into the predators like lions.
2. It is sometimes necessary to go against the trend in research matters
3. Research will result in a ban on fences in areas where zebras live.
4. Research into animals which are not endangered will increase.

Answers

TRUE
FALSE
NOT GIVEN
NOT GIVEN
NOT GIVEN
F
B
G
A
D
B
A
C
F
marketing environment
corporate travel consultant
rewards
outstanding efforts
ambitions
psychometric
team
authorisation
obstruction
wrapped carefully/carefully wrapped
waste/rubbish
trolleys
(regular) breaks
vi
viii
iv
ii
ix
vii
x
harems
mares
herds
D
A
B

January 2, 2024

The Cognitive Power of Reading: How it Make You Smarter

In a world driven by constant technological advancements, the simple act of reading remains a timeless practice that offers profound benefits. Beyond its capacity to entertain, reading holds the key to enhancing cognitive abilities and nurturing intelligence in ways that go far beyond what meets the eye.

Expanding the Mind’s Horizons

Scientific studies, such as “The Benefits of Reading: A Reading Comprehension Intervention Study” by Anne E. Cunningham and Keith E. Stanovich, emphasize the relationship between reading habits and cognitive skills. This research highlights how engaging with diverse genres challenges the mind to envision new worlds, comprehend complex ideas, and empathize with diverse perspectives. Such mental exercises expand the boundaries of knowledge, exposing readers to concepts they might not encounter in their daily lives.

Enhanced Vocabulary and Communication Skills

Studies conducted by the National Institute of Child Health and Human Development (NICHD) have established correlations between reading proficiency and enhanced vocabulary, comprehension, and overall cognitive abilities, particularly in children. Exposure to a wide range of vocabulary through books enriches language skills and comprehension, as individuals encounter new words and phrases within varying contexts. This improvement in communication empowers individuals to articulate thoughts and ideas more effectively, fostering better relationships and opportunities for personal and professional growth.

Boosting Cognitive Functions

Research by Dr. Hutton and his team at Cincinnati Children’s Hospital Medical Center suggests that reading to young children significantly impacts brain activity. Their findings indicate that reading strengthens brain networks associated with narrative comprehension and visual imagery. Furthermore, scientific studies consistently highlight the positive correlation between reading and cognitive functions, including memory retention, critical thinking, and problem-solving skills. The mental exercise involved in decoding words and sentences trains the brain to focus and concentrate, enhancing overall cognitive abilities.

Empathy and Emotional Intelligence

According to Psychology Today, reading fiction can enhance empathy and social cognition. Immersing oneself in the lives and experiences of diverse characters fosters empathy by allowing readers to step into different shoes, understand various viewpoints, and relate to emotions and situations they might not encounter in their own lives. This exposure to different perspectives nurtures emotional intelligence, fostering compassion, understanding, and tolerance.

Continuous Learning and Lifelong Improvement

Harvard University’s Center on the Developing Child has resources discussing how early experiences, including exposure to books and reading, can shape brain development and lifelong cognitive abilities. Reading, as a lifelong journey of learning and self-improvement, ensures that learning never ceases, contributing to personal growth and adaptability in an ever-evolving world.

Conclusion

In conclusion, scientific research supports the benefits of reading, demonstrating its positive impact on cognitive functions, vocabulary, empathy, and continuous learning. Embracing the habit of reading is not merely a leisurely pursuit; it’s a gateway to a sharper mind, a deeper understanding of the world, and a richer life.

So, grab a book, immerse yourself in its pages, and watch as your mind unfolds new dimensions of intelligence and understanding. Reading truly is the passport to a smarter, more enriched life.

Finally, make sure to check our content for reading materials in various genres.

December 31, 2023
Cambridge IELTS 7 Speaking Test 1
PART 1

The examiner asks the candidate about him/herself, his/her home, work or studies and other familiar topics.

EXAMPLE

Keeping in contact with people
- How do you usually contact your friends? [Why?]
- Do you prefer to contact different people in different ways? [Why?]
- Do you find it easy to keep in contact with friends and family? [Why/Why not?]
- In your country, did people in the past keep in contact in the same ways as they do today? [Why/Why not?]
PART 2

Describe a party that you enjoyed.
- You should say:
  - whose party it was and what it was celebrating
  - where the party was held and who went to it
  - what people did during the party
  - and explain what you enjoyed about this party.
- You will have to talk about the topic for one or two minutes.
- You have one minute to think about what you are going to say.
- You can make some notes to help you if you wish
PART 3

Discussion topics:

Family parties

Example questions:
- What are the main reasons why people organise family parties in your country?
- In some places people spend a lot of money on parties that celebrate special family events. Is this ever true in your country?
- Do you think this is a good trend or a bad trend?
- Are there many differences between family parties and parties given by friends? Why do you think this is?
National celebrations

Example questions:
- What kinds of national celebration do you have in your country?
- Who tends to enjoy national celebrations more: young people or old people? Why?
- Why do you think some people think that national celebrations are a waste of government money? Would you agree or disagree with this view? Why
Cambridge IELTS 7 Speaking Test 1 Part 1 Model Answers

I usually contact my friends by using social media apps, such as WhatsApp, Facebook, or Instagram. I think these apps are very convenient and fast, and they allow me to chat, call, or video call with my friends anytime and anywhere. I also like to send them photos, videos, or memes that I find funny or interesting.

I prefer to contact different people in different ways, depending on the situation and the relationship. For example, I use email for formal or professional communication, such as with my teachers, colleagues, or clients. I use phone calls for urgent or important matters, such as with my family, doctor, or bank. I use text messages for casual or brief conversations, such as with my neighbors, classmates, or co-workers.

I find it easy to keep in contact with friends and family, because I have access to various communication tools and platforms. I can always reach out to them whenever I want or need to, and I can also receive their updates and news through social media. However, sometimes I feel that online communication is not enough, and I miss seeing them in person. I think face-to-face interaction is more meaningful and authentic, and it helps to strengthen the bond and trust between people.

In my country, people in the past did not keep in contact in the same ways as they do today, because technology was not as advanced and widespread as it is now. People used to rely on traditional methods, such as letters, telegrams, or landline phones, which were slower, more expensive, and less accessible. People also had fewer opportunities to travel or migrate, so they tended to stay close to their hometowns and communities. Therefore, people in the past had less frequent and diverse contact with others than people today.
Cambridge IELTS 7 Speaking Test 1 Part 2 Model Answer

Here are some notes that I made to help me:
- Party: my friend’s birthday party
- Celebration: her 25th birthday
- Location: her apartment
- Guests: about 20 people, mostly her friends and family
- Activities: eating cake, playing games, dancing, singing karaoke, taking photos
- Enjoyment: fun, relaxed, friendly atmosphere, good music, delicious food, nice gifts
One of the parties that I enjoyed was my friend’s birthday party. It was her 25th birthday, and she invited about 20 people to celebrate with her at her apartment. Most of the guests were her friends and family, and I knew some of them from before.

The party was very fun and relaxed. We ate a big chocolate cake that she baked herself, and it was delicious. We also played some games, such as charades, trivia, and cards. The games were very entertaining and competitive, and we laughed a lot. We also danced to some music that she played from her laptop. She had a good taste in music, and she chose songs that suited the mood of the party. Some of us also sang karaoke, and it was hilarious. We sang some old and new songs, and some of us were very good singers, while others were not so good, but we all had fun. We also took some photos with her camera, and we posed in funny ways. We wanted to capture the memories of the party, and we also wanted to make her happy.

I enjoyed the party because it had a friendly and warm atmosphere. Everyone was nice and cheerful, and we all got along well. I also enjoyed the party because it was a good way to show my friend how much I appreciated her. She was a kind and generous person, and she deserved to have a wonderful birthday. I gave her a nice gift, a necklace with her name on it, and she loved it. She thanked me and hugged me, and I felt happy for her.

That was the party that I enjoyed. Thank you for listening.
Cambridge IELTS 7 Speaking Test 1 Part 3 Model Answer

Family parties- The main reasons why people organise family parties in my country are to celebrate special occasions, such as birthdays, weddings, anniversaries, graduations, or religious festivals. Family parties are also a way to show love and appreciation to family members, to strengthen the family bond, and to share joy and happiness with relatives and friends.

– In some places, people spend a lot of money on parties that celebrate special family events. This is sometimes true in my country, especially in urban areas, where people tend to have more disposable income and higher expectations for parties. Some people may hire professional caterers, decorators, entertainers, or photographers to make their parties more lavish and memorable.

– I think this is a bad trend, because it puts a lot of pressure and stress on the hosts and the guests, who may feel obliged to spend beyond their means or to compete with others. I think parties should be more about the people and the emotions, not about the material things and the appearances. I think simple and sincere parties are more meaningful and enjoyable than extravagant and superficial ones.

– There are many differences between family parties and parties given by friends. For example, family parties are usually more formal and traditional, while parties given by friends are more casual and modern. Family parties may have more rituals and customs, such as cutting a cake, giving speeches, or exchanging gifts, while parties given by friends may have more games and activities, such as dancing, singing, or playing cards. Family parties may also have a wider range of ages and generations, while parties given by friends may have a more homogeneous group of peers.

National celebrations– Some of the national celebrations that we have in my country are:

* Coptic Christmas: This is a Christian holiday that celebrates the birth of Jesus Christ on January 7¹. It is a public holiday for all Egyptians, regardless of their faith. People celebrate by attending church services, exchanging greetings and gifts, and eating festive meals.

* Eid al-Fitr: This is an Islamic holiday that marks the end of Ramadan, the holy month of fasting, on the first day of Shawwal². It is a public holiday for all Egyptians, regardless of their religion. People celebrate by performing prayers, visiting relatives and friends, giving charity and presents, and enjoying special foods and sweets.

* Abu Simbel Sun Festival: This is a cultural event that occurs twice a year, on February 22 and October 22³. It celebrates the alignment of the sun with the statues of the ancient temple of Abu Simbel, which was built by Pharaoh Ramses II. People celebrate by witnessing the spectacular phenomenon, listening to live music, watching traditional dances, and tasting local cuisine.

– I think both young people and old people enjoy national celebrations, but for different reasons. Young people may enjoy national celebrations more for the fun and entertainment aspects, such as the music, the games, the food, and the socializing. Old people may enjoy national celebrations more for the sentimental and nostalgic aspects, such as the history, the culture, the religion, and the family.

– I think some people think that national celebrations are a waste of government money, because they believe that the money could be better spent on more urgent and important issues, such as health, education, security, or infrastructure. They may also think that national celebrations are irrelevant or outdated, and that they do not reflect the current needs and aspirations of the people. I disagree with this view, because I think that national celebrations are valuable and beneficial for the society. They help to preserve and promote the national identity and heritage, to foster the sense of unity and solidarity, and to enhance the morale and happiness of the people.
December 29, 2023

Cambridge IELTS 7 Listening Test 3

Section 1: Questions 1-10

Questions 1 and 2

Complete the notes below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER.

Type of job required: Part-time
Student in studying (1) …………………………….
Student is in the (2) ………………………. year of the course.

Questions 3-5
Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS.

Position available	Where	Problem
Receptionist	in the (3)…………………	evening lectures
(4)………………….	in the child care centre	too early
Clerical Assistant	in the (5)…………………..	evening lectures

Questions 6-10

Complete the form below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER.

STUDENT DETAILS

Name:	Anita Newman
Address:	(6)……………….., room no. (7)…………………
Other skills:	speaks some Japanese
Position available:	(8)……………..at the English language centre
Duties:	respond to enquiries and (9)……………….
Time of interview:	Friday at (10)………………am

Section 2: Questions 11-20

Questions 11-16

Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

SPONSORED WALKING HOLIDAY

On the holiday, you will be walking for
1. 6 days
2. 8 days
3. 10 days

12. What proportion of the sponsorship money goes to charity?

Each walker’s sponsorship money goes to one
1. student
2. teacher
3. school
When you start the trek you must be
1. interested in getting fit
2. already quite fit
3. already very fit
As you walk you will carry
1. all of your belongings
2. some of your belongings
3. none of your belongings
The Semira Region has a long tradition of
1. making carpets
2. weaving blankets
3. carving wood

Questions 17-20

Complete the form below.

Write ONE WORD ONLY.

ITINERARY

Day 1	arrive in Kishba
Day 2	rest day
Day 3	spend all day in a (17)……………
Day 4	visit a school
Day 5	rest day
Day 6	see a (18)……………….with old carvings
Day 7	rest day
Day 8	swim in a (19) ………………..
Day 9	visit a (20) ………………….
Day 10	depart from kishba

Section 3: Questions 21-30

Complete the notes below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS OR A NUMBER.

OCEAN RESEARCH
The Robotic Float Project
• Float is shaped like a (21) ……………………….
• Scientists from (22) ………………………. have worked on the projects so far

Questions 23-25

Complete the diagram below.

Write ONE WORD OR A NUMBER.

THE OPERATIONAL CYCLE

Questions 26-30

Write the correct letter A, B or C next to questions 26-30.

In what time period can data from the float projects help with the following things

understanding of El Nino
understanding of climate change
naval rescues
sustainable fishing practices
crop selection

At present
In the near future
In the long term future

Section 4: Questions 31-40

Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

Hotels and Tourist Industry

According to the speaker, how might a guest feel when staying in a luxury hotel
1. impressed with the facilities
2. depressed by the experience
3. concerned at the high costs
According to recent research, luxury hotels overlook the need to
1. provide for the demands of important guests
2. create a comfortable environment
3. offer an individual and personal welcome
The company focused their research on
1. a wide variety of hotels
2. large, luxury hotel chains
3. exotic holiday hotels
What is the impact of the outside environment on a hotel guest?
1. It has a considerable effect
2. It has a very limited effect
3. It has no effect whatsoever

Questions 35-40

Complete the notes below.

Write ONE WORD ONLY.

A company providing luxury serviced apartments aims to:
• cater specifically for (35) ………………………. travellers
• provide a stylish (36) ………………………. for guests to use
• set a trend throughout the (37) ………………………. which becomes permanent
Traditional holiday hotels attract people by:
• offering the chance to (38) ………………………. their ordinary routine life
• making sure that they are cared for in all respects – like a (39) ……………………….
• leaving small treats in their rooms – e.g. cosmetics or (40) ……………………….

Cambridge IELTS 7 Listening Test 3 Section 1 Answers

business
third
sport(s) centre
(a) cleaner
library
international house
B659
(an) office assistant
answer (the) phone
11.30

Cambridge IELTS 7 Listening Test 3 Section 2 Answers

B
C
A
C
B
A
forest
temple
waterfall
village

Cambridge IELTS 7 Listening Test 3 Section 3 Answers

cigar
13 (different) countries
activated
50 km(s)
temperature
A
C
A
B
C

Cambridge IELTS 7 Listening Test 3 Section 4 Answers

B
B
A
C
business
kitchen
world
escape
baby
chocolate

December 29, 2023