Category: General Reading Tests

SECTION 1  – Questions 1-14

Read the text below and answer Questions 1-8

A Bath International Music Festival
From electronics to folk, jazz and classical, this festival is renowned for bringing world-class musicians to this historical city. Starting with a great night of free music, ‘Party in the city’ this year is going to be no exception.

B The Great Escape
Often referred to as Europe’s leading festival for new music, more than 300 bands will perform to around 10,000 people in 30-plus venues, meaning you are sure to see the next big thing in music.

C Springwatch Festival
The much loved television series Springwatch celebrates the countryside as it does every year, with sheep herding, wood carving demonstrations, insect hunts and more activities, accompanied by live music and a great farmers’ market, offering all sorts of mouth-watering produce.

D Wychwood Music Festival
Right nominated for the best family festival award every year since it began in 2005, this festival offers a combination of different music genres- many featuring artists from around the Wychwood area – and comedy, alongside a selection of outdoor cafes serving amazing world foods.

E Love Food Festival
Bringing together a selection of the finest produce, this festival aims to educate visitors about how food should be produced and where it should come from, through sampling a range of tasty treats, cooked on site

F The 3 Wishes Faery Festival
The UK’s most magical, this is a three-day festival of folk art, live music and fashion shows set in the beautiful wild surroundings of Bodmin Moor. If you don’t fancy taking a tent, some local residents usually offer to put visitors up.

G Bath International Dance Festival
Featuring demonstrations from world champion dancers and star from the TV series Strictly Come Dancing, the festival promises toe tapping action, including a world record attempt, where everyone is invited to join in.

Questions 1-8

Look at the seven advertisements for festivals in the UK, A-G, in the previous text.

For which festival are the following statements true?

Write the correct letter, A-G, in boxes 1-8 on your answer sheet.

NB you may use any letter more than once.

1. Visitor can help to make one particular event a success at this festival.
2. People can listen to local musicians here.
3. At this festival, people can listen to music in lots of different places
4. It is not necessary to pay for one of the events here.
5. It is possible to stay overnight at this festival.
6. Children will enjoy this festival.
7. Visitors can get advice here.
8. People can watch craftspeople at work here.

Read the text below and answer Questions 9-14

BIG ROCK CLIMBING CENTRE

Big Rock Climbing Center is modern, friendly professionally run centre offering over 1,200 square metres of fantastic indoor climbing. We use trained and experienced instructors to give you the opportunity to learn and develop climbing skills, keep fit and have fun. Master our 11 m-high climbing walls using a rope harness, for an unbeatable sense of achievement. Or experience the thrills of climbing without any harness in our special low-level arena, which has foam mats on the floor is cushion any fall safety.

Who is Big Rock for?
Almost anyone can enjoy Big Rock. Previous climbing experience and specialist equipment are not required. You can come on your own or with friends and family comes as a fun alternative to the gym or for a special day out with the kids. If you are visiting the friends or family but not climbing, or just fancy coming to look, please feel free to relax in our excellent cafe overlooking the climbing areas.

Mobile Climbing Wall
Available on a day hire basis at any location, the big Rock mobile Climbing Wall is the perfect way to enhance any show festival or event. The mobile wall can be used indoors or outdoors and features four unique 7.3 m-high climbing faces designed to allow four people to climb simultaneously. Quick to set up and pack up, the mobile climbing wall is staffed by qualified and experienced climbing instructors, providing the opportunity to climb the wall in a controlled and safe environment. when considering what to wear, we have found that trousers and t-shirts are ideal. We will however, ask people to remove scarves. Most flat shoes are suitable as long as they are enclosed and support the foot. The mobile wall is very adaptable and can be operated in light rain and winds up to 50 kph. There are however, particular measures that we take in such conditions.

What about hiring the mobile climbing wall for my school or college?
As climbing is different from the usual team games practiced at schools, we have found that some students who don’t usually like participating in sports are willing to have a go on the mobile climbing wall. If you are connected that some children may not want to take part because they feel nervous if they climb, then please be assured that our instructors will support then up to a level which they are comfortable with. They will still benefit greatly from the experience.

Questions 9-14

Do the following statement agree with the information given in the text?

In boxes 9-14 on your answer sheet write

• TRUE          if the statement agrees with the information
• FALSE          if the statement contradicts the information
• NOT GIVEN       if there is no information on this

9. When climbing at the big Rock Centre, it is compulsory to be attached by a rope.
10. People who just want to watch the climbing can enter the Centre without paying.
11. People can arrange to have a climbing session in their own garden if they wish.
12. A certain item of clothing is forbidden for participants.
13. The mobile Climbing wall can only be used in dry, calm weather.
14. It is inadvisable for children who are afraid of heights to use the mobile climbing Wall.

SECTION 2 – Questions 15-27

Read the text below and answer Questions 15-20.

Marketing advice for new businesses

If you’re setting up your own business, here’s some advice on getting customers.

Know where your customers look

Your customers aren’t necessarily where you think they are. So if you‘re advertising where they’re just not looking, it’s wasted money. That’s why it pays to do a bit of research. Every time someone contacts your company, ask them where they found out about you. And act on this information so you’re advertising in the right places.

Always think like a customer
What makes your customers tick? Find out, and you’re halfway to saying the right things in your advertising. So take the time to ask them. A simple phone or email survey of your own customers, politely asking why they use you, what they really like and what they don’t, is invaluable.

Make sure customers know you’re there

If a customer can‘t see you, they can‘t buy from you. There are loads of opportunities to promote your business — print, press, direct mail, telemarketing, email and the internet — and using a mix of these increases your chances of being seen (and remembered).

Ignore your customers and they’ll go away

It sounds obvious, but companies who talk to their customers have much better retention rates than those that don’t, so it’s worth staying in touch. Capture your customers’ email addresses upfront. Follow up a transaction to check they’re happy with the service and, if possible, send them updates that are helpful, informative and relevant.

Know what works (and what doesn’t)

Do what the professionals do, and measure all your advertising. That’ll tell you what you’re doing right — and where there’s room for improvement. You never know, it might just throw up some information that could change your business for the better.

Remember word-of-mouth: the best advertising there is

A recent survey found that consumers are 50% more likely to be influenced by word-of-mouth recommendations than by TV or radio ads. So your reputation is your greatest asset If your current customers are impressed with your company, they’ll be more inclined to recommend you to others. On the flip side, if they experience bad service they probably won’t complain to you — but you can be sure they will to their friends.

Questions 15-20

Complete the sentences below.

Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the text for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 15—20 on your answer sheet.

15. Some………………………………………………..will help you to discover the most effective places to advertise.
16. A ……………………………………………… of your customers will show you how they feel about your company.
17. A …………………………of forms of advertising will make it more likely that potential customers will find out about you.
18. lf you can, provide customers with useful………………………………………………about your business.
19. Measuring the effects of your advertising can give you …………………………………. that will improve your business.
20. Success in finding new customers largely depends on your ………………………………………….

Read the text below and answer Questions 21-27.

Working Time Regulations for Mobile Workers

These rules apply to drivers and crew of heavy goods vehicles or public service vehicles. The rules limit the amount of time that can be worked.

Those defined in the Regulations as being self-employed are currently not covered by the Regulations.

What are the limits?
• An average of 48 hours’ work per week.
• In any single week up to 60 hours can be worked so long as the 48-hour average is maintained.
• Night work is limited to 10 hours per night, unless there is a workforce agreement to work longer.
• Statutory annual leave and any sick leave and/or maternity/paternity leave counts as working time.

What counts as work?
In general, any activities performed in connection with the transport operation count as work, for example, driving, loading/unloading and those checks that are the responsibility of drivers, such as checking lights, brakes, etc. There are a number of periods of time that do not count as work, for example, travelling between home and your normal place of work, lunch or other breaks and periods of availability.

Periods of availability are periods of time during which the mobile worker is not required to remain at their workstation but is required to be available for work, the foreseeable duration of which is known about in advance, for example:
• Delays at a distribution centre.
• Reporting for work then being informed that no duties are to be undertaken for a specified period.
• Accompanying a vehicle being transported, for example by train.
A period of availability can be taken at the workstation. Providing the worker has a reasonable amount of freedom (e.g. they can read and relax) for a known duration. this could satisfy the requirements of a period of availability.

Situations when a period of time should not be recorded as a period of availability:
• Hold-ups due to congestion, because the driver would be stopping and starting the vehicle.
• Frequently moving up within a queue (e.g. waiting within a queue to load or unload) every other minute.

Questions 21—27

Complete the notes below.

Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the text for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 21-27 on your answer sheet.

Working Time Regulations for Mobile Workers

These apply to people working on lorries, buses, etc.
They don‘t apply to (21)…………………….……………………………workers.
Maximum working hours: 60 hours a week, provided the (22) ……………………………..is no more than 48 hours.
Night work can be more than 10 hours with the (23) ……………………………..of the workers.
Work includes driving, loading and unloading, and carrying out various (24)…………………………………… of the vehicle.

Periods of availability include:
going on a (25)……………………………….or other form of transport with a vehicle
a period at the workstation when the driver has some (26) ………………….………………might count as a period of availability

Periods of availability exclude:
time spent stopping and starting the vehicle when (27) ………………………………causes delays being in a queue, e.g. in order to load or unload.

SECTION 3

Read the text below and answer Questions 28-40.

A brief history of automata

An automaton is a machine, usually made to resemble a person or animal, that operates on its own, once it has been started. Although few are constructed nowadays, they have a history stretching back well over two thousand years. Several myths show that the ancient Greeks were interested in the creation of automata. In one, Hephaestus, the god of all mechanical arts, was reputed to have made two female statues of pure gold which assisted him and accompanied him wherever he went. As well as giving automata a place in mythology, the Greeks almost certainly created some. These were probably activated by levers and powered by human action, although there are descriptions of steam and water being used as sources of power. Automata were sometimes intended as toys, or as tools for demonstrating basic scientific principles.

Other ancient cultures, too, seem to have developed automata. In Egypt, Ctesibius experimented with air pressure and pneumatic principles. One of his creations was a singing blackbird powered by water. A Chinese text of the third century BC describes a life-size, human-shaped figure that could walk rapidly, move its head up and down, sing and wink its eye.

Much later, Arab engineers of the ninth and thirteenth centuries wrote detailed treatises on how to build programmable musical fountains, mechanical servants, and elaborate clocks. A ninth-century ruler in Baghdad had a silver and gold tree with metal birds that sang. The art of creating automata developed considerably during the fifteenth century, linked with improvements in clock making: the mechanisms of automata and clocks had a great deal in common. Some truly remarkable automata were produced at this time. Muller was reputed to have made an artificial eagle which flew to greet the Emperor on his entry into Nuremberg, Germany, in 1470, then returned to perch on top of a city gate and, by stretching its wings and bowing, saluted the emperor on his arrival. Leonardo da Vinci made a lion in honour of the king of France, which advanced towards him, stopped, opened its chest with a claw and pointed to the French coat of arms.

Automata were normally very expensive toys for the very rich. They were made for royal or aristocratic patrons, to be viewed only by themselves and selected guests – who were expected to be impressed by their wealth. Automata were also created for public show, however, and many appeared on clock towers, such as me one in Bern, Switzerland, built in 1530.

During the eighteenth century, some watchmakers made automata to contribute to the progress of medicine and the natural sciences, particularly to investigate the mechanical laws governing the structure and movement of living things. Many of their creations simulated almost perfectly the complex structure of human beings and animals. Maillardet made extensive use of gearing and cogs to produce automata of horses, worked by turning a handle. Vaucanson produced a duck made of gilded copper which ate, drank and quacked like a real duck. He also made a life-size Female flute player. Air passes through the complex mechanism, causing the lips and fingers of the player to move naturally on the flute, opening and closing holes on it. This automaton had a repertoire of twelve tunes.

In another well—known piece, Merlin’s silver swan made in 1773, the swan sits in a stream consisting of glass rods where small silver fish are swimming. When the clockwork is wound, a music box plays and the glass rods rotate, giving the impression of a flowing stream. The swan turns its head from side to side. lt soon notices the fish and bends down to catch and. eat one, then raises its head to the upright position. The mechanism still works.

One of the most skilled makers of automata was the Swiss watchmaker jaquet-Droz. He produced three automata which, even today, are considered wonders of science and mechanical engineering. One of these, The Writer, simulates a boy sitting at a desk, dipping his pen into the ink and writing perfectly legibly.

Another Stunning creation of the eighteenth century was the Mechanical Theatre in the grounds of Austria’s Hellbrunn Palace, home of the Archbishop of Salzburg. Designed by the miner Rosenegger, and completed in 1752, this depicts the nobility’s idea of a perfect society, with every class in its proper place. The figures inside a palace depict eighteenth- century court life, while industrious activity is carried on in and around this building. A total of 141 mobile and 52 immobile little figures demonstrate all manner of trades of the period: building workers bring materials to the foreman, who drinks; butchers slaughter an ox; a barber shaves a man. A dancing bear performs, guards march past the palace, a farmer pushes an old woman in a wheelbarrow over the road. The theatre shows great skill in clock making and water technology, consisting of hidden waterwheels, copper wiring and cogwheels.

During the nineteenth century, mass production techniques meant that automata could be made cheaply and easily, and they became toys for children rather than an expensive adult amusement. Between 1860 and 1910, small family businesses in Paris made thousands of clockwork automata and mechanical singing birds and exported them around the world. However, the twentieth century saw traditional forms of automata fall out of favour.

Questions 28-30

Complete the summary below.

Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the text for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 28-30 on your answer sheet.

Automata and the ancient Greeks

The ancient Greeks had a number of (28) ……………………………………concerning automate. According to one, the god Hephaestus created two assistants made of gold. The Greeks probably also created real automata; it seems most likely that the mechanism which controlled them consisted of (29) …………………………which were worked by human operators. Some automate were designed to be (30)……………………………………… with an educational purpose.

Questions 31-35

Look at the following descriptions (Questions 31-35) and the list of people below.

Match each statement with the correct person, A-G.

Write the correct letter, A-G, in boxes 31-35 on your answer sheet

List of Descriptions

31. created an automaton that represented a bird in water interacting with its surroundings
32. created an automaton that performed on a musical instrument
33. produced documents about how to create automata
34. created automata which required a human being to operate the mechanism
35. used air and water power

List of People

1. Ctesibius
2. Arab engineers
3. da Vinci
4. Maillardet
5. Vaucanson
6. Merlin
7. Jaquet-Droz

Questions 36-40

Complete the sentences below.

Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the text for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 36-40 on your answer sheet.

36. The Mechanical Theatre shows court life inside a ……………………
37. In the Mechanical Theatre, building workers, butchers and a barber represent various ………………… of the time.
38. ………….. provides the power that operates the Mechanical Theatre.
39. New ………. that developed in the nineteenth century reduced the cost of the production of automate.
40. During the nineteenth century, most automata were intended for use by………………

Cambridge IELTS 12 General Reading Test 1 Questions 1-8 answers

1. G
2. D
3. B
4. A
5. F
6. D
7. E
8. C

Cambridge IELTS 12 General Reading Test 1 Questions 9-14 BIG ROCK CLIMBING CENTRE answers

9. FALSE
10. NOT GIVEN
11. TRUE
12. TRUE
13. FALSE
14. FALSE

Cambridge IELTS 12 General Reading Test 1 Questions 15-20 Marketing advice for new businesses answers

15. Research
16. Survey
17. Mix
18. Updates
19. Information
20. Reputation

Cambridge IELTS 12 General Reading Test 1 questions 21-27 Working Time Regulations for Mobile Workers answers

21. Self-employed
22. Average
23. Agreement
24. Checks
25. Train
26. Freedom
27. Congestion

Cambridge IELTS 12 General Reading Test 1 questions 28-40 A brief history of automata answers

28. Myths
29. Levers
30. Tools
31. F
32. E
33. B
34. D
35. A
36. Palace
37. Trades
38. Water
39. Techniques
40. children

SECTION 1: Questions 1-14

Read the text below and answer Questions 1-7.

Five reviews of the Wellington Hotel

A My husband and I first stayed at the Wellington a few years ago, and we’ve returned every year since then. When we arrive and check in, we’re always treated like old friends by the staff, so we very much feel at home. Our one disappointment during our last visit was that our room overlooked the car park, but that didn’t spoil our stay.

B The hotel hardly seems to have changed in the last hundred years, and we prefer that to many modern hotels, which tend to look the same as each other. The Wellington has character! Our room was very comfortable and quite spacious. We can strongly recommend the breakfast, though we had to wait for a table as the hotel was so full. That was a bit annoying, and there was also nowhere to sit in the lounge.

C We made our reservation by phone without problem, but when we arrived the receptionist couldn’t see it on the computer system. Luckily there was a room available. It wasn’t quite what we would have chosen, but it was a pleasure to sit in it with a cup of tea, and look out at the swimmers and surfers in the sea.

D We’d be happy to stay at the Wellington again. Although there’s nothing special about the rooms, the view from the lounge is lovely, and the restaurant staff were friendly and efficient. Breakfast was a highlight – there was so much on offer we could hardly decide what to eat. We’d stay another time just for that!

E The staff all did their jobs efficiently, and were very helpful when we asked for information about the area. The only difficulty we had was making our reservation online – it wasn’t clear whether payment for our deposit went through or not, and I had to call the hotel to find out. Still, once we’d arrived, everything went very smoothly, and we had a delicious dinner in the restaurant.

Questions 1-7

Look at the five online reviews of the Wellington Hotel, A-E, above.

Which review mentions the following?
Write the correct letter, A-E, in boxes 1-7 on your answer sheet.

NB You may use any letter more than once.

1. liking the view from the bedroom window
2. finding the receptionists welcoming
3. being pleased with the bedroom
4. becoming confused when booking a room
5. being impressed by the wide choice of food
6. staying in the hotel regularly
7. finding it inconvenient that the hotel was crowded

Read the text below and answer Questions 8-14.

Come and play walking football or walking netball

Walking football and netball have become increasingly popular in recent years, but do you know you can take part in this area? The names make it clear what they are – two of the country’s favourite sports where, instead of running, the players walk. It’s as simple as that.

Walking football was invented in the UK in 2011, but it was a 2014 TV commercial for a bank, showing it providing financial support to someone who wanted to set up a website for the game, that brought it to people’s attention. Since then, tens of thousands of people — mostly, though not only, over the age of 50 — have started playing, and there are more than 800 walking football clubs. Both men and women play walking football, but at the moment the netball teams consist only of women. However, men are beginning to show an interest in playing.

The two games are designed to help people to be active or get fit, whatever their age and level of fitness. In particular, they were invented to encourage older men and women to get more exercise, and to give them a chance to meet other people. Regular physical activity helps to maintain energy, strength and flexibility. You can start gently and do a little more each session. The benefits include lower heart rate and blood pressure, greater mobility, less fat and more muscle.

Many players have given up a sport – either through age or injury – and can now take it up again. They’re great ways for people to enjoy a sport they used to play and love, and keep active at the same time, though people who have never played the standard game before are also very welcome.

The local councils Active Lifestyles Team runs sessions at all the council’s leisure centres. Come alone or with a friend, and enjoy a friendly game on Monday or Saturday afternoons, or Tuesday or Thursday evenings. Each session costs £3 per person, and you don’t have to come regularly or at the same time each week. Our aim is to set up netball and football clubs as soon as there are enough regular players.

Questions 8-14

Do the following statements agree with the information given in the passage?

In boxes 8-14 on your answer sheet, write

• TRUE if the statement agrees with the information
• FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
• NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this

8. Walking football became well-known when a club featured in a TV programme about the sport.
9. The majority of walking netball players are men.
10. Most clubs arrange social activities for their members,
11. Players are tested regularly to measure changes in their fitness.
12. People who have never played football are encouraged to play walking football.
13. People can take part in the Active Lifestyles Team’s sessions whenever they wish
14. The Active Lifestyles Team intends to start clubs in the future.

SECTION 2: Questions 15-27

Read the text below and answer Questions 15-20.

Dress regulations at work

Your contract may state that you need to dress in a certain manner or wear a uniform. Your contract might also state that you need to dress ‘smartly’, rather than specifying any particular garments. As you might well have conflicting ideas of what counts as smart’, you should ask your employer for clarification. Many employers that have a strict dress code choose to provide clothing or a discount on clothing. However, this is not necessarily compulsory for the employer and is a factor you need to consider when taking a job.

Protective clothing and equipment
Your employer can tell you to put on protective clothing and equipment (such as gloves, a visor, boots, etc.). If you don’t, your employer is entitled to take disciplinary action, which can include excluding you from the workplace.
You are required to:
• co-operate with your employer on health and safety
• correctly use work items provided by your employer, including protective equipment, in accordance with instructions
• not interfere with or misuse anything provided for your health and safety or welfare.

Of course, any protective gear has to fit and be appropriate for the situation. It shouldn’t cause you pain. If it does, you should negotiate alternative equipment or arrangements. Don’t be put off. Sometimes employers can, out of caution, interpret health and safety rules unnecessarily rigidly. And of course you shouldn’t be required to pay for any protective equipment or clothing that you need. However, if your employer buys the gear, they are entitled to keep it when you leave.

The obligation to maintain protective clothing lies with the employer. The employer is also required to provide an appropriate storage space to keep the protective equipment in when it is not being used. And finally, the employer must provide the equipment and service free of charge to the employee.

Jewellery
Banning employees from wearing jewellery and loose clothing may be justified to prevent a potential hygiene hazard if you work in areas of food production or areas which need to be kept sterile.

Likewise, your employer can judge that loose jewellery may constitute a snagging hazard if you operate machinery. If you think restrictions are not justified by health and safety concerns, talk to your workplace union rep if you have one, as they may know of solutions to the problem which other employees have used before.

Questions 15-20

Complete the sentences below.

Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the text for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 15-20 on your answer sheet.

15. If employees are unsure what their company wishes them to wear for work, they should request …………………………
16. Some companies offer their employees a ………………………… when they buy items to wear for work.
17. Employees who fail to wear protective clothing when required could be subject to…………procedures.
18. Employees ought not to be in……………because of protective clothing or equipment.
19. It is the company’s responsibility to ensure that there is a suitable place for the……………of protective equipment.
20. Employees who work with certain types of…………………may have to remove jewellery to avoid potential injuries.

Read the text below and answer Questions 21-27.

How to achieve a better work—life balance

As more and more employees work from home full time and everyone has 24/7 access to email, balancing work and family may not seem like an easily attainable goal. So how can you juggle the demands of both worlds? Below are some tips to help you get started.

It’s easy to get sucked into habits that, make us less efficient without realizing it — like keeping your social media page open at work so you don’t miss something ‘important’. Draw up a list with all the activities that don’t enhance your life or career. Then minimize the time you spend on them.

It’s hard to say no’, especially to a supervisor or loved one, but sometimes that powerful little word is essential. Learn to use ‘no’ judiciously and it will become a powerful tool in balancing work and family.

Research shows that exercise helps you remain alert. Finding time to hit the gym may be hard, but it will ultimately help you get more things done because exercise really boosts energy and improves your ability to concentrate.

Study after study shows that significant sleep deprivation affects your health and well-being. Exposure to electronics can significantly negatively impact your sleep, so try to unplug an hour before you go to sleep.

What would you do if you had a whole day to yourself with no demands on your time? While most people don’t have the luxury of a whole day dedicated to relaxation, constantly putting off that downtime and putting everyone’s needs before yours will wear you down. Pick a time to do something just for you. Even just a few minutes of ‘me time’ a day will help to recharge your batteries.

Don’t assume your family and manager are aware of your concerns. If you feel you have to adjust your schedule to discover a better work—life balance, then voice that requirement. If that means asking your boss for permission to leave a few minutes early once a week so you can hit that yoga class on the way home, do it.

All new habits require time to build, so if you find yourself sneaking your smartphone to bed, that’s okay. Leave your phone downstairs tomorrow night. Tiny steps are the key to finding that balance, so start small, and go from there. Most of all, know your limitations and what works best for you; then decide what really matters, what advice you want to follow, and prioritize.

Questions 21-27

Complete the notes below.

Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the text for each answer.

Write your answers in Boxes 21-27 on your answer sheet.

Achieving a better work-life balance

How to begin
• Make a complete (21)……………of things that are not helpful and reduce involvement in them
• Refuse some requests as this can be a useful (22)……………in gaining a better work-life balance
Things that cars help
• Regular exercise
o can increase (23)………………significantly
• Sleep
o insufficient sleep can make people ill
o avoid focusing on (24)………………in the lead-up to bedtime
Issues that require attention
• Those who see other people’s (25)……………as more important than their own will suffer
• If the working day is too long, get (26)…………to shorten it occasionally
• People should learn to recognise their own (22) …………………………

SECTION 3: Questions 28-40

Read the text below and answer Questions 28-40.

San Francisco’s Golden Gale Bridge

A For several decades in the nineteenth century, there were calls to connect the rapidly growing metropolis of San Francisco to its neighbours across the mile-wide Golden Gate Strait, where San Francisco Bay opens onto the Pacific Ocean. Eventually, in 1919, officials asked the city engineer, Michael O’Shaughnessy, to explore the possibility of building a bridge. He began to consult engineers across the USA about the feasibility of doing so, and the cost. Most doubted whether a bridge could be built at all, or estimated that it would cost $100 million. However, a Chicago-based engineer named Joseph Strauss believed he could complete the project for a modest $25 to $30 million. After his proposal was accepted, Strauss set about convincing the communities on the northern end of the strait that the bridge would be to their benefit, as well as to that of San Francisco. With population centres growing fast, there was severe traffic congestion at the ferry docks, and motor vehicle travel by ferry was fast exceeding capacity.

B The bridge could not be constructed without the agreement of the US War Department, which owned the land on each side of the Strait and had the power to prevent any harbour construction that might affect shipping traffic. In 1924, San Francisco and Marin counties applied for a permit to build a bridge, and after hearing overwhelming arguments in favour of the project, the Secretary of War agreed. Despite the economic benefits promised by its supporters, the project met fierce resistance from a number of businesses – particularly ferry companies – and civic leaders. Not only would the bridge be an obstacle to shipping and spoil the bay’s natural beauty, they argued, it wouldn’t survive the sort of earthquake that had devastated the city in 1906. Eight years of legal actions followed as opponents tried to prevent it from being built.

C Meanwhile, Strauss’s team scrapped their original plans in favour of a suspension span capable of moving more than two feet to each side: this would withstand strong wind far better than a rigid structure. They also planned the two towers, and decided on a paint colour they called ‘international orange’.

D O’Shaughnessy, Strauss and the Secretary to the Mayor of San Francisco believed a special district needed to be created, with responsibility for planning, designing and financing construction. The formation of this district would enable all the counties affected by the bridge to have a say in the proceedings. This happened in 1928, when the California legislature passed an act to establish the Golden Gate Bridge and Highway District, consisting of six counties. In 1930, residents voted on the question of whether to put up their homes, their farms and their business properties as security for a $35 million bond issue to finance construction. The outcome was a large majority in favour.

However, the District struggled to find a financial backer amid the difficulties of the Great Depression, a problem made worse by years of expensive legal proceedings. Now desperate, Strauss personally sought help from the President of Bank of America, who provided a crucial boost by agreeing to buy $6 million in bonds in 1932.

E Construction began in January 1933, with the excavation of a vast amount of rock to establish the bridge’s two anchorages – the structures in the ground that would take the tension from the suspension cables. The crew consisted of virtually anyone capable of withstanding the physical rigours of the job, as out-of-work cab drivers, farmers and clerks lined up for the chance to earn steady wages as ironworkers and cement mixers.

The attempt to build what would be the first bridge support in the open ocean proved an immense challenge. Working from a long framework built out from the San Francisco side, divers plunged to depths of 90 feet through strong currents to blast away rock and remove the debris. The framework was damaged when it was struck by a ship in August 1933 and again during a powerful storm later in the year, setting construction back five months.

F The two towers were completed in June 1935, and a New Jersey-based company was appointed to handle the on-site construction of the suspension cables. Its engineers had mastered a technique in which individual steel wires were banded together in spools and carried across the length of the bridge on spinning wheels. Given a year to complete the task, they instead finished in just over six months, having spun more than 25,000 individual wires into each massive cable.

The roadway was completed in April 1937, and the bridge officially opened to pedestrians the following month. The next day, President Roosevelt announced its opening via White House telegraph.

G The Golden Gate has endured as a marvel of modern engineering; its main span was the longest in the world for a suspension bridge until 1981, while its towers made it the tallest bridge of any type until 1993. It withstood a destructive earthquake in 1989 and was closed to traffic only three times in its first 75 years due to weather conditions. Believed to be the most, photographed bridge in the world, this landmark was named one of the seven civil engineering wonders of the United States by the American Society of Civil Engineers in 1994.

Questions 28-35

The text above has seven sections, A-G.

Write the correct letter, A-G, in boxes 28-35 on your answer sheet.

NB You may use any letter more than once.

Which section mentions the following?

28. why it was easy to recruit workers to build the bridge
29. a change in the design of the bridge
30. opposition to building the bridge
31. why a bridge was desirable
32. problems with raising funding for the bridge
33. permission being given to build the bridge
34. which records the bridge broke
35. the idea that building a bridge might be impossible

Questions 36-40

Complete the sentences below.

Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the text for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 36-40 on your answer sheet.

36. Building the bridge required a……………issued by the Secretary of War.
37. One objection to building the bridge was that another………………would destroy it.
38. Construction was delayed when the framework was damaged by a ship and again by a………
39. The last part of the bridge to be constructed was the………………
40. The bridge was first used by………………in May 1937.

Cambridge IELTS 14 General Reading Test 2 section 1 Five reviews of the Wellington Hotel Answers

1. C
2. A
3. B
4. E
5. D
6. A
7. B

Cambridge IELTS 14 General Reading Test 2 section 1 Come and play walking football or walking netball answers

8. FALSE
9. FALSE
10. NOT GIVEN
11. NOT GIVEN
12. TRUE
13. TRUE
14. TRUE

Cambridge IELTS 14 General Reading Test 2 section 2 Dress regulations at work answers

15. clarification
16. discount
17. disciplinary
18. pain
19. storage
20. machinery

Cambridge IELTS 14 General Reading Test 2 section 2 How to achieve a better work—life balance answers

21. list
22. tool
23. energy
24. electronics
25. needs
26. permission
27. limitations

Cambridge IELTS 14 General Reading Test 2 section 3 San Francisco’s Golden Gale Bridge answers

28. E
29. C
30. B
31. A
32. D
33. B
34. G
35. A
36. permit
37. earthquakes
38. storm
39. roadway
40. pedestrians

SECTION 1 – QUESTIONS 1-14

Read the text below and answer Questions 1-7.

Online roommate finder: Toronto

I have one room available in a large apartment located just off Queen and Bathurst in Toronto. The room is fully furnished with a double bed, desk, shelf and wardrobe.

About us: I’m Sasha! I’m Canadian, and I’ve been living in this apartment since I was a teenager. I’m 23 and work in a restaurant. These past two years, my best friend has been living here but as she’s now moving to Europe there is a room available as of October 1. The third room is occupied by Simon, who is from Australia. He works part-time in a music shop downtown and is a great drummer. We both like keeping the place neat and tidy – I actually enjoy cleaning in my spare time and sometimes we do it together as a roommate team (we make it fun!). I love watching movies, exploring, getting out of the city and into the outdoors, and listening to music.

The apartment itself is very large and comes equipped with unlimited wi-fi, a fully stocked kitchen, cable television, and Netflix. The bedroom is a long way from the living room, so it shouldn’t disturb you if people come round and besides, we are certainly very respectful. Oh! We also have two cats who are well-behaved but they might be a problem if you have allergies. If you have a pet, that’s no problem – these cats get along with other animals.
We love having people coming from other countries as it’s really fun having the opportunity to show them around the neighborhood (it’s a great neighborhood – lots of character and plenty to do). That said, we’re certainly interested in living with Canadians too! We’re very easy-going and open-minded and just hope that our new roommate will be the same.

Questions 1-7

Do the following statements agree with the information given in the previous passage?

In boxes 1-7 on your answer sheet, write

• TRUE                           if the statement agrees with the information
• FALSE                         if the statement contradicts the information
• NOT GIVEN              if there is no information on this

1. The room available has two beds.
2. The Australian in Sasha’s apartment is a musician.
3. Sasha does all the cleaning in the apartment.
4. Sasha likes being in the open air.
5. The room available would be suitable for someone who likes to be quiet.
6. Sasha thinks her apartment is in the best part of Toronto.
7. Sasha has never had a roommate from Canada.

Read the text below and answer Questions 8-14.

Smartphone fitness apps

A Pacer
Although they were previously split into ‘pro’ and ‘free’ versions, Pacer’s developer now generously includes all the features in one free app. That means you can spend no money, yet use your smartphone’s GPS capabilities to track your jogging routes, and examine details of your pace and calories burned.

B Beat2
There are a wealth of running apps available, but Beat2 is a good one. This free app monitors your pace – or if you have a wrist or chest-based heart rate monitor, your beats per minute – and offers up its specially curated playlists to give you the perfect music for the pace you’re running at, adding a whole new dimension to your run. The best bit is when you explode into a sprint and the music pounds in your ears. Or if you fancy something different, the app also has In-App Purchases, including tales of past sporting heroes you can listen to while you run.

C Impel
If you’re serious about the sport you do, then you should be serious about Impel. As smartphone fitness tools go it’s one of the best, allowing you to track your performance, set goals and see daily progress updates. If you’re ever not sure where to run or cycle you can find user-created routes on the app, or share your own. All of that comes free of charge, while a premium version adds even more tools.

D Fast Track
There are plenty of GPS running apps for smartphones, but Fast Track is an excellent freebie. Although you naturally get more features if you pay for the ‘pro’ version, the free release gets you GPS tracking, a nicely designed map view, your training history, music, and cheering. Yes, you read the last of those right – you can have friends cheer you on as you huff and puff during a run. If you can afford the ‘pro’ version, you can add possible routes, voice coaches, smartwatch connectivity and more; but as a starting point, the free app gets you moving.

Questions 8-14

Look at the four reviews of smartphone fitness apps, A-D, in the previous text.

For which app are the following statements true?

Write the correct letter, A-D, in boxes 8-14 on your answer sheet.

NB You may use any letter more than once.

8. This app can be used for more than one sport.
9. You have to pay if you want this app to suggest where you can go.
10. This app has well-presented visuals.
11. You do not have to pay for any of the features on this app.
12. You can pay to download true stories on this app.
13. You can get ideas about where to go from other people on this app.
14. This app gives you details of the energy you have used.

SECTION 2 – QUESTIONS 15-27

Read the text below and answer Questions 15-20.

Why you should delegate tasks to team members

Delegation helps you get more done, helps your team members progress through learning new things and spreads the load in the team.

When you give someone a project task to do, make sure that they have all the information they require to actually get on and do it. That includes specifying the date it is due, writing a clear definition of the task, providing any resources they need to get it done or names of people you expect them to talk to. It also means informing them of any expectations you have, such as delivering it as a spreadsheet rather than a Word document.

If you have concerns that someone doesn’t have the skills to do a good job (or they tell you this outright), make sure that you offer some help. It might take longer this time but next time they will be able to do it without you, so it will save you time in the long run.

Once you have given the task to someone, let them get on with it. Tell them how you expect to be kept informed, like through a report once a week. Then let them get on with it, unless you feel things are not progressing as you would like.

As a project manager, you have to retain some of the main project responsibilities for yourself. You shouldn’t expect someone else on the project team to do your job. Equally, don’t delegate tasks such as dull administrative ones, just because you don’t want to do them. But remember that project management is a leadership position so you don’t want your role to be seen as too basic.

One way to free up your time to spend on the more strategic and leadership parts of project management is to delegate things that are regular, like noting whether weekly targets have been met. Could someone in your team take this on for you? This can be a useful way of upskilling your team members to complement any ongoing training and allowing them to gain confidence too.

So in summary, be clear, supportive, and don’t micromanage. Don’t become the problem on your project that prevents progress just because you’re afraid to leave people alone to get on with their jobs.

Questions 15-20

Complete the sentences below.

Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the text for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 15-20 on your answer sheet.

15. Ensure team members are aware of any…………………………………there are regarding how the work should be presented.
16. Make sure support is made available if any………………………………exist as to the team member’s ability to do the work.
17. Ask the team member to detail how the work is developing, for example by providing a regular…………………………………
18. Don’t delegate administrative tasks simply because they are…………………………………….
19. Managers can ask a team member to check on the achievement of …………………………………………… at fixed intervals.
20. If you………………………………………………….you risk delaying the whole project.

Read the text below and answer Questions 21-27.

Choosing the right format for your CV

A good CV should be clear, simple and easy to understand. Here are four of the most popular CV formats and advice on when to use them:

Chronological
This is the traditional CV format and is extremely popular because it allows employers to see all the posts you have held in order. It provides flexibility because it works in almost all circumstances, the exception being if you have blocks of unemployment that are difficult to account for. This type of format is particularly useful when you have a solid and complete working history spanning five years or more.

Functional
The functional CV is designed to describe your key skills rather than the jobs you have done. The functional CV format is typically used by people who have extensive gaps in their employment history, or have often changed jobs. It also suits those who want to go in a different direction work-wise and change industry. You might choose it if you want to highlight skills learned early in your career, points that might get missed if a chronological format is used. It is also appropriate if you have done little or no actual work, for example, if you are one of the current years graduates.

Because this format is often used to cover a patchy employment history, some interviewers may view such CVs with suspicion, so be very careful should you choose it.

Achievement
An alternative to the functional CV is to use an achievement-based resume highlighting key achievements in place of skills. This can help show your suitability for a role if you lack direct experience of it.

Non-traditional
With the explosion of digital and creative industries over recent years, CV formats have become more and more imaginative. You can present information through graphics, which can be more visually engaging and turn out to be an unusual but winning option. This will definitely make you stand out from the crowd. It also demonstrates design skills and creativity in a way that a potential employer can see and feel. However, a highly creative CV format is only really appropriate for creative and artistic sectors, such as those involving promoting products, though it would also work for the media too.

Questions 21-27

Complete the notes below.

Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the text for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 21-27 on your answer sheet.

CV formats
There are several different formats including:
Chronological
– very common
– gives (21)…………………………… in most cases
– perhaps inappropriate if there are periods where (22)…………………………. is not easy to explain

Functional
– appropriate for people who intend to follow a new (23)………………………………… in their career
– suits recent graduates
– can create (24)……………………………………..in recruiters, so is best used with caution

Achievement
– focuses mainly on what the person has achieved
– may be advisable if the person has no (25)…………………………………in the area

Non-traditional
– enables use of attractive (26)………………………………………..to present data –
– suits applications for jobs in marketing or (27)…………………………..

SECTION 3 – QUESTIONS 28-40

Read the text below and answer Questions 28-40.

DINOSAURS AND THE SECRETS THEY STILL HOLD

I was recently part of a team of palaeontologists that discovered a new dinosaur. Living in what is now China, the species would have resembled a strange bird. It was about the size of a sheep and covered in feathers, with a sharp beak that it probably used to crack open shellfish. It was given the formal scientific name Tongtianlong, but we called it ‘Mud Dragon’ because its skeleton was discovered in rock that had hardened from ancient mud. It seems that the creature got trapped in the mud and died. Then its fossil remains were found a few months ago when workmen were excavating a site in order to build a school.

It is every dinosaur-obsessed child’s dearest wish to discover and name a completely new species. In fact what my colleagues and I did wasn’t that unusual. New dinosaurs are appearing everywhere these days – about 50 each year. And this pace shows no signs of slowing, as different areas continue to open up to fossil hunters and a fresh generation of scientists comes of age. Because of this plentiful supply of new fossils, we now know more about dinosaurs than we do about many modern animals. But there are still many unsolved mysteries.

Dinosaurs didn’t start out as huge monsters like Tyrannosaurus Rex. Instead they evolved from a group of angular, cat-sized reptiles called dinosauromorphs. These creatures remained small and rare for millions of years until they developed into dinosaurs. The boundary between dinosauromorphs and dinosaurs is becoming less and less distinct with each new discovery that’s made, but what’s becoming clear is that it took millions of years for these first dinosaurs to spread around the world, grow to huge sizes and become truly dominant.

Some discoveries in the 1970s, like the agile and strangely bird-like Deinonychus, proved that dinosaurs were far more dynamic and intelligent than previously thought. Some palaeontologists even proposed that they were warm-blooded creatures like modern birds with a constant high body temperature that they controlled internally, rather than from warming themselves by lying in the sun. A few decades later opinions are still mixed. The problem is that dinosaurs can’t be observed. Palaeontologists must rely on studying fossils. Some results are convincing: we know from studying their bones that dinosaurs had rapid growth rates, just like modern, warm-blooded animals. Other palaeontologists, however, use the same fossils to suggest that dinosaurs were somewhere between cold-blooded reptiles and warm-blooded birds. More studies are needed to provide more clarity.

The discovery of Deinonychus with its long arms, skinny legs, arched neck and big claws on its feet, helped to strengthen the theory that birds evolved from dinosaurs. In the late 1990s, the discovery of thousands of feather- covered dinosaurs closed the argument. But the fossils raised another question: why did feathers first develop in dinosaurs? They probably originated as simple, hair-like strands — a necessary means of keeping warm. Many dinosaurs retained this basic fluffy coat, but in one group the strands modified. They grew bigger, started to branch out and changed into feathers like those on modern birds. They lined the arms, and sometimes the legs, forming wings. These feathers were probably for display: to attract mates or scare off rivals. They appeared in species such as the ostrich-like Ornithomimosaur. Such creatures were too large to fly. Flight may actually have come about by accident when smaller winged dinosaurs began jumping between trees or leaping in the air, and suddenly found that their wings had aerodynamic properties. This is one of the most stimulating new notions about dinosaurs and a fascinating area for further investigation.

There’s something else that these feathers can tell us. They allow us to determine what colour dinosaurs were. If you look at modern bird feathers under a microscope, you can see tiny blobs called melanosomes. These structures contain melanin, one of the main colour-producing pigments in animals. Some are round, others are egg-shaped, etc. And that’s important, because different shapes contain different colour pigments. So if you can identify the shape, you can identify the colour. A few years ago, some palaeontologists realised that you could find melanosomes in particularly well-preserved fossil feathers. They discovered that different dinosaurs had different melanosomes, which meant they had a variety of colours. Dinosaurs, therefore, probably came in a rainbow of colours – yet another thing that links them to modern birds.

The most enduring mystery of all, which has been argued about ever since the first dinosaur fossils were found, is ‘Why aren’t dinosaurs around today?’ Of course, we now know that birds evolved from dinosaurs, so some dinosaurs do continue in a sense. But there’s nothing like a Tyrannosaurus Rex today. They dominated the planet for over 150 million years, but suddenly disappeared from the fossil record 66 million years ago. That’s when a 10 km-wide asteroid came out of space and struck what is now Mexico, impacting with huge force and unleashing earthquakes, tidal waves, wildfires and hurricane-force winds. Although palaeontologists still like to argue about what part the asteroid played in the dinosaurs’ extinction, there really isn’t much of a mystery left. The asteroid did it and did it quickly. There are few signs that dinosaurs were struggling before the impact. None survived except a few birds and some small furry mammals. They found themselves in an empty world, and as the planet started to recover, they evolved into new creatures, including the first apes, and so the long journey began to the beginning of humankind.

Questions 28-32

Complete the summary below.

Write your answers in boxes 28-32 on your answer sheet.

Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the text for each answer.

The discovery of Tongtianlong

This species of dinosaur has only recently been found in an area of China. Scientists believe that it was bird-like in appearance and probably no bigger than a (28)…………………………………………….It is thought to have eaten (29)……………………………………….and it used its 30…………………………………………..to get through their hard exterior. The fossil of Tongtianlong was found surrounded by (31)……………………………………….under the ground where the foundations of a new (32)…………………………………..were being dug.

Questions 33-37

Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.

Write the correct letter in boxes 33-37 on your answer sheet

33. What does the writer suggest about finding new dinosaurs?
    1. Many scientists dream of being able to do so one day.
    2. It is probable that most have now been discovered.
    3. People are running out of places to look for them.
    4. It is becoming relatively common to dig one up.
34. In the fourth paragraph, what does the writer suggest about palaeontologists?
    1. They should study the fossilised bones of dinosaurs more closely.
    2. Their theories are based on evidence that can be interpreted in different ways.
    3. It is impossible to have any confidence in the proposals they have made.
    4. It is worrying that they still cannot agree about dinosaurs’ body temperature.
35. When describing the theory of how dinosaurs began to fly, the writer is
    1. amused that their flight probably came about by chance.
    2. surprised by the reason for the initial development of feathers.
    3. excited by the different possibilities it holds for future research.
    4. confused that feathers were also present on some creatures’ legs.
36. One significance of melanosomes is that they
    1. provide further evidence of where birds evolved from.
    2. are only found in certain parts of the world.
    3. can be clearly seen in most fossilised feathers.
    4. are only found in certain birds and dinosaurs.
37. Which of the following best summarises the writer’s point in the final paragraph?
    1. Scientists are right to continue questioning the effects of the asteroid strike.
    2. Large flightless dinosaurs may have existed after the asteroid hit.
    3. The dinosaurs were already declining before the asteroid hit.
    4. The effects of the asteroid strike killed most dinosaurs.

Questions 38-40

Look at the following statements (Questions 38-40) and the list of prehistoric animals below.

Match each statement with the correct animal, A, B, C or D.

Write the correct letter, A, B, C or D, in boxes 38-40 on your answer sheet.

NB You may use any letter more than once.

38. It may have used its feathers to frighten off members of the same species.
39. This species resembles a large flightless bird that exists today.
40. Finding this species made scientists revise their opinion of the brain power of dinosaurs.

List of Prehistoric Animals

1. Tongtianlong
2. Tyrannosaurus Rex
3. Deinonychus
4. Ornithomimosaur

Cambridge IELTS 13 General Reading Test 2 section 1 Online roommate finder: Toronto answers

1. False
2. True
3. False
4. True
5. True
6. Not given
7. Not given

Cambridge IELTS 13 General Reading Test 2 section 1 Smartphone fitness apps answers

8. C
9. D
10. D
11. A
12. B
13. C
14. A

Cambridge IELTS 13 General Reading Test 2 section 2 Why you should delegate tasks to team members answers

15. Expectations
16. Concerns
17. Report
18. Dull
19. Targets
20. Micromanage

Cambridge IELTS 13 General Reading Test 2 section 2 Choosing the right format for your CV answers

21. Flexibility
22. Unemployment
23. Direction
24. Suspicion
25. Experience
26. Graphics
27. Media

Cambridge IELTS 13 General Reading Test 2 section 3 DINOSAURS AND THE SECRETS THEY STILL HOLD answers

28. Sheep
29. Shellfish
30. Beak
31. Rock
32. School
33. D
34. B
35. C
36. A
37. D
38. D
39. D
40. C

SECTION 1 – Questions 1-14

Read the text below and answer Questions 1-6.

Summer activities at London’s Kew Gardens

A Climb up to the walkway among the trees, 18 metres above the ground, for a spectacular experience. Feel as tall as the trees and enjoy a bird’s-eye view over the gardens.

B The Nash Conservatory displays stunning images from leading wildlife photographer Heather Angel. Each photograph explores the wealth of biodiversity at Kew Gardens, from foxes to birds, tiny insects to towering trees.

C A world of pollination comes to life in the Princess of Wales Conservatory. Find yourself in a tropical environment whilst walking through clouds of colourful butterflies as they fly around the Conservatory! Come face-to-face with gigantic sculptures of insects, birds and bats, which will help tell the fascinating stories of how they interact with plants.

D An extraordinary sound installation created by Chris Watson. On the hour throughout the day, the Palm House is filled with the sound of the dawn and dusk choruses of birds that live in the Central and South American rainforests.

E Come and see the fantastic outdoor exhibition of garden, wildlife and botanical photography. Walk amongst enlarged photographs and admire the wonderful garden photos – all taken by children aged 16 and under from all round the country. If you are in this age category and fancy yourself as a photographer, then you can enter for the next show!

F Young explorers can discover the new children’s outdoor play area, shaped like a plant, in Kew’s magical Conservation Area. As you journey through this interactive landscape, discover the functions of every part of a plant. Tunnel through giant roots, get lost among the leaves and hide amongst the large fungi, whilst solving puzzles along the way!

G What is biodiversity all about? Did you know that every breath we take and every move we make depends on plants? Take a guided tour to discover what biodiversity means and why it matters so much.

H Visit our exciting and colourful exhibition of South American botanical paintings, which brings the continent’s exotic and lush plants to life in works from two hundred years ago and from this century.

Questions 1-6

The previous text has eight sections, A-H.

Which sections contain the following information?

Write the correct letter, A-H, in boxes 1-6 on your answer sheet.

1. learning what all the different sections of a plant do
2. seeing art showing plants from a different part of the world
3. the possibility of having your work exhibited
4. learning about why human beings need plants
5. something that happens daily at the same times
6. learning about the relationship between various creatures, insects and plants

Read the text below and answer Questions 7-14.

City Park and Ride

We have six purpose-built Park and Ride sites serving the city, more than almost anywhere else in the UK. Established for over 40 years, they provide around 5,000 parking spaces for cars. The sires are located on the main routes into the city centre. More than 3,000,000 passengers a year take a bus from a Park and Ride site into the city, reducing congestion and helping to improve the air quality in the city centre.

Parking at the sites is available only for those travelling from the site on a Park and Ride or other scheduled bus service, and is free. No overnight parking is permitted. Heavy goods vehicles are not permitted at the Park and Ride site at any time.

It’s simple to use. Just park your car and buy your but ticket from the bus driver, with the correct money if possible. An individual adult daily return purchased prior to 12:30 hrs for use that day costs £2.40. If purchased after 12:30 hrs it costs £2.10.

Up to four children under 16 travel free with an adult or concessionary pass holder. The return fare for unaccompanied children under 16 is £1.10.

Cycle and Ride for just £1.10 a day. Just park your cycle, motorcycle or scooter in the allocated space, and buy your ticket from the site office. You may be asked to provide evidence that you have travelled to the Park and Ride site by cycle, motorcycle or scooter.

Return tickets for concessionary bus pass holders cost El after 09:30 Monday to Friday and any time at weekend or bank holidays (when open). At other times there is no reduction for holders of concessionary, bus passes.

Questions 7-14

Do the following statements agree with the information given in the previous text?

In boxes 7-14 on your answer sheet, write

• TRUE                       if the statement agrees with the information
• FALSE                     if the statement contradicts the information
• NOT GIVEN         if there is no information on this

7. This was one of the first UK cities to introduce a Park and Ride scheme.
8. The amount of congestion in the city centre has fallen.
9. There is a special section of the car park for heavy goods vehicles.
10. Bus drivers do not give change so you must have the correct money for a ticket.
11. Ticket prices vary depending on the time of day.
12. Children under 16 travelling alone are allowed free travel.
13. The space for cycles, motorcycles and scooters is close to the site office.
14. People with concessionary bus passes must pay the full fare to travel at certain times.

SECTION 2 – Questions 15-27

Read the text below and answer Questions 15-20.

HOW TO ORGANISE A SUCCESSFUL BUSINESS CONFERENCE

To start with
Advance planning is the key to a hassle-free conference. The key players of a successful conference are the delegates, so identify the audience and then tailor the programme you are planning to their particular needs.

Where and when
The date and venue should then be chosen. These are often interdependent, and when choosing the date take into account the timing of similar regular events which may clash. Also consider holiday periods which may mean that people are away and so will not be able to attend.

When choosing a venue, check how easy it is to reach by train and plane etc. and the availability of parking for those driving. Visit the venue personally: consider the size of the main lecture hall and whether it is big enough for the anticipated number of delegates, then look into the potential of having breakout areas for separating into a number of groups for discussions. Then check whether there is a suitable lounge area for the teal coffee breaks and an exhibition space for display stands if required.

Who
The next stage is to choose the speakers and invite them, making sure you give them ample notice so they are more likely to be available. Ask only those people that you know speak well. Do not try and speak yourself in addition to organising the conference, as this will be too demanding.

Contacting people
Let people know the date and venue by an early mailshot. This allows them, if they are interested, to put the date into their diaries. At the same time, contact all the speakers again, confirming their particular topic, the audio-visual aids which will be available and finding out their accommodation requirements. Ask them to provide a written summary of their presentation for distribution to delegates at the conference.

Final arrangements
Approximately 4-5 weeks before the conference, confirm the provisional numbers with the venue. Contact them again about two weeks prior to the conference to confirm final numbers, decide on menus and finalise the arrangements.

Prepare delegate packs to include a name badge, delegate list and programme. The venue should provide pads of paper and pens .Then prepare questionnaires for all delegates to complete at the end of the conference. Their responses will enable you to gauge the success of the conference and start planning the next one!

Questions 15-20

Complete the notes below.

Write your answers in boxes 15-20 on your answer sheet.

Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the text for each answer.

ORGANISING A BUSINESS CONFERENCE
First steps:
– decide who the conference is for
– ensure the programme fulfils delegates’ requirements
Venue and timing:
– try to avoid scheduling the conference during (15)……………….times or when other annual conferences occur
– check accessibility by different modes of transport
– choose a place with a large hall and also (16) ………………. spaces for smaller meetings
Speakers:
– choose appropriate speakers
– give the speakers as much (17) ………………… as possible
Communication:
– send out a mailshot to potential delegates
– confirm individual details with speakers. check if they will need accommodation and request a (18) ……………..…. of their presentation
Final tasks:
– give the venue precise numbers of attendees
– make sure each person attending receives information about the conference and a (19)………….………. for identification
– use (20)………..………… to get opinions on the conference

Read the text below and answer Questions 21-27.

How to deal with the annual performance appraisal

The annual performance appraisal can help improve your productivity and provide a foundation for your work priorities. It is, however, critical to have the right attitude and approach. Knowing what areas your superiors see as your weaknesses is the most direct way of increasing the likelihood of being considered for promotion, if that is what you are looking for.

Preparation
Send your boss a summary of your achievements. Reminding your boss of activities, special assignments you did, and projects you were in charge of helps him or her create a more accurate performance appraisal. Consider keeping notes of these on a regular basis to make it easier to provide the data when required.

Create a list of questions you would like to discuss during your appraisal. This one-on-one time with your boss is an excellent opportunity to ask him or her about your role in the company, request any additional responsibilities you would like and clarify your priorities. But it is best to focus your attention around personal and professional improvements, rather than financial considerations, such as an increase in salary.

During the appraisal
Present a positive attitude as soon as you enter the appraisal room. This approach may lead to a more constructive discussion of review items. Avoid taking any negative assessments that arc offered as a personal attack, but rather try to take them on board calmly, because if you put the failings right you will improve your performance. A realistic assessment of your strengths and weaknesses can be one of the most beneficial ways of helping you advance in the company.

After the appraisal
Create a list of personal goals based on your performance appraisal. Make the items detailed and measurable if possible. Send this list to your boss so he or she knows you took the appraisal seriously. Use this list to help achieve higher scores on your next performance appraisal. Six months after the appraisal, ask for a mid-term review with your boss to discuss your progress. This session should be more relaxed and informal than the official review. Ask for more feedback to help you improve. Checking in with your boss helps him or her remember your dedication as far as your job is concerned, and may help remove any criticisms before they become a review point on your next formal appraisal.

Questions 21-27

Complete the sentences below.

Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the text for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 21-27 on your answer sheet.

21. By learning at an appraisal what areas of work need improving, staff can improve their chances of getting ……….
22. It is important to think of some………… that can be used during the appraisal.
23. The appraisal can be a good time to ask the boss for extra……………
24. React……….. to any criticism.
25. It is helpful to identify a number of individual………….. arising from the appraisal comments.
26. Staff can request a meeting half-way through the year to look at the ………….. which has been achieved.
27. If staff act on any appraisal comments, they will demonstrate their………. to their work.

SECTION 3 – Questions 28-40

Questions 28-33

The previous text has six sections, A-F.

Choose the correct heading for each section from the list of headings below.

Write the correct number, in boxes 28-33 on your answer sheet.

List of Headings

1. Gaining public recognition
2. Reasons for continuing to make the long journey
3. A disappointment followed by desirable outcomes
4. The main stages of the plan
5. A growth in the number of natural predators
6. Increasing threats
7. A very unusual feature of these birds
8. Cautious optimism

28. Section A
29. Section B
30. Section C
31. Section D
32. Section E
33. Section F

Efforts to save a special bird — the spoon-billed sandpiper

Last year an international team of ornithologists devised a bold plan to rescue one of the world’s rarest birds. Gerrit Vyn reports.

A At first glance the spoon-billed sandpiper resembles other small migratory birds of the sandpiper family that breed across the Arctic. But it is the only one to have developed a flattened bill that flares out into a ‘spoon’ at the end, and that makes it special. If it becomes extinct, thousands of years of evolution will come to an end, which would be a real tragedy.

The bird’s Russian name, kulik-lopaten, means ‘shovel beak’, which is an apt description of a remarkable structure. The bill is 19 mm long and 10 mm wide near the tip and the edges are lined with sharp serrations, called papillae. Theories have varied as to how the bill functions; one suggestion is that the sandpiper sweeps it through the water in a similar fashion to its larger namesake, the spoonbill. But Nigel Clark, a leading authority on the sandpiper, says the comparison is misleading.

B Until a few years ago, the spoon-billed sandpiper had never been fully documented, which added to its fascination. But an air of mystery is not helpful if you’re a Critically Endangered species. So the organisation ‘Birds Russia’ decided to produce a photographic and audio record of this imperilled bird with the help of experts round the world. In May of last year, I joined the international expedition to one of the species’ last breeding strongholds in North-East Russia. The primary aim of the two-and-a-half month expedition, however, was to collect eggs from wild sandpipers; those eggs would then be hatched in captivity nearby. Later, the chicks would be flown to the Wildfowl and Wetlands Trust (WWT) headquarters at Slimbridge in the UK, in order to establish a small, self-sustaining population there. These birds would provide a ‘safety net’, an insurance policy against the wild birds dying out.

C You might wonder why birds like the spoon-billed sandpiper travel such great distances, about 8,000 km in total, from their wintering grounds on the tropical coasts of Bangladesh, Burma and Vietnam in South-East Asia to breed on the low land, commonly called tundra, in North-East Russia, but from the birds’ point of view it is worth it. Though they often arrive to find hostile, wintry weather while they are finding their mates and making their nests, there are relatively few predators there, and the abundance of insects that emerge during the brief but intense Arctic summer creates ideal conditions for raising their chicks.

D Two main factors are responsible for the sandpiper’s recent rapid decline: the ongoing destruction of stopover habitat on its migration route and hunting on its wintering grounds. The development of new industrial cities is destroying former tidal areas, where sandpipers and other migratory birds used to rest and refuel. Subsistence hunting is certainly a hazard in some Asian countries, where hunters trap birds for food. Conservationists are targeting this problem with small-scale interventions. For example, hunters from 40 villages have been given alternative sources of income, such as cool boxes in which they can take fish to sell at markets, in return for a halt to the bird-netting.

E Once the expedition team had reached its destination, it was seven days before we spotted the first sandpiper. In the following days, more began to arrive and the males’ song was heard, advertising their patches of territory to potential mates. As the sandpipers paired up, the song gave way to the quiet of egg-laying and incubation. In total nine nests were found. The first one was lost to a predator, along with the female attending it. This was a stark reminder of the vulnerability of a tiny population to natural events, such as storms or predation.

The team then selected donor nests and transferred the eggs to specially prepared incubators. They collected 20 eggs in all, taking entire clutches each time — it was early in the breeding season, so the females were likely to lay replacements. Then 50 days after our arrival, the moment arrived: I witnessed my first wild spoon-billed sandpipers hatch. I had been lying inside a wind-battered hide for 36 hours when I saw the first tiny chicks emerge from the eggs. Having hidden a microphone near the nest, I could also just hear their first calls. Later, I watched them stumbling through the 15 cm-high jungle of grasses on comically oversized legs and feet. But my joy was tempered by concern. Difficulties on their migration route and in their wintering areas meant that other tiny creatures like these faced immense dangers.

F The complex rescue plan does give some grounds for hope. Young chicks were flown to WWT Slimbridge last year and again this summer. A high-tech biosecure unit has been built for them there. It is divided in two, with the older birds in one section and this year’s chicks in the other. To minimise the risk of infections, staff change into full-body overalls and rubber shoes and wash their hands before entering. Hygiene is crucial: even a single strand of human hair could harm the chicks by becoming twisted round their legs or bills. The rescue plan’s final stage, once the captive flock has built up sufficiently, will be to fly eggs back to Russia, to release the chicks there. It’s a gamble, but when the survival of a species this special is at stake, you have to try.

Questions 34-37

Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.

Write the correct letter in boxes 34-37 on your answer sheet.

34. What was the main purpose of the international expedition?
    1. to add sandpiper eggs to an international frozen egg bank
    2. to maintain a small group of sandpipers for future generations
    3. to make an audiovisual record of the Russian sandpiper colony
    4. to protect a colony of wild sandpipers through a breeding season
35. What do we learn about the drop in the sandpiper population?
    1. The birds are increasingly being hunted on their way north to Russia.
    2. Scientists are managing to reduce deaths from netting considerably.
    3. Efforts are being made to protect some of their coastal habitat sites.
    4. Economic growth is one of the underlying causes of the decline.
36. Which feeling did the writer express when the sandpiper chicks hatched?
    1. relief that his long wait was over
    2. surprise at the sound of their song
    3. worry about birds of the same species
    4. amazement that they could walk so soon
37. The writer describes the sandpipers’ unit at WWT Slimbridge to emphasise
    1. how much care is being devoted to their welfare.
    2. how much money is being spent on the project.
    3. his surprise at how fragile the young birds are.
    4. his confidence in the technology available.

Questions 38-40

Complete the summary below.

Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the text for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 38-40 on your answer sheet.

The life cycle of the spoon-billed sandpiper

In early spring, spoon-billed sandpipers return to their breeding grounds in Russia in the area known as (38)………….………… Although the weather there is often very harsh to begin with, there are obvious advantages to the sandpipers. There is above all a plentiful supply of (39)……………………. and this makes it possible for the sandpiper chicks to develop well. The lack of (40)…………………………… is another definite advantage. As a result, a good proportion of the chicks grow up to face the long flight to the South-East Asian coasts.

Cambridge IELTS 11 General Reading Test 3 section 1 Summer activities at London’s Kew Gardens answers

1. F
2. H
3. E
4. G
5. D
6. C

Cambridge IELTS 11 General Reading Test 3 section 1 City Park and Ride answers

7. NOT GIVEN
8. TRUE
9. FALSE
10. FALSE
11. TRUE
12. FALSE
13. NOT GIVEN
14. TRUE

Cambridge IELTS 11 General Reading Test 3 section 2 HOW TO ORGANISE A SUCCESSFUL BUSINESS CONFERENCE answers

15. holiday
16. breakout
17. notice
18. summary
19. badge
20. questionnaires

Cambridge IELTS 11 General Reading Test 3 section 2 How to deal with the annual performance appraisal answers

21. promotion
22. questions
23. responsibilities
24. calmly
25. goals
26. progress
27. dedication

Cambridge IELTS 11 General Reading Test 3 section 3 Efforts to save a special bird — the spoon-billed sandpiper answers

28. vii
29. iv
30. ii
31. vi
32. iii
33. viii
34. B
35. D
36. C
37. A
38. tundra
39. insects
40. predators

SECTION 1 

Read the text and answer Questions 1-7

LOST DAMAGED OR DELAYED INLAND MAIL CLAIM FORM

Before completing this claim form for lost, damaged or delayed mail you should visit www.royalmail.com to find out all you need to know about our policies. Alternatively you can get the details from our ” Mail Made easy ” booklet, available at any local post office branch. When you fill in the form, make sure you complete it in full, using the checklist that we have provided to help you. If you find that you do not have the evidence required to make a claim but world like us to investigate an issue with your mail service, the easiest way to do this is by visiting our website.

LOST ITEMS
If you wish to claim compensation for items that have been damaged, you should send us original proof of posting, e.g. a Post office receipt. If claiming for the contents of a package, you also need to provide proof of value, e.g. till item reference number, receipt, bank statement etc.

DAMAGED ITEMS
When claiming compensation for lost items that have been damaged, you should send us the items themselves, if possible. However, if these are very large or unsafe to post, you may instead provide photographs as evidence of the damage. Please retain the original packaging (and damaged items, if not sent to us) as we may need to inspect them.

TIME RESTRICTIONS
We allow up to 15 working days for items to arrive, so cannot accept a claim for loss unless 15 working days or more have passed since the items was posted. Claims for lost or damaged items must be made within 12 months of the postal date. Claims for delayed item must be submitted within 3 months of the date they were posted if the claim is made by the sender, or within 1 month of receipt if the claim is made by the recipient of the item.

Questions 1-7

Complete the notes below.

Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND /OR A NUMBER from the text for each answer.

Write your answer in boxes 1-7 on your answer sheet

Claiming compensation from the Royal Mail for lost, damaged or delayed mail

Before filling the form
. go online to learn about their policies or get the (1) ……………………………… that contains the relevant information.
When filling in the form
. refer to the (2) ………………….. to ensure all the relevant sections are completed
(you can use their (3) …………………………. to request action if you don’t have enough proof to make a claim)
when claiming compensation for a lost item
. include proof that you have posted the item
. in the case of a package include something ( e.g. bank statement ) to prove its (4)……………………..
When claiming for the cost of a damaged item, include
. either the actual item or (5)………………………. showing the damage to the item ( you should keep the (6)……………. that was used when the item was originally sent:)
When to claim
. Lost or damaged items: within 12 months of posting the claim

Delayed items: if you are the (7)………………… , you must claim within three months of posting the package

Read the text below and answer Questions 8-14

DAYS OUT FOR THE FAMILY

A. Carrickfergus castle
Considered to be Northern Ireland’s oldest castle, Carrickfergus has seen more than 800 years of military occupation since its foundations were laid, During summer, traditional feasts are served, and fairs and craft markets provide an extra attraction. The history of the castle is explained and brought to life with exhibits and guided tours.

B. Glamis Castle
Shakespeare used Glamis as the background when he wrote one of his best-known plays, Macbeth and the Queen Mother Grew up here. It is also rumoured to have a secret chamber in the castle. There are many ghost tales associated with this castle, which will capture the imagination of younger visitors.

C Tintagel Castle
High up on the cliff tops, Tintagel Castle is the legendary home of king Arthur. The visitors guide on sale at the reception is well worth of the money, as it can help you to visualise what it would have been like hundreds of years ago. you can park in the village car park and walk the half mile to the castle , or take the shuttle bus.

D Pickering Castle
Built by William the conqueror, this is a great castle for children to run around in. There are lots of special events too, including a chance to come along and see some plays which are put on during the summer months. Nearby Helmsley Castle is also worth a visit.

E Stokesay Castle
A range of workshops, including music and combat are held here during the summer, children of all ages will enjoy learning at these and there is a guided tour which has been especially designed with younger visitors in mind, some of them may find the dungeon quit scary though.

F Warwick Castle
This castle is over 1,000 years old and has towers and a moat, and is just as you might imagine a castle to be. children can even get to try on armour to see how heavy it is, At Christmas, a special market id held here – a great opportunity to look for presents and Christmas treats

Questions 8-14

Look at the description of six castles A-F.

For which castle are the following statements true?

Write the correct letter A-F , in boxes 8-14 on your answer sheet.

NB you may use any letter more than once

8. At certain times of the year you can eat special meals here.
9. Children can get dressed up here
10. There is another castle in the same area.
11. A lot of stories are told about this place.
12. Parts of the castle may be frightening for some children.
13. Play are performed here during part of the year.
14. A guided tour is offered which is particularly suitable for children.

SECTION 2 

Read the text below and answer Questions 15-20.

North Sydney Council

North Sydney Council recognises the importance of balancing the demands of your work with the demands of your personal life.

The standard working Week for Full—time council employees is 35 hours For ‘Indoor Staff’ and 38 hours for ‘Outdoor Staff’, worked over 5 days. Indoor staff are able to access the benefit of flexi time. A number of these occasionally work from home where appropriate – an example of an initiative that can provide flexibility at certain stages of an employee’s career.

Staff are entitled to 3 weeks per annum sick or carer’s leave. In addition to the normal parental leave/maternity leave provisions, women who have completed 12 months of continuous service can access a total of 9 Weeks’ maternity leave that can be taken either as 9 weeks at full pay or as 18 weeks at half pay.

The annual entitlement to paid holidays is 20 days, pro-rata for part-time. After 5 years of continuous service, employees are entitled to 6.5 weeks Long Service Leave (LSL).

Our Financial Advice Program is conducted in partnership with FuturePlus Financial Services. We provide the services of advisors specialising in pensions, and all our employees are given the opportunity to meet them as part of the induction process.

The Employee Assistance Program (EAP) is a counselling service provided at no charge to all employees and their families. The service is available by phone or face to face. The EAP provides registered psychologists for employees wishing to discuss work or non-work matters confidentially. Employees can also access information, such as articles and self assessments, online via eapdirect.

Questions 15-20

Answer the questions below.

Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER from the text for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 15-20 on your answer sheet.

15. Which employees may choose not to work regular hours?
16. How much time off each year is an employee able to take to look after a relative?
17. What kind of leave involves a choice between two alternative periods of time?
18. How long must employees have worked without a break before being entitled to additional holidays?
19. What does the Financial Advice Program advise staff about?
20. What kind of professional people can employees see if they want to talk about their job in private?

Read the text below and answer Questions 21-27.

Registering As An Apprentice

If you are keen to acquire new skills and learn best through ‘hands-on’ experiences, then registered apprenticeship is a good option for you. These programmes always involve work experience as well as classroom instruction and produce Workers skilled in the occupation. There is a written contract to be signed by the apprentice and the employer, which acknowledges their joint commitment to the training process. This contract is approved and registered by the New York State Department of Labor.

How Do I Qualify?
First of all you must meet the employer’s minimum qualifications. This could be a high school diploma or the equivalent. However, some employers will ask for specific high school courses, prior experience, or occupationally related courses.

What Is My Training Like?
Training for each apprenticeable occupation is conducted according to a training outline that has been standardized for the occupation. This assures that apprentices across the state have the same sets of basic competencies and skills. At the successful completion of each registered apprenticeship, the Department of Labor awards the apprentice a ‘Certificate of Completion’, which is a nationally recognized credential.

The length of time it takes you to learn the skills of the occupation depends upon two things: the standard training outline and your aptitude. Each trade has a definite term of training, listed in years As a registered apprentice, you may progress according to that established training term, or you may become skilled more quickly or more slowly. It may even be that you start your apprenticeship with credit toward the goal. Your employer may choose to award you this for previous working experience in the occupation, or for prior coursework related to the occupation.

As an apprentice, you are part of the employer’s workforce. You work full-time for the employer. A registered apprentice works under the guidance of more experienced craft workers called journey workers. From them, you learn the skills of die trade. As you master each skill, you become a more productive employee.

At the same time as you are working, you are also required to attend classes (usually in the evenings). The location and times of these are set up by the local education agent in consultation with the employer. Your progress is tracked by you, your employer and your education provider.

Successful completion of all requirements results in your certificate.

Questions 21-27

Complete the sentences below

Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the text for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 21-27 on your answer sheet.

21. You and your employer will need to sign a …………………………………….before training starts.
22. Employers may have different minimum requirements regarding applicants’……………………………and experience.
23. Each industry has its own standardised …………………………………………. of training.
24. You may be given credit for work experience or if you have done relevant……………………………………….
25. You will be considered as a member of the ……………………………………… during the apprenticeship.
26. While at work, apprentices are supervised by what are known as…………………………………………
27. Employers are consulted when deciding the……………………………….. and schedule for lessons.

SECTION 3 

Read the text below and answer Questions 28-34.

Crossing the Humber estuary

A For thousands of years, the Humber — an estuary formed where two major rivers, the Trent and the Ouse, meet – has been an obstacle to communications along the east coast of England, between the counties of Yorkshire to the north and Lincolnshire to the south. Before the arrival of the railways in the 19th century, water transportation was the most efficient means of moving heavy or bulk freight, and the Humber, situated at the heart of the waterway system associated with the two major rivers, was one of the chief highways of England. its traffic brought prosperity to the settlements on its banks, particularly the city of Hull on its north bank, but the river itself tended to cut them off from some of their closest neighbours, as well as obstructing the progress of travellers moving north or south.

B To cater for these local and, as time progressed, wider needs, ferries were provided across many of the streams flowing into the Humber, and in 1315, a ferry was established across the Humber itself between Hull and Lincolnshire. By 1800, this ferry had become fully integrated into the overland transport system, but the changes associated with the industrial revolution were soon to threaten its position. Increased traffic encouraged speculators to establish rival ferries between Hull and Lincolnshire, notably a service between Hull and New Holland which opened in 1826. This crossing was considerably shorter than on the existing Hull to Barton service, which closed in 1851, unable to cope with the increased competition from the rival service.

The New Holland ferry service then grew into a major link between the north and south banks of the Humber, carrying passengers, and cattle and goods bound for Hull Market. In 1968, there was briefly a ferry service from Grimsby to Hull involving hovercrafts. This did not last long as the hovercrafts could not cope with the demands of the River Humber. The ferry service between Hull and New Holland ended with the opening of the Humber Bridge in 1981.

C The bridge was the outcome of over 100 years of campaigning by local interests for the construction of a bridge or tunnel across the estuary. The first major crossing proposal was a tunnel scheme in 1872. This scheme was promoted by Hull merchants and businesses dissatisfied with the serviice provided by the New Holland ferry crossing. Over the next 100 years, a variety of proposals were put forward in an effort to bridge the Humber. In 1928, a plan was drawn up by Hull City Council to build a multi-span bridge four miles west of Hull. However, the scheme was dropped after being hit by the financial woes of the Great Depression of the late 1920s and early 1930s.

D Government approval for the construction of a suspension bridge was finally granted in 1959, although it was not until 1973 that work finally began. The reasons why a suspension bridge was chosen were twofold. Firstly, the Humber has a shitting bed, and the navigable channel along which a craft can travel is always changing; a suspension bridge with no support piers in mid-stream would not obstruct the estuary. Secondly, because of the geology and topography of the area, the cost of constructing a tunnel would have been excessive.

E Work on the construction proceeded for eight years, during which time many thousands of tonnes of steel and concrete were used and upwards of one thousand workers and staff were employed at times of peak activity. The designers had been responsible for two other major suspension bridges in Britain but, with a total span of 2,220 m, or almost a mile and a half, the Humber was going to be the longest suspension bridge in the world. Nowadays designers have computers, but back then everything was done with slide rules and calculators. The towers were concrete rather than the usual steel, since concrete was cheaper and would blend in better with the setting. The bridge was designed to stand for 120 years.

F Malcolm Stockwell, the bridgemaster, recalls that when the bridge first opened, there wasn’t a great deal of interest in it. Then children started visiting, and he remembers their astonishment at seeing the control room and all the lights. People who lived in towns on opposite banks a mile apart started crossing the river — a journey that previously might as well have been to the moon. The bridge brought them together. .

G The bridge opened up, both socially and economically, two previously remote and insular areas of England, and the improvement in communication enabled the area to realise its potential in commercial, industrial and tourist development. The bridge has saved many millions of vehicle miles and many valuable hours of drivers’ and passengers’ time – an important factor not only for the drivers and operators of commercial vehicles, but also for tourists and holidaymakers who would have had to travel around the estuary to reach destinations in the region. ln the words of Malcolm Stockwell, ‘Although it can’t beat the Golden Gate Bridge in San Francisco for setting, it far outstrips it for sheer elegance and as a piece of engineering.’

Questions 28-34

The text on pages 46-47 has seven sections, A-G.

Choose the correct heading for each section from the list of headings below.

Write the correct number i-x, in boxes 28-34 on your answer sheet.

List of Headings

1. Why the ferry crossing has always been difficult
2. Building the bridge
3. An advantage of the design for the bridge
4. The growing popularity of the bridge
5. Opposition to building a bridge
6. Benefits and disadvantages the Humber has brought
7. Proposed alternatives to ferry services
8. How the bridge has contributed to the region’s growth
9. Rising demand for river transport

28. Section A
29. Section B
30. Section C
31. Section D
32. Section E
33. Section F
34. Section G

Questions 35-40

Complete the summary below.

Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the text for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 35-40 on your answer sheet.

Crossing the Humber

The first ferry across the Humber started operating in 1315, and by 1800, this service had been (35)…………………with other forms of transport. The mid-19th century saw greater (36)…………………………… in the provision of services. in 1968, an attempt to establish a service across the river using (37)……………………… failed.

The Humber Bridge is a suspension bridge because the channel that ships travel along moves, and (38)………………supporting a bridge would obstruct it. A bridge rather than a (39)………………….was chosen on the grounds of cost. This was also one reason why (40) ……………… was used for the towers.

Cambridge IELTS 12 General Reading Test 2 section 1 DAYS OUT FOR THE FAMILY answers

1. Booklet
2. Checklist
3. Website
4. Value
5. (provide) photograph(s)/ photos
6. (original) packaging
7. Sender

Cambridge IELTS 12 General Reading Test 2 section 1 LOST DAMAGED OR DELAYED INLAND MAIL CLAIM FORM answers

8. A
9. F
10. D
11. B
12. E
13. D
14. E

Cambridge IELTS 12 General Reading Test 2 section 2 North Sydney Council answers

15. Indoor (staff/employee)
16. 3 weeks
17. Maternity (leave)
18. 5 years
19. Pension(s)
20. (registered) psychologist
21. (written) contract

Cambridge IELTS 12 General Reading Test 2 section 2 Registering As An Apprentice answers

22. Qualifications/ courses
23. Outline/ term
24. (prior) coursework
25. (employer’s) workforce
26. Journey workers
27. Location

Cambridge IELTS 12 General Reading Test 2 section 3 Crossing the Humber estuary answers

28. Vi
29. Ix
30. Vii
31. Iii
32. Ii
33. Iv
34. Viii
35. Integrated
36. Competition
37. Hovercraft(s)
38. Piers
39. tunnel
40. concrete

SECTION 1 

Read the text below and answer Questions 1-7

Evening Courses

A Cooking for today
These are classes for those of you who can already make basic meal by keeping strictly to a simple recipe, but who would now like to use your imagination as well. We ‘ll learn how to make great family meals , discovering how to develop basic recipes into personal creations, with a few tricks and tips to help you become more confident.

B Entertaining the easy way
This course has plenty of ideas and tips for special occasions that you can enjoy preparing, love eating and be proud to provide. The recipes are adaptable to needs and lifestyle, building on your current skills and aimed at developing your own cooking style.

C Cooking for the family
Keen to make better food for your kids? This course is for parents who want to learn how to make fun food with the aim of showing their kids how to cook later at home. We’ll learn plenty of tasty tips for snacks and picnics, family favourites, and dishes with fresh fruit and vegetables so that you and your family can get really fit and well and enjoy your food.

D Jewellery making
This course aims enable students to create silver jewellery. You first project will be make a silver ring and then you will have an opportunity to create another piece of your design. This is an introductory course. Base metals are supplied free. Please wear suitable workshop clothing and bring a notebook and pen.

E Photography
This course will allow you to take full advantage of your digital camera. Covering portrait, landscape and still-life photography, the classes will include effective use of lenses and lighting. To really benefit from the course, learners should have time to read ahead between sessions.

F Creative writing
Come and learn how to have fun with stories and other kinds of creative writing We will try out some new ideas and techniques for improving style and waking up the imagination , Writers who have not taken the foundation class will also be able to join , Provided they already have some experience of the subject.

Questions 1-7

Look at the six advertisements for evening courses, A-F.

For which evening course are the following statements true?

Write the correct letter, A-F, in boxes 1-7 on your answer sheet.

NB You may use letter more than once.

1. After taking this course, participants will be able to teach their skill to others.
2. Participants will be expected to prepare at home for each class.
3. Certain materials will be included in the course fee.
4. This course aims to teach people to prepare meals for guests.
5. This course will help participants to make the best use of a certain item.
6. This course is for people who want to do more than follow instructions.
7. Following this course should improve participants health.

Read the text and answer Questions 8-14.

The Bike Foundry

The Bike Foundry aims to promote cycling, and to make an environmentally-friendly means of transport and leisure available to as many people as we can.

Our Bikes
All our bikes are hand-restored by our team and come with a three month’s guarantee. We stock bikes to suit different needs, at affordable prices. We gratefully accept donations of unwanted bikes.

Training
We offer maintenance and cycle training to schools and small groups on their own premises. Additionally we provide training to individuals and groups in our workshops.

Maintenance Training
Bike Basics
This is a three-hour course which will teach you everything you need to know to keep on top of simple maintenance issues like looking after brakes and gears and how to repair a puncture. By the end of the course you’ll know how to take good care of your bike.

Home Mechanics
This twelve-hour course consists of teaching you how to use specialist tools and how to fit compatible replacement parts. It’s aimed at those who have completed Bike Basics or have some prior knowledge.

Courses are run regularly for groups of up to four trainees. We use professional mechanics’ tools and employ experienced staff. Most importantly, we have tea- and coffee-making facilities and a fridge where participants can keep their sandwiches, etc. Unfortunately our training room is up a flight of stairs.

For £10 a year you can join our Tool Club. Membership gives you access to our workshop for one evening a week. If you want to repair your bike and know how to fix it, but lack specialist tools, then join our club. There’s a range of reference manuals available and a mechanic to offer advice.

Cycling Training
Our qualified instructors can teach you how to ride your bike, whether you have had prior experience or not. If you’re already riding and would like to build your confidence, we can teach you safe techniques to negotiate traffic.

Booking Information
To book a place, email training@bikefoundry.org
We ask for a 50% deposit to confirm your place, refundable up to seven days before the course.

Questions 8-14

Do the following statements agree with the information given in the text?

In boxes 8-14 on your answer sheet, write:

TRUE                            if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE                          if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN               if there is no information on this

8. The Bike Foundry sells only second-hand bicycles.
9. All the training sessions are held at the Bike Foundry.
10. The Bike Basics course is aimed at new cyclists.
11. Snacks are provided for participants on the maintenance training courses.
12. Members of the Tool Club have access to cycle reference books.
13. Most of the participants on the Cycling Training courses are beginners.
14. People can cancel their place on a training course one week before it begins and still get their money back.

SECTION 2

Read the text below and answer Questions 15-21.

Benefits for staff of Hamberton Hospital

Our attractive benefits package is one of the ways we acknowledge the contribution they all make in the provision of high quality patient care. Our package is extensive and varied.

As a Hamberton employee you’ll enjoy both National Health Service (NHS) and locally developed schemes, providing you with a range of benefits. These include:

Financial Benefits
• opportunity to contribute to the NHS Pension Scheme – highly regarded by the independent pensions and insurance sector
• Injury Benefits Scheme
• excellent occupational sick pay and maternity leave and pay entitlements
• loans to assist with the purchase of housing for employees in the health service

Work-Life Balance
Here at Hamberton we are committed to helping all employees balance their work and home life commitments. We believe by helping people make this balance we are able to recruit, retain and motivate the most valuable asset of the NHS – our employees. We are committed to making this balance work for all employees equally, not just parents.

Over 50% of our staff work part-time in a range of flexible working options, which include:

• job sharing
• term-time-only working
• part-time working
• individually-tailored working patterns

We also support employees further through our caring and special leave arrangements.

Health
• our own occupational health department, providing a totally confidential service open to all staff during normal working hours
• a round-the-clock free and confidential counselling service
• policies supporting phased returns to work after long illnesses or injuries

Other Benefits
On-site facilities include:
• excellent food provided in our restaurant
• ample parking
• retail outlets

NHS Discounts

All NHS employees can access the NHS Discounts scheme. This allows members of staff free access to a number of discounted products and services. For example, discounts are available at many high street shops and elsewhere, including savings on toys, utility bills, days out, and much more.

Red Guava

This is a further discount benefit, which is available to employees of Hamberton. Red Guava provides discounts on holidays, for example, and can save you money in many other ways too.

Questions 15-21

Complete the sentences below.

Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the text for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 15-21 on your answer sheet.

15. The hospital provides benefits to show its recognition of the…………………………………………….. of staff to its work.
16. Financial benefits include pay for staff who are…………………………………or on maternity leave.
17. ……………………………….are available for staff who wish to buy a home.
18. Helping staff with their work-life balance is not restricted to……………………………….
19. The hospital has……………………………………that are designed to help staff return to work after a long absence.
20. The facilities on hospital premises include a large area for……………………………….
21. The cost of………………………………is reduced by using the Red Guava scheme.

Read the text on below page and answer Questions 22-27.

Performance-related pay

There are a number of reasons why your employer might introduce this type of pay scheme. They may:
• be keen to retain current staff
• want to compete for new talent
• be seeking a fairer way of distributing wages.

In order for performance-related schemes to work they should be based on clear, measurable targets agreed by both employer and employee. You will normally find out about these targets from your contract of employment and the performance appraisal meetings you have with your manager.

Short-term schemes
Short-term schemes usually offer bonus payments, or, depending on the type of work, commission on sales achieved. Payments vary and these schemes are normally used just to encourage staff to improve their own performance.

Long-term schemes
Long-term schemes offer rewards like share options, and can help to encourage loyalty to the organisation and its aims. Such schemes tend to be used as a way of retaining senior staff.

What to do if you have problems
If you don’t receive bonus or commission payments which you believe you are owed, check your contract of employment or staff handbook to see how your bonus is paid.
Ask your employer if you need more information.

If you think a mistake has been made, you should:
• speak to your employer to see if there has been a misunderstanding
• ask your employer to set out in writing how they have calculated your pay
• keep copies of any letters and notes of any meetings.

There are three ways that the law might cover a case of unpaid bonuses:
• breach of contract
• unlawful deductions from wages
• unlawful discrimination.

Deductions from wages / breach of contract
Any right to a bonus will normally be included in your contract of employment. It may not always be written down. It can be verbally agreed or understood to be there due to normal practice in your particular area of business.
Failure to pay a bonus or commission that you are entitled to could amount to an unlawful deduction of wages.

Discrimination
Your employer must not discriminate against particular groups of people – for example, by giving smaller bonuses to women. Ideally your employer should have some guidelines setting out the normal range of bonuses to give, and these must be followed without discriminating against any specific group.

Questions 22-27

Complete the notes below.

Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the text for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 22-27 on your answer sheet.

Performance-related pay

One of the reasons for introducing performance-related pay is in order to (22)……………………………………………existing employees
Employer and employee should agree on some (23)…………………………………that can be measured
Short-term schemes: bonus or the payment of a (24)…………………………….related to sales
Long-term reward schemes: generally offered to employees at a (25)………………………….level
Details of bonus payments: may be included in a contract or a handbook for staff

If you think there has been a mistake with your pay:
• discuss the issue with your employer
• keep records of any relevant (26)…………………………………
It is illegal for employers to discriminate against any specific group, e.g. by giving less money to (27)…………………………….

SECTION 3 – Questions 28-40

Read the text on below pages and answer Questions 28-40.

Marine Ecosystems

A For some time now, the world’s oceans and the people who fish them have been a constant source of bad environmental news: cod is effectively an endangered species of fish in some places now; every year thousands of dolphins are injured by fishing vessels, huge tuna farms are ruining the Mediterranean Sea.

What is more, marine biologists recently warned that our seafood is in terminal decline. According to research published in Science last November, stocks of all the fish and shellfish that we currently eat will collapse before 2050. Or at least that’s how the media reported it.

B However the scientist who led the study has said that the main conclusion of his research has been buried beneath the headlines. While the danger to our seafood supply is real enough, says Boris Worm, assistant professor of marine conservation biology at Dalhousie University, Canada, there is a more serious point: that the way in which we manage the oceans is not only threatening the survival of individual species, it’s upsetting the delicate balance of marine communities and thus causing the collapse of entire ecosystems. Research has shown that the number of ecosystems where all higher forms of life are extinct, so-called dead zones is increasing.

The point that many reports failed to highlight, says Worm, is that we have to revolutionise the way our marine resources are run, changing the focus from stocks and quotas to biodiversity and ecosystem protection. And to do that, we must change the way the debate about our marine resources is conducted in the public domain.

C Around 7,500 years ago, shrinking glaciers and the resulting higher water levels led to the development of what’s called the Wadden Sea, a 13,500-square-kilometre area of the North Sea. During the first 5,000 years or so, the sea pulsated with life. There was a high level of biodiversity on the seabed too, and the salt marshes and mud flats on the coast supported millions of birds. This continued until around 2,000 years ago, when human pressure began to affect it. Research has shown that some of the larger creatures disappeared more than 500 years ago. And by the late 19th century, populations of most of the other mammals and fish were severely reduced, leading to the collapse of several traditional fisheries.

D What’s interesting is that overfishing isn’t the main agent of the decline, as we might assume. It’s due to an ongoing combination of exploitation, habitat destruction and pollution. Coastal development, for example, destroys large areas of wetlands that support a range of species. Pollution fuels a process known as eutrophication, which kills certain seagrasses. Nutrients such as nitrogen and phosphorus contained in human and industrial waste promote the growth of tiny phytoplankton. This over-enrichment of the sea can ultimately lead to the collapse of the entire system through oxygen starvation.

Most marine ecosystems have an in-built capacity to deal with a certain amount of pollution because shellfish can absorb phytoplankton. But in many cases, these have been largely removed by fishing, so the effect of any nutrient-rich pollutants entering the system is increased. In a healthy system, coastal wetlands also act as filters, so their destruction causes even more pollution. These processes have been fairly well understood for a number of years.

E.What the Science paper has demonstrated, however, is that the decline in the health of ecosystems is greater where the number of different species is low. The population of marbled rock cod around the South Atlantic island of South Georgia, for example, still hasn’t recovered after the fishing industry caused its collapse during the 1970s. By contrast, North Sea cod has withstood very heavy fishing for hundreds of years, says Worm, and although it has declined substantially, it hasn’t yet collapsed completely. Worm believes that, ‘to have a greater number of species makes an ecosystem more robust’. His theory is backed up by evidence from experiments into how ecosystems react to change.

F And some positive news came from the study. Worm and his colleagues were able to show that it’s possible to reverse such damage as long as there are enough species. A survey of 44 protected areas revealed increases in biodiversity and fish catches close to the reserves. Worm says, ‘We should be focusing our attention on protecting all of our marine resources at the ecosystem level, and managing levels of fishing, pollution and habitat disturbance to ensure that crucial services that maintain the health of the ecosystem continue to function.’ To anyone who knows anything about ecology, it would appear that Worm is just stating the obvious. And many protected areas on land are now managed in this way.

G However, there has long been a tendency to view our oceans as a limitless resource, combined with a widespread failure to make an emotional connection with most marine wildlife. True, we have created a small number of marine protected areas. ‘We seem to have understood the value of protecting ecosystems in areas such as the Australian Great Barrier Reef that we consider to be particularly beautiful/ says John Shepherd, Professor of Marine Sciences at Southampton University in the UK. ‘Human nature will always draw us towards those species or habitats that are more aesthetically pleasing. That’s why there will always be support for protecting pandas and very little for worms, even though nematodes play a vital role in maintaining the health of an ecosystem.’

Questions 28-34

The text on below page has seven sections, A-G.

Choose the correct heading for each section from the list of headings below.

Write the correct number, i-viii, in boxes 28-34 on your answer sheet.

List of Headings

1. Plans for more marine protected areas
2. A historical overview of one specific area
3. Why more has not been done to save marine creatures
4. What the press has missed
5. Where biodiversity has been shown to help
6. Who is currently being blamed
7. A reason for some optimism
8. Various factors other than fishing

28. Section A
29. Section B
30. Section C
31. Section D
32. Section E
33. Section F
34. Section G

Questions 35-37

Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.

Write the correct letter in boxes 35-37 on your answer sheet.

35. Boris Worm’s main concern is that
    1. marine ecosystems will completely break down.
    2. insufficient attention is being paid to fish numbers.
    3. there will no longer be enough seafood for people to eat.
    4. politicians will be unwilling to discuss marine resources.
36. What point does John Shepherd make?
    1. Marine conservation areas are not high on the list of visitor attractions.
    2. People know very little about how different species actually live.
    3. The public are much less likely to help unattractive creatures.
    4. The marine environment was better understood in the past.
37. Which of the following best summarises the text as a whole?
    1. Scientists disagree about the state of the world’s oceans.
    2. A radical review of marine resource management is needed.
    3. The fishing industry is mainly responsible for today’s problems.
    4. The natural systems of our seas will not be able to repair themselves.

Questions 38-40

Complete the summary below.

Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the text for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 38-40 on your answer sheet.

The Wadden Sea

The Wadden Sea was created when the sea rose as a consequence of (38)…………….……slowly contracting. The waters were full of different species of marine creatures, and there were large numbers of (39)…………………living on the wetlands along the shore. This continued until species began to decline 2,000 years ago. Overfishing was partly responsible for the changing circumstances, and so was pollution. At the same time there has been an increase in some nutrients in the Wadden Sea which can also destroy marine creatures and vegetation by depriving them of (40)……………………which is essential for their survival.

Cambridge IELTS 12 General Reading Test 3 section 1 Evening Courses answers

1. C
2. E
3. D
4. B
5. E
6. A
7. C

Cambridge IELTS 12 General Reading Test 3 section 1 The Bike Foundry answers

8. TRUE
9. FALSE
10. NOT GIVEN
11. NOT GIVEN
12. TRUE
13. NOT GIVEN
14. TRUE

Cambridge IELTS 12 General Reading Test 3 section 2 Benefits for staff of Hamberton Hospital answers

15. Contribution
16. Sick
17. Loans
18. Parents
19. Policies/Schemes
20. Parking
21. Holidays

Cambridge IELTS 12 General Reading Test 3 section 2 Performance-related pay answers

22. Retain
23. Targets
24. Commission
25. Senior
26. Meetings/letters
27. Women

Cambridge IELTS 12 General Reading Test 3 section 3 Marine Ecosystems answers

28. vi
29. iv
30. ii
31. viii
32. v
33. vii
34. iii
35. A
36. C
37. B
38. Glaciers
39. Birds
40. Oxygen

SECTION 1 – Questions 1-14

Read the text below and answer Questions 1-6.

Sustainable School Travel Strategy

Over the last 20 years, the number of children being driven to school in England has doubled. National data suggests that one in five cars on the road at 8.50 am is engaged in the school run. Children are subject to up to 3.9 times more pollution in a car that is standing in traffic than when walking or cycling to school. Reducing cars around schools makes them safer places, and walking and cycling are better for health and the environment. It has been noted by teachers that children engaging in active travel arrive at school more alert and ready to learn.

The County Council has a strong commitment to supporting and promoting sustainable school travel. We collect data annually about how pupils get to school, and our report on the Sustainable School Travel Strategy sets out in detail what we have achieved so far and what we intend to do in the future. Different parts of the County Council are working together to address the actions identified in the strategy, and we are proud that we have been able to reduce the number of cars on the daily school run by an average of 1% in each of the last three years, which is equivalent to taking approximately 175 cars off the road annually, despite an increase in pupil numbers.

All schools have a School Travel Plan, which sets out how the school and the Council can collaborate to help reduce travel to school by car and encourage the use of public transport. Contact your school to find out what they are doing as part of their School Travel Plan to help you get your child to school in a sustainable, safe way.

Questions 1-6

Do the following statements agree with the information given in the previous passage?

In boxes 1-6 on your answer sheet, write:

• TRUE                    if the statement agrees with the information
• FALSE                  if the statement contradicts the information
• NOT GIVEN       if there is no information on this

1. More children are injured when walking or cycling to school than when travelling by car.
2. Children who are driven to school are more ready to learn than those who walk or cycle.
3. Every year the Council gathers information about travel to schools.
4. The Council is disappointed with the small reduction in the number of cars taking children to school.
5. The number of children in schools has risen in recent years.
6. Parents can get help with paying for their children to travel to school by public transport.

Read the text below and answer Question 7-14

Flu: the facts

A Flu (influenza) is an acute viral respiratory infection. It spreads easily from person to person: at home, at school, at work, at the supermarket or on the train.

B It gets passed on when someone who already has flu coughs or sneezes and is transmitted through the air by droplets, or it can be spread by hands infected by the virus.

C Symptoms can include fever, chills, headache, muscle pain, extreme fatigue, a dry cough, sore throat and stuffy nose. Most people will recover within a week but flu can cause severe illness or even death in people at high risk. It is estimated that 18,500-24,800 deaths in England and Wales are attributable to influenza infections annually.

D Vaccination is the most effective way to prevent infection. Although anyone can catch flu, certain people are at greater risk from the implications of flu, as their bodies may not be able to fight the virus. If you are over 65 years old, or suffer from asthma, diabetes, or certain other conditions, you are considered at greater risk from flu and the implications can be serious. If you fall into one of these ‘at-risk’ groups, are pregnant or a carer, you are eligible for a free flu vaccination.

E If you are not eligible for a free flu vaccination, you can still protect yourself and those around you from flu by getting a flu vaccination at a local pharmacy.

F About seven to ten days after vaccination, your body makes antibodies that help to protect you against any similar viruses that may infect you. This protection lasts about a year.

G A flu vaccination contains inactivated, killed virus strains so it can’t give you the flu. However, a flu vaccination can take up to two weeks to begin working, so it is possible to catch flu in this period.

H A flu vaccination is designed to protect you against the most common and potent strains of flu circulating so there is a small chance you could catch a strain of flu not contained in the flu vaccine.

I The influenza virus is constantly changing and vaccines are developed to protect against the predicted strains each year so it is important to get vaccinated against the latest strains.

Speak to your GP or nurse today to book your flu vaccination.

Questions 7-14

The previous text has nine sections, A-I.

Which sections contain the following information?

Write the correct letter, A-H, in boxes 7-14 on your answer sheet.

NB You may use any answer more than once.

7. examples of people who are likely to be particularly badly affected by flu
8. how to get a vaccination if you choose to pay for it
9. why new vaccines become available
10. how long a vaccine remains effective
11. reference to the possibility of catching a different type of flu from the ones in the vaccine
12. categories of people who do not have to pay for vaccination
13. information about what a vaccine consists of
14. signs that you might have flu

SECTION 2 – Questions 15-27

Read the text below and answer Questions 15-22.

Tips for giving an effective business presentation

Preparation
Get someone else to evaluate your performance and highlight your best skills. For example, go through your presentation in front of a colleague or relative. Think about who your audience is and what you want them to get out of the presentation. Think about content and style.

Go into the presentation room and try out any moves you may have to make, e.g. getting up from your chair and moving to the podium. Errors in the first 20 seconds can be very disorientating.

Familiarise yourself with the electronic equipment before the presentation and also have a backup plan in mind, should there be an unexpected problem like a power cut.

Dealing with presentation nervousness
A certain amount of nervousness is vital for a good presentation. The added adrenaline will keep your faculties sharp and give your presentation skills extra force. This can, however, result in tension in the upper chest. Concentrate on your breathing. Slow it right down and this will relax you. Strangely, having something to pick up and put down tends to help you do this.

It may seem an odd idea, but we seem to feel calmer when we engage in what’s referred to as a displacement activity, like clicking a pen or fiddling with jewellery. A limited amount of this will not be too obvious and can make you feel more secure at the start.

Interacting with your audience
Think of your presentation as a conversation with your audience. They may not actually say anything, but make them feel consulted, questioned, challenged, then they will stay awake and attentive.

Engage with your present audience, not the one you have prepared for. Keep looking for reactions to your ideas and respond to them. If your audience doesn’t appear to be following you, find another way to get your ideas across. If you don’t interact, you might as well send a video recording of your presentation instead!

Structuring effective presentations
Effective presentations arc full of examples. These help your listeners to see more clearly what you mean. It’s quicker and more colourful. Stick to the point using three or four main ideas. For any subsidiary information that you cannot present in 20 minutes, try another medium, such as handouts.

End as if your presentation has gone well. Do this even if you feel you’ve presented badly. And anyway a good finish will get you some applause — and you deserve it!

Questions 15-22

Complete the sentences below.

Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the text for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 15-22 on your answer sheet.

15. Practising your presentation on a………… or a family member is helpful.
16. Be prepared for a problem such as a…………..
17. One way to overcome pre-presentation nerves is to make your……. less rapid.
18. It is acceptable to do something called a ……….at the start of the presentation to reassure you.
19. Your presentation should be like a………….. with the people who have come to hear you.
20. Check constantly for…………….to the points you are making.
21. Make sure you use plenty of……………….. to communicate your message effectively.
22. To keep the presentation short, use things like…………………. to provide extra details.

Read the text below and answer Questions 23-27.

How to get a job in journalism

You can get a good qualification in journalism, but what employers actually want is practical, rather than theoretical, knowledge. There’s no substitute for creating real stories that have to be handed in by strict deadlines. So write for your school magazine, then maybe try your hand at editing. Once you’ve done that for a while, start requesting internships in newspapers in the area. These are generally short-term and unpaid, but they’re definitely worthwhile, since, instead of providing you with money, they’ll teach you the skills that every twenty-first century journalist has to have, like laying out articles, creating web pages, taking good digital pictures and so on.

Most reporters keep a copy of every story they’ve had published, from secondary school onwards. They’re called cuttings, and you need them to get a job — indeed a few impressive ones can be the deciding factor in whether you’re appointed or not. So start creating a portfolio now that will show off your developing talent.

It seems obvious — research is an important part of an effective job hunt. But it’s surprising how many would-be journalists do little or none. If you’re thorough, it can help you decide whether the job you’re thinking about applying for is right for you. And nothing impresses an editor more than an applicant who knows a lot about the paper.
There are two more elements to an application —your covering letter and curriculum vitae. However, your CV is the thing that will attract an editor’s attention first, so get it right. The key words arc brevity, (no more than one page) accuracy (absolutely no spelling or typing errors) and clarity (it should be easy to follow).

In journalism, good writing skills are essential, so Ws critical that the style of your letter is appropriate. And, make sure it conveys your love of journalism and your eagerness to do the work.

Questions 23-27

Complete the flow chart below.

Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the text for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 23-27 on your answer sheet.

Getting a job in journalism
– Gain relevant experience e.g. writing article to meet specific deadlines
– Apply for temporary (23)…………….…. with local papers and acquire extra (24)……………. you will need
– Build up a set of (25)……………….. in a portfolio displaying how your writing ability has progressed over time
– Take time to do detailed (26)…………..… first before applying for a post with a paper
– Once you decide to apply make sure your CV is short, makes sense and is without (27)………….….. of any kind
– Write your covering letter paying particular attention to style

SECTION 3 – Questions 28-40

What is it like to run a large supermarket?
Jill Insley finds out

A You can’t beat really good service. I’ve been shopping in the Thamesmead branch of supermarket chain Morrisons, in south-east London, and I’ve experienced at first hand, the store’s latest maxim for improving the shopping experience — help, offer, thank. This involves identifying customers who might need help, greeting them, asking what they need, providing it, thanking them and leaving them in peace. If they don’t look like they want help, they’ll be left alone. But if they’re standing looking lost and perplexed, a member of staff will approach them. Staff are expected to be friendly to everyone. My checkout assistant has certainly said something to amuse the woman in front of me, she’s smiling as she leaves. Adrian Perriss, manager of the branch, has discussed the approach with each of his 387 staff. He says it’s about recognising that someone needs help, not being a nuisance to them. When he’s in another store, he’s irritated by someone saying, ‘Can I help you?’ when he’s only just walked in to have a quick look at the products.

B How anyone can be friendly and enthusiastic when they start work at dawn beats me. The store opens at 7 am, Monday to Saturday, meaning that some staff, including Perriss, have to be here at 6 am to make sure it’s clean, safe and stocked up for the morning rush. Sometimes he walks in at 6 am and thinks they’re never going to be ready on time — but they always are. There’s so much going on overnight — 20 people working on unloading three enormous trailers full of groceries.

C Perriss has worked in supermarkets since 1982, when he became a trolley boy on a weekly salary of £76. ‘It was less money than my previous job, but I loved it. It was different and diverse. I was doing trolleys, portering, bread, cakes, dairy and general maintenance.’ After a period in the produce department, looking after the fruit and vegetables, he was made produce manager, then assistant store manager, before reaching the top job in 1998. This involved intensive training and assessment through the company’s future store manager programme, learning how to analyse and prioritise sales. wastage, recruitment and many other issues. Perriss’ first stop as store manager was at a store which was closed soon afterwards — though he was not to blame.

D Despite the disappointing start, his career went from strength to strength and he was put in charge of launching new stores and heading up a ‘concept’ store, where the then new ideas of preparing and cooking pizzas in store, and having a proper florist, and fruit and vegetable ‘markets’ were Mailed. All Morrisons’ managers from the whole country spent three days there to see the new concept. ‘That was hard work,’ he says, ‘long days, seven days a week, for about a year.’

E Although he oversees a store with a large turnover, there is a strongly practical aspect to Perriss’s job. As we walk around, he chats to all the staff while checking the layout of their counters and the quality of the produce. He examines the baking potato shelf and rejects three, one that has split virtually in half and two that are beginning to go green. He then pulls out a lemon that looks fine to me. When I ask why, he picks up a second lemon and says: ‘Close your eyes and just feel and tell me which you would keep.’ I do and realise that while one is firm and hard, the other is going a bit squashy.

F Despite eagle-eyed Perriss pulling out fruit and veg that most of us would buy without a second thought, the wastage each week is tiny: produce worth £4,200 is marked down for a quick sale, and only £400-worth is scrapped. This, he explains, is down to Morrisons’ method of ordering, still done manually rather than by computer. Department heads know exactly how much they’ve sold that day and how much they’re likely to sell the next, based on sales records and allowing for influences such as the weather.

G Perriss is in charge of 1,000 man-hours a week across the store. To help him, he has a key team of four, who each have direct responsibility for different departments. He is keen to hear what staff think. He recently held a ‘talent’ day, inviting employees interested in moving to a new job within the store to come and talk to him about why they thought they should be promoted, and discuss how to go about it. ‘We had twenty-three people come through the door, people wanting to talk about progression,’ he says. ‘What do they need to do to become a supervisor? Twenty-three people will be better members of staff as a result of that talk.’

H His favourite department is fish, which has a 4 m-long counter run by Debbie and Angela, who are busy having a discussion about how to cook a particular fish with a customer. But it is one of just 20 or so departments around the store and Perriss admits the pressure of making sure he knows what’s happening on them all can be intense. ‘You have to do so much and there could be something wrong with every single one, every day,’ he says. ‘You’ve got to minimise those things and shrink them into perspective. You’ve got to love the job.’ And Perriss certainly does.

Questions 28-35

The text on pages 50 and 51 has eight sections. A-H.

Choose the correct heading for each section from the list of headings below.

Write the correct number i-x, in boxes 28-35 on your answer sheet.

List of Headings

1. Why Perriss chose a career in supermarkets
2. Preparing for customers to arrive
3. Helping staff to develop
4. Demonstrating a different way of organising a store
5. The benefit of accurate forecasting
6. Keeping everything running as smoothly as possible
7. Making sure the items on sale are good enough
8. Noticing when customers need assistance
9. How do staff feel about Perriss?
10. Perriss’s early career

28. Section A
29. Section B
30. Section C
31. Section D
32. Section E
33. Section F
34. Section G
35. Section H

Questions 36-40

Do the following statements agree with the information given in the previous passage?

In boxes 36-40 on your answer sheet, write

• TRUE                      if the statement agrees with the information
• FALSE                    if the statement contradicts the information
• NOT GIVEN         if there is no information on this

36. Perriss encourages staff to offer help to all customers.
37. Perriss is sometimes worried that customers will arrive before the store is ready for them.
38. When Perriss first became a store manager, he knew the store was going to close.
39. On average, produce worth £4,200 is thrown away every week.
40. Perriss was surprised how many staff asked about promotion on the ‘talent’ day.

Cambridge IELTS 11 General Reading Test 2 section 1 Sustainable School Travel Strategy answers

1. NOT GIVEN
2. FALSE
3. TRUE
4. FALSE
5. TRUE
6. NOT GIVEN

Cambridge IELTS 11 General Reading Test 2 section 1 Flu: the facts answers

7. D
8. E
9. I
10. F
11. H
12. D
13. G
14. C

Cambridge IELTS 11 General Reading Test 2 section 2 Tips for giving an effective business presentation answers

15. colleague
16. power cut
17. breathing
18. displacement activity
19. conversation
20. reactions
21. examples
22. handouts

Cambridge IELTS 11 General Reading Test 2 section 2 How to get a job in journalism answers

23. internships
24. skills
25. cuttings
26. research
27. errors

Cambridge IELTS 11 General Reading Test 2 section 3 What is it like to run a large supermarket? answers

28. viii
29. ii
30. x
31. iv
32. vii
33. v
34. iii
35. vi
36. FALSE
37. TRUE
38. NOT GIVEN
39. FALSE
40. NOT GIVEN

SECTION 1 – Questions 1-14

Read the text below and answer Questions 1-7.

Visitor attractions in southern England

A Blackthorn Castle
This famous, historically accurate, reconstructed castle and village enables visitors to travel back in time. Explore the grounds and experience the atmosphere of an ancient lifestyle. In the fields you can see the type of sheep that the original inhabitants of the castle probably kept. Homemade snacks are on sale.

B Withney Wetland Centre
Visitors will enjoy a visit to Withney whatever the season. In winter, for example, they can watch from the centrally heated observatory as thousands of swans feed on the water. Trained wardens give informative talks or lead guided walks round the site. The visitors’ centre may also be hired for private or corporate events.

C Headley Hall
Headley Hall is a large seventeenth-century country house, preserved as it was when it was built. Take time to admire the various works of art displayed, and visit the huge kitchen complete with period equipment – demonstrations are given at weekends. In the park there is space for the younger visitors to run around, and picnic tables are available.

D Lewis House
Lewis House is the birthplace of Frank Lewis, a renowned painter of the eighteenth century. More of his works are on display here than anywhere else in the world. Visitors can see Lewis’s studio and some of the articles he used on a daily basis.

E Canford Wildlife Centre
At Canford we have a new walk-through exhibit called Island Magic. Here visitors can observe many species from the tropical island of Madagascar and read about some of the urgent conservation projects that are taking place there to save endangered species from extinction

F Oakwell Museum
This is an ideal venue for families. They can visit the childhood gallery with its large playroom, and listen to stories told by actors dressed in the costumes of a hundred years ago. They can also enjoy the popular games and wooden animals of that period

Questions 1-7

Look at the six visitor attractions in southern England, A-F, in the above passage.

For which visitor attraction am the following statements true?

Write the correct letter, A-F, in boxes 1-7 on your answer sheet.

NB You may use any letter more than once.

1. Visitors can look at animals from another part of the world.
2. People can hold a business conference in this place.
3. Visitors can find out what toys were used in the last century.
4. Activities are available all year round here.
5. You can buy light meals here.
6. Visitors can see how food was prepared in the past.
7. You can visit modem imitations of old buildings here.

Read the text below and answer Questions 8-14.

Paragliding in Australia

What is paragliding?
Paragliding is a kind of flying, but instead of the wing being made of metal, wood or plastic, it is made of nylon or polyester. The wing (known as a canopy) is attached to a harness by lines, not dissimilar to a parachute. The harness is where the pilots sit —and they report that it outperforms a parachute in terms of comfort.

Is it safe?
Like sailing and deep-sea diving, paragliding is as safe as the person doing it. The big advantage is that it’s probably the slowest form of aviation, so if you do crash you’ll hit the ground quite gently!

Where do I learn?
There are lots of schools, mainly based inland by appropriate hills or mountains, and there are also schools on the coast near spectacular cliffs. These are very attractive, though the prospect of landing in the sea seems to dissuade beginners! All schools will show you within a couple of days how to inflate the canopy, launch and land. They use radio instruction, tandem flying practice and schoolroom theory sessions to help you get the most from paragliding. It takes about seven days to get your basic license; then you’re free to fly independently at sites across Australia.

What do I need?
Pilots normally wear warm clothes, in case they get very high up, and a helmet in case they stumble on landing. In terms of gear, schools supply basic training, canopies, harnesses, etc. However, you’ll probably want to buy your own more sophisticated equipment, which you’ll be able to choose much better once you’ve tried some out on your course.

Who can do it?
There’s no upper age limit provided your instructor deems you capable, but the youngest anybody can paraglide is 14. Anybody with good eyesight and good balance is a potential paraglider pilot. It’s a very relaxed sport as you’re mostly sitting down. You’ll probably experience pain in some muscles you didn’t know you had whilst learning, but many of those will be due to the walk up the training hill to launch. Flying a paraglider is a great sport. We hope to see you in the air with us this season!

Questions 8-14

Do the following statements agree with the information given in the previous text?

In boxes 8-14 on your answer sheet, write

• TRUE                         if the statement agrees with the information
• FALSE                       if the statement contradicts the information
• NOT GIVEN            if there is no information on this

8. A paraglider is more comfortable than a parachute.
9. Most paragliding schools are situated by the sea.
10. Learners must pass a theory test in order to get their license.
11. Learners are able to paraglide unaccompanied after a week’s course.
12. It is advisable to purchase some equipment before you do your training.
13. Fit people of any age can take up paragliding.
14. The preliminary uphill walk may strain some of your muscle.

SECTION 2 

Read the text below and answer Questions 15-21.

How to prepare for an interview

Why prepare?
There are three main reasons.
One: Although you can’t guess every question you might be asked, if you are prepared you can tailor your answers to fit.
Two: If you’re well prepared, you will have more confidence and this will affect the way you come across.
Three: Attitude matters. Prospective employers will choose a not-quite-perfect but willing candidate over a brilliant one who obviously isn’t bothered.

What to prepare?
Find out about the organisation
• Visit the website and read any materials that you have been sent. If nothing has been sent. phone the company to ask for any reading matter they may have.
• Talk to anyone you know who works there already.

Find out about the job
• Ask for a job description or specification. This will tell you the duties that go with the job.
• Talk to anyone you know who is familiar with the work you may be doing.

Find out what the employer is looking for
• Make a list of the skills specified in the job advertisement.
• Think of examples to back up claims that you have these skills.
You can then answer most of the questions that will come up, such as ‘Tell me more about how you work in a team’.
Add in a few ‘lessons learned’ — what you did and how you might have done it better. You can also outline any voluntary work you have done for a charity, or any experience of paid work in an unrelated sector.

Preparing for other kinds of questions
Interviewers are also looking for someone who is likely to stay with the organisation and progress within it. Prepare to answer questions about your ambitions for the future.
You may also be asked to account for gaps in your career history, if you have any. Be positive and accentuate the learning or experience you gained during these periods.
Preparing your own questions
• Do ask technical questions about software, systems and structures and how things are done.
• Do ask about possibilities for training.
• Don’t ask about salary unless you have been offered the job.
When you’ve prepared as much as this, you’ve got a good chance of success.
Good luck!

Questions 15-21

Complete the sentences below.

Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the text for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 15-21 on your answer sheet.

15. By preparing for your interview, you will gain……….which will help you present yourself well.
16. Read through any documents you have received about the company and also go to their…………
17. Check the job description to find out what………..are involved in the post you have applied for.
18. Interviewers may be interested to hear about any unpaid help you have given to a………………..
19. Be ready to talk about your……………. for the development of your career.
20. Explain any………… that there are in your work record and clarify how you used the time to improve your skills.
21. Questions about………… should be delayed until a later stage.

Read the text below and answer Questions 22-27.

Setting up your own business

Here are some ideas about how you should start:

Know your market
So you know what you want to sell — the most important thing is that it should be something that people want to buy. Start by thinking about who your target customers are. Arc they people who live locally? Are they a particular group of people?

Now look at your competitors. What is different about what you will be doing and how will you persuade people to come to you instead of going to someone who is already established?

How will you reach the customers?
Will you promote your product by phoning people, or visiting local traders, or advertising in magazines or online? Will your delivery system be direct or through shops?

How will your business work?
Now think about what your business needs to succeed. Do you need to look for premises or can you work from home? Do you need to invest in manufacturing equipment to start with?
Is the business something that you can do on your own, or if you get more work will you be looking to recruit staff? If so, what skills would they need?
Whether you’re a sole operator or are looking to recruit a team, effective management is essential.
The law regulates how companies are run and you need to set aside the time to ace that this is done properly, in relation to issues like accounting, insurance and tax.

The money!
As you are working out the prices for your products, you need to make sure you build in all your costs. Remember you will probably need help from an accountant at least once a year, so build that in too, and do a forecast of how much money you think will flow in and out of the business. Look at what you expect to happen over the next three years — and work out what you need to do to break even, as well as the turnover that you hope to achieve to give you a profit. If you think you will need to find some funding to help get the business off the ground, how much will you need and who will you approach to get it?

Your business plan
Now write it all up and call it a business plan

Questions 22-27

Complete the sentences below.

Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the text for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 22-27 on your answer sheet.

Step 1:
Decide who you are going to sell to and compare yourself with the (22)………… you are going to have.
Step 2:
Consider how you will market your product and your method of (23)…………
Step 3:
Decide if you will have to find (24) ………………… to work in, or buy equipment.
Step 4:
Think whether you will need to take on staff as your business grows.
Step 5:
Make sure you deal with the accounts and other essentials in accordance with the (25)………………….
Step 6:
Calculate all the (26)……………… involved in your business when deciding how much to charge.
Step 7:
Calculate the turnover you are aiming for in order to make a profit in the first three years.
Step 8:
Consider if you require any (27)……………….. to start your business, and where to find it.

SECTION 3 – Questions 28-40

Understanding hares

With its wild stare, swift speed and secretive nature, the UK’s brown hare is the rabbit’s mysterious cousin. Even in these days of agricultural intensification, the hare is still to be seen in open countryside, but its numbers are falling.

A Like many herbivores, brown hares spend a relatively large amount of their time feeding. They prefer to do this in the dark, but when nights are short, their activities do spill into daylight hours. Wherever they live, hares appear to have a fondness for fields with a variety of vegetation, for example short as well as longer clumps of grasses. Studies have demonstrated that they benefit from uncultivated land and other unploughed areas on farms, such as field margins. Therefore, if farmers provided patches of woodland in areas of pasture as well as assorted crops in arable areas, there would be year-round shelter and food, and this could be the key to turning round the current decline in hare populations.

B Brown hares have a number of physical adaptations that enable them to survive in open countryside. They have exceptionally large ears that move independently, so that a range of sounds can be pinpointed accurately. Positioned high up on their heads, the hares’ large golden eyes give them 360° vision, making it hard to take a hare by surprise. Compared to mammals of a similar size, hares have a greatly enlarged heart and a higher volume of blood in their bodies, and this allows for superior speed and stamina. In addition, their legs are longer than those of a rabbit, enabling hares to run more like a dog and reach speeds of up to 70 kph.

C Brown hares have unusual lifestyles for their large size, breeding from a young age and producing many leverets (babies). There are about three litters of up to four leverets every year. Both males and females are able to breed at about seven months old, but they have to be quick because they seldom live for more than two years. The breeding season runs from January to October, and by late February most females are pregnant or giving birth to their first litter of the year. So it seems strange, therefore, that it is in March, when the breeding season is already underway, that hares seemingly go mad: boxing, dancing, running and fighting. This has given rise to the age-old reference to ‘mad March hares’. In fact, boxing occurs throughout the breeding season, but people tend to see this behaviour more often in March. This is because in the succeeding months, dusk – the time when hares are most active – is later, when fewer people are about. Crops and vegetation are also taller, hiding the hares from view. Though it is often thought that they are males fighting over females, boxing hares are usually females fighting off males. Hares are mostly solitary, but a female fights off a series of males until she is ready to mate. This occurs several times through the breeding season because, as soon as the female has given birth, she will be ready to mate again.

D But how can females manage to do this while simultaneously feeding themselves and rearing their young? The reason is that hares have evolved such self-sufficient young. Unlike baby rabbits, leverets are born furry and mobile. They weigh about 100 g at birth and are immediately left to their own devices by their mothers. A few days later, the members of the litter creep away to create their own individual resting places, known as ‘forms’. Incredibly, their mother visits them only once every 24 hours and, even then, she only suckles them for a maximum of five minutes each. This lack of family contact may seem harsh to us, but it is a strategy that draws less attention from predators. At the tender age of two weeks, leverets start to feed themselves, while still drinking their mother’s milk. They grow swiftly and are fully weaned at four weeks, reaching adult weight at about six months.

E Research has shown that hares’ milk is extremely rich and fatty, so a little goes a long way. In order to produce such nutritious milk, females need a high-quality, high-calorie diet. Hares are selective feeders at the best of times: unlike many herbivores, they can’t sit around waiting to digest low-quality food — they need high-energy herbs and other leaves in order to sprint. This causes them problems when faced with the smallest alterations in food availability and abundance. So, as well as reductions in the diversity of farmland habitat, the decline in the range of food plants is injurious to hares.

F The rapid turnaround in the breeding cycle suggests that hares should, in principle, be able to increase their populations quickly to exploit new habitats. They certainly used to: studies show that hares evolved on the open plains and spread rapidly westward from the Black Sea after the last ice age (though they were probably introduced to Britain as a species to be hunted for the pot by the Romans). But today’s hares are thwarted by the lack of rich farmland habitat. When the delicate herbs and other plants they rely on are ploughed up or poisoned by herbicides, these wonderful, agile runners disappear too, taking with them some of the wildness from our lives.

Questions 28-33

The previous text has six sections, A-F.

Choose the correct heading for each section from the list of headings below.

Write the correct number, i-ix, in boxes 28-33 on your answer sheet.

List of Headings

1. The need for population reduction
2. The problem with being a fussy eater
3. Reproductive patterns
4. The need for further research
5. A possible solution to falling numbers
6. The fastest runners
7. A rather lonely beginning
8. A comparison between past and present survival rates
9. Useful physical features

28. Paragraph A
29. Paragraph B
30. Paragraph C
31. Paragraph D
32. Paragraph E
33. Paragraph F

Questions 34-36

Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.

Write the correct letter in boxes 34-36 on your answer sheet.

34. According to the writer, what is the ideal habitat for hares?
    1. open grassland which they can run across
    2. densely wooded areas to breed in
    3. areas which include a range of vegetation
    4. land that has been farmed intensively for years
35. When leverets are living alone they are not visited often by their mother because
    1. this helps to protect them from being eaten by other animals.
    2. the ‘forms’ are so far apart.
    3. they are very energetic from a surprisingly early age.
    4. they know how to find their own food from birth.
36. What does the writer suggest about the adult hares’ diet?
    1. They need some plants with a high fat content.
    2. They need time to digest the plants that they eat.
    3. It is difficult for them to adapt to changes in vegetation.
    4. It is vital for them to have a supply of one particular herb.

Questions 37-40

Complete the summary below.

Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the text for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 37-40 on your answer sheet.

Brown hares

The brown hare is well known for its ability to run fast, at speeds of up to 70 kph, largely due to the length of its legs as well as the unusual size of its heart. An increased amount of blood also gives it the necessary (37)………………… to continue running fast for some time. A running hare resembles the (38)………………… more closely than its relative, the rabbit.
The hare has some other characteristics that help it to avoid capture. The first is its excellent all-round (39)…………………… This means that predators cannot easily creep up behind it. Another feature is its ability to position its massive (40)…………… separately, to sense the slightest indication of danger.

Cambridge IELTS 11 General Reading Test 4 section 1 Visitor attractions in southern England answers

1. E
2. B
3. F
4. B
5. A
6. C
7. A

Cambridge IELTS 11 General Reading Test 4 section 1 Paragliding in Australia answers

8. TRUE
9. FALSE
10. NOT GIVEN
11. TRUE
12. FALSE
13. FALSE
14. TRUE

Cambridge IELTS 11 General Reading Test 4 section 2 How to prepare for an interview answers

15. confidence
16. websites
17. duties
18. charity
19. ambitions
20. gaps
21. salary

Cambridge IELTS 11 General Reading Test 4 section 2 Setting up your own business answers

22. competitors
23. delivery
24. premises
25. law
26. costs
27. funding

Cambridge IELTS 11 General Reading Test 4 section 3 Understanding hares answers

28. v
29. ix
30. iii
31. vii
32. ii
33. viii
34. C
35. A
36. C
37. stamina/energy
38. dog
39. vision
40. ears

Read the text below and answer Questions 1-9.

Music Clubs

A Whitehay Youth Music is intended for anyone aged between 6 and 14 who is keen to perform in public. The club is limited to 30 members at any time, and we operate a waiting list for membership. Two concerts are performed every year, and every member takes part. Members must have reached at least an intermediate standard on their instrument. The group meets in the Jubilee Hall on Wednesday evenings during term time for rehearsals and for workshops in which members learn how to improve their playing.

B Whitehay Music Club brings together music lovers from around the district, for enjoyable evenings of food and music. We meet monthly in members’ homes, and during the evening we have a buffet meal and listen to recordings of both’ well-known and not so well-known music. The music is preceded by a brief talk providing background information about the composers and the music. Every few months we organise a coach trip to a musical event within a radius of 50 km.

C Whitehay Philharmonic is an amateur orchestra, founded in 1954, Two or three times a year, it performs a wide range of music to large and appreciative audiences from the area, in the town’s Jubilee Hall. New members are always welcome, and can take part in rehearsals, although there may not be room for everyone to perform in the concerts. Because the orchestra only partly finances its performances through ticket sales, members with marketing experience are particularly welcome, in order to build sales.

D Whitehay Music Society is primarily a fundraising group that organises a range of money-making activities — from street collections to seeking sponsorship from local businesses. The money raised is used to support professional musicians if, for example, illness prevents them from earning a living. As a member, you will receive a monthly newsletter describing our work, and containing details of concerts, operas and other performances, both locally and nationally. Everybody is welcome to join the society: children are particularly welcome, along with their parents.

Questions 1-8

Look at the four advertisements for music clubs in a town called Whitehay, A-D, on below page .

For which club are the following statements true?

Write the correct letter, A-D, in boxes 1-8 on your answer sheet.

1. It needs members who can find ways of increasing audience numbers.
2. All its members perform in club concerts.
3. It distributes information about musical events to its members.
4. It requires its members to have reached a certain level as performers.
5. One of its aims is to introduce its members to music they may not be familiar with.
6. It helps children to develop their musical skills.
7. Its performances are popular with local people.
8. It helps people who are in financial need.

Read the text below and answer Questions 9-14.

Biological Research Insititute

Welcome to the Biological Research Institute campus. We hope that your visit will be enjoyable and interesting. Please read the information below and comply with the instructions given.

On arrival, you should report to the Reception building by the main entrance gate, where you will be issued with a pass. This must be visible at all times during your visit to the campus.

If you are driving a vehicle, please inform Reception. They will contact Security, who will identify the area where you should park your car. Please ensure that you park it in the designated area. You must keep to the campus speed limit (10 mph) at all times. Cars are parked at the owners risk.
For your own safety, please follow the instructions displayed on noticeboards around the campus, as well as all instructions issued by authorised personnel. Do not enter any restricted areas or touch any machinery or other equipment unless authorised. Visitors must be accompanied by their host at all times whilst on the campus.

Entry into certain areas requires the wearing of special clothing or equipment. This will be provided for you by your host, who will advise you on the appropriate protection for the areas you visit.

Unless your host has previously obtained permission from the Institute management, photography, whether still or video, is not permitted in any part of the campus.

Children under the age of 16 must be accompanied by an adult at all times, and should only be brought on campus if the Institute management has previously agreed to this. No nursery facilities are available for visiting children.

In the event of an accident, call 3333 and request the assistance of site first-aid personnel.

Questions 9-14

Complete the sentences below.

Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the text for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 9-14 on your answer sheet.

9. If you come by car,…………………………………will tell you where to park it.
10. Advice on……………………………………can be seen on noticeboards.
11. You will need to obtain authorisation before touching equipment such as……………………………………….
12. Permission from the management is required if you want to do any kind of………………………………….
13. The Institute does not provide a…………………………………………for children visiting the campus
14. You should phone 3333 if any kind of………………………………….occurs.

SECTION 2 

Read the text below and answer Questions 15-20.

Negotiating A Better Salary Package For Your New Job

If you make it through the recruitment interview, a job offer may be just around the corner and you face having to talk about the nitty-gritty: your financial value.

Although many graduate training schemes have set starting salaries, there are loads of other jobs where you’ll need to exercise your negotiating skills. If you’re offered a job, it’s because the organisation sees you as a valuable asset and you should try to set your level of remuneration accordingly.

There are no general rules about how and when to conduct your negotiation but being sensitive to the culture of the organisation is essential. There are also some practical steps you can take to position yourself sensibly. Familiarise yourself with the company itself, as well as the range of salaries on offer. Doing careful research in this way prior to starting negotiations is very valuable. You can look at the range of packages offered for comparable jobs in adverts on the internet, or ask for advice from people you know professionally or personally. You could also approach a local Training and Enterprise Council. Finally, if you’re a member of a union, they will have information on acceptable salary ranges for your profession.

If the salary offered is less than you’d hoped for, you could negotiate an early pay review instead, say after the first six months. Ensure that the criteria are clearly set out though, and that they’re included in your contract.

Make sure you check out the salary package, not just the number of zeroes on your payslip. You may find that the total package of pay and benefits raises the worth of the salary to an acceptable level. For instance, you may be offered private health cover, a non-contributory pension, a car to use for work purposes and/or significant bonuses. When bonuses are mentioned, you may want to discuss the basis on which they’re paid, so that you’re absolutely clear about the terms and conditions attached. When negotiating, be persuasive and consistent in your arguments but be prepared to agree to a compromise if you really want the job.
If your negotiations are successful, ask for the agreed terms and conditions to be confirmed in writing ASAP.

Questions 15-20
Complete the sentences below.

Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the text for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 15-20 on your answer sheet.

15. When negotiating a salary, potential employees should take advantage of the company’s view of them as a useful…………………………
16. When negotiating a salary it is important to be aware of the company’s particular …………………………………..
17. Some people use the……………………………….to monitor salaries offered for similar positions.
18. People who belong to a………………………………can ask for recommendations on what is the norm for payment in their field.
19. Some people try to arrange for a…………………………………..of their salary to be carried out after an initial period.
20. It is important to be willing to accept a……………………………………if the negotiations are getting nowhere.

Read the text on below pages and answer Questions 21-27.

How To Run A Successful Project

A project manager’s main task is to bring a particular project to completion, both on time and within budget. There are many factors that can cause a project to veer off its tracks, but steps can be taken to ensure that your project experiences as little disruption as possible.

1. Prepare the framework

If you get everything down in writing at the beginning of the project, you have an excellent foundation to build upon. Change is inevitable, but you have to maintain control. This is critical to avoid problems of ‘scope creep’, which is when the company paying for the project asks for ‘just one more little thing’ repeatedly, until the project becomes unmanageable.

2. Select the team

Gather your human resources, and make sure that their skills align with their roles. This is an important first step: if you assign the wrong person to a task, you are reducing your chances of success.

Make sure each team member is clear on what is expected from them and when. Encourage them to ask questions to clarify anything that may be uncertain, and to always come to you whenever something seems to be out of place or going wrong. Clear communication is critical.

Make sure the whole team and the client company grasp the project’s limitations in terms of its achievable outcomes. You can finish a task successfully and on time as long as expectations are reasonable.

3. Staying on track

How can you know if your project is going to be successful if you don’t have any way of measuring success? You will need interim milestones, especially for a long-term project, so that you can determine if you are staying on track or straying from the project’s goals.

4. Manage project risks

Hopefully you have defined the more likely risks up front during the project preparation, so you should now put contingency plans in place for certain occurrences. If you can see when a risk is imminent, you can take preventive action to avoid it, but be ready to halt a project if the risk becomes unacceptable.

5. Evaluate the project
Once a project has been completed, it’s important to write a report, even if it is only for internal purposes. You can pinpoint what went right or wrong, determine what could have been done differently, and establish the best practices for use in future undertakings.

Questions 21-27

Complete the flow-chart below.

Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the text for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 21-27 on your answer sheet.

How to run a successful project
Bear in mind that your aim should be to keep to both the agreed deadline and the (21)………………….for the project
Fix the details at the start to prevent what is called (22)…………………- the client asking for more and more
Choose the team members wisely so that their (23)…………………..match the duties you want them to take on
Promote good (24)…………………….at all times so everyone knows what you require of them
Make sure (25)……………………are set so you can check whether the project is running to schedule
Prepare (26)……………………which can be activated if things go wrong on the project
Once the project is over produce a (27)………………….outlining its strengths and weaknesses for future reference

SECTION 3 

Read the text on below page and answer Questions 28-40.

Mass Appeal Of The Mantra Rays

A I am underwater, face to face with a large flat fish which I recognise immediately as being a manta ray. For an instant I look straight into its gaping mouth and see the row of small, flattened teeth in its lower jaw. Close on its tail comes another manta ray, and another and another. The manta rays are unaffected by my being there, cruising past in a leisurely fashion without seeming to expend any great effort.

B From above, the manta rays are great black silhouettes that fishermen called ‘devil fish’, because of the curious horn-like fins hanging down near their mouths. But looking into their eyes you get a sense of their peaceful nature. Unlike stingrays, mantas don’t have venomous spines in their tails, and unlike many fish species they seem to enjoy human company. Once, over-enthusiastically, I swim towards a manta. I am just a few inches away when it senses me. To my surprise, the whole fish twitches in alarm and shoots off, perhaps fearing that I will touch it. I feel ashamed to have given it a fright.

C I have come to Hanifaru, a small lagoon next to an uninhabited island in the Maldives, especially to see manta rays. These great harmless creatures congregate here during the south-west monsoons between May and November and, if the tides and winds are right, enter a shallow cul-de-sac in the reef to hunt for plankton, their main source of nutrition. On certain days the bay can attract more than 100 mantas. I have seen many manta rays on dives around the world, though not in these numbers.

D Guy Stevens is my guide, a British marine biologist who has been studying the mantas for the past five years. Based at the nearby Four Seasons resort, he has identified more than 2,000 individual manta rays, photographing and cataloguing them according to their distinctive skin patterns. Each day we make the 40-minute boat journey from the resort to Hanifaru. Feeding events, as Guy calls them, are never guaranteed, but, during the season, hotel guests can sign up for ‘manta alerts’. If Guy and his research assistants spot significant manta activity, the guests will be brought by fast speedboat to the lagoon to snorkel. When feeding, the mantas of Hanifaru tend to stay near the surface, making them accessible to snorkellers just as much as divers. They seem not to mind the human competition in this quite small space, and indeed they are often joined by other rays and even giant whale sharks, which feed on the same plankton.

E Word among the diving community about the possibility of finding a mass of manta rays at Hanifaru has slowly been spreading over the past year. Outside the shallow lagoon I can see five large safari boats – live-aboard cruisers that take divers around the best underwater sites in the Maldives. It is something that Guy has been monitoring closely. ‘Word is out that Hanifaru is a top manta spot,’ he explains, ‘and although the government has declared the bay a “protected area”, we still don’t have any regulations in force to limit the number of people in the water at any one time.’

F During my stay, the resort received a visit from the then-president of the Maldives, Mohamed Nasheed. Since coming to power in 2008, he had made his interest in the marine environment and concerns about climate change well known. In 2009 he held an underwater cabinet meeting, urging other world leaders to act decisively to combat climate change. The protection of wildlife areas such as Hanifaru was clearly one of his objectives, and I asked him why he took such an interest. ‘Maldivians have lived with the reefs and their fish life since long before there were tourists,’ he said. ‘And while tourist dollars are good for our country, the sea and its produce are even more vital to my people. I have to balance what tourists want to see with preserving the marine environment – and in some cases, like Hanifaru, those objectives coincide.’

G On several dives I am lucky enough to get close to the mantas, sometimes at underwater ‘cleaning stations’. Here, the mantas come in small numbers, or individually, to pause above a coral outcrop and wait while small fish pick at their skin, removing parasites. Adapted for fast swimming with their flattened bodies, they can accelerate rapidly with a twitch of their wings. They gaze at human swimmers with a kind of knowing calm, something people often remark on when they try to capture the emotion they experience after seeing them. The manta rays have the biggest brain of any fish,’ Guy explains, ‘and some manta researchers are convinced that mantas can recognise individual people underwater.’

H I return to the lagoon over the course of several days and learn more from Guy about his hopes for the future. ‘People can visit this place, but I want to be sure that they don’t harass the mantas by touching them or crowding them out while they’re feeding. We’re working to get a full-time ranger station and some kind of permit system to limit the number of boats that can enter the lagoon each day.’

Questions 28-30

The text on below page has 8 paragraphs, A-H.

Which paragraph mentions the following?

Write the correct letter, A-H, in boxes 28-30 on your answer sheet.

28. a record that is being kept of manta rays in the area
29. something that the writer regrets
30. the reason for the writer’s visit

Questions 31-36

Do the following statements agree with the information given in the text?

In boxes 31-36 on your answer sheet, write

• TRUE                            if the statement agrees with the information
• FALSE                          if the statement contradicts the information
• NOT GIVEN               if there is no information on this

31. It is difficult to distinguish one manta ray from another.
32. For hotel guests, viewing manta rays feeding has to be arranged at short notice.
33. The manta rays appear to object to the presence of people in the water while they are feeding.
34. Guy Stevens is concerned about the increasing interest in Hanifaru.
35. Mohamed Nasheed succeeded in persuading certain other countries to take steps to protect the environment.
36. A procedure has now been established to control the number of visitors.

Questions 37-40

Complete the summary below.

Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the text for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 37-40 on your answer sheet.

The manta ray

During certain times of year, depending on the weather conditions and the tides, manta rays collect to look for (37)………………………to feed on. They eat the same food as other species, such as giant whale sharks. As for keeping clean, they are kept free from (38)………………………by smaller fish.

Manta rays have certain characteristics which make them good swimmers; they use their (39)……………………to get up speed and they have flattened bodies, which help them to move quickly through the water. The nature of the manta’s (40)………………………is of particular interest to scientists.

Cambridge IELTS 12 General Reading Test 4 section 1 Music Clubs answers

1. C
2. A
3. D
4. A
5. B
6. A
7. C
8. D

Cambridge IELTS 12 General Reading Test 4 section 1 Biological Research Insititute answers

9. Security
10. Safety
11. Machinery
12. Photography
13. Nursery
14. Accident

Cambridge IELTS 12 General Reading Test 4 section 2 Negotiating A Better Salary Package For Your New Job answers

15. Asset
16. Culture
17. Internet
18. Union
19. Review
20. Compromise

Cambridge IELTS 12 General Reading Test 4 section 2 How To Run A Successful Project answers

21. Budget
22. Scope creep
23. Skills
24. (clear) communication
25. (interim) milestones
26. (contingency) plans
27. Report

Cambridge IELTS 12 General Reading Test 4 section 3 Mass Appeal Of The Mantra Rays answers

28. D
29. B
30. C
31. False
32. NOT GIVEN
33. False
34. True
35. Not given
36. False
37. Plankton
38. Parasites
39. Wings
40. Brain

Section 1

Read the text below and answer questions 1-8.

The Guardian Newspaper’s Travel

The photo competition is back, giving you another chance to win an incredible trip to Swedish Lapland.

Do you have a camera and love travelling? If so, our annual photography competition run by the Travel section of The Guardian is for you. It’s an opportunity for you to capture the essence of the journeys you make, whether far afield or close to home, and for us to showcase your work online. The winner of each month’s competition will also see their shot mounted and displayed in the end-of-year exhibition for the public at The Guardian’s offices in London. Once the exhibition is finished, each monthly winner will receive a framed copy of their shot to place with pride on their own wall.

There will be a different theme for each month. Members of The Guardian travel writing team, and photographer Michael Ryan of Fotovue.com will judge the monthly entries and the overall winner.

To enter you must be living in the UK from the time you submit your entry into the competition to the time you are selected as a winner. The competition is open to all photographers (both amateur and professional).

The overall winner (chosen from the 12 monthly winners) will go on an amazing four- night trip to Swedish Lapland. The host for this specialist holiday is Fredrik Broman, who has been a nature photographer for 21 years. Fredrik will assist the winner and other participants in photographing a wide variety of winter subjects. Each day has a specific focus. The trip includes winter light photography workshops, an image editing workshop, a night photography course, and an action photography workshop.

Included in the prize: return flights from the UK, four nights’ accommodation with full board, cold weather clothing for the duration of the trip – thermal overalls, winter boots, gloves, hats and woollen socks – fully qualified wilderness guides, and instructors.

The overall winner will be required to write a report of the trip, and take accompanying photographs, which will be printed in the Travel section of The Guardian at a later date. The Guardian reserves the right, however, to modify your report and photos as necessary. Your name will of course appear with the article and photos.

Questions 1-8

Do the following statements agree with the information given in the text?

In boxes 1-8 on your answer sheet, write

• TRUE                       if the statement agrees with the information
• FALSE                     if the statement contradicts the information
• NOT GIVEN         if there is no information on this

1. This is the first year that The Guardian has run a travel photography competition.
2. Any photograph for the competition must have been taken on an overseas trip.3. The end-of-year exhibition in London is free for the public to attend.
3. The judging panel is made up of a group of journalists and a professional photographer.
4. The trip to Swedish Lapland will only be offered to one winner.
5. Every activity on the trip is focused on improving photography techniques.
6. Anyone going on the trip may take some of the cold weather clothing home at the end of the trip.
7. Articles written about the trip may be changed before being published.

Read the text below and answer Questions 9-14.

Running Headphones

Listening to music on headphones makes running and even working out at the gym much more enjoyable. Here are some alternatives to choose from.

A Plantronics Backbeat Fit
These headphones are really tough so you don’t need to worry about just throwing them into your bag before or after a workout. As well as providing reasonably clear sound they will also last a remarkable eight hours on a single charge.

B Sennheiser CX685 Sports
These headphones are impressively practical. Designed to fit firmly in your ear, however energetic you are, they’re tight without being uncomfortable, and have a handy remote and a mic for phone calls. They will also resist some water being spilt on them.

C Nokia WH-510 Coloud Pop
These stylish headphones have fantastic bass, giving you a bit of extra oomph when you run. They also have a tangle-free cable which avoids any time-consuming messing about before you set off on your run.

D Sony NWZ-W273S
It’s hard to imagine using any other headphones once you’ve tried these. As well as being wireless and waterproof at a depth of 2m, they even have a built-in MP3 player that can hold up to 1,000 songs. A charge provides up to an hour of playback.

E Betron B750S
If you’re on a tight budget, it can always feel risky buying a bottom of the market pair of headphones, but with these you needn’t worry. Not only do they provide fair sound quality, they also come with a pouch to keep them in.

F Happy Plugs
The sound quality on these is decent, although you’re probably not going to be hugely impressed. They also come with a handy remote built into the cable to skip and pause songs with while you work out.

G Powerbeats 2
If money is not an issue, then these are definitely worth considering. They make everything sound so crisp and they’re so light and comfortable that it’s easy to forget that you’re even wearing them.

Questions 9-14

Look at the seven reviews of headphones, A-G.

For which headphones are the following statements true?

Write the correct letter, A-G, in boxes 9-14 on your answer sheet.

NB You may use any letter more than once.

9. These headphones would suit someone who doesn’t mind spending a lot to get good quality.
10. The battery on these headphones has a surprisingly long life.
11. It is possible to keep in contact with other people while using these headphones.
12. Although these headphones are cheaper than most, music sounds quite good through them.
13. These headphones are very strong and do not require gentle handling.
14. These headphones allow users to move around their playlist of music easily while they are exercising.

Section 2 – Questions 15-27

Read the text below and answer questions 15-21.

A Case Study Of A Risk Assessment For General Office Cleaning

A commercial cleaning service took on a new contract to clean an office complex. Before sending cleaning staff to the offices, the manager of the cleaning service carried out a risk assessment using guidance provided by the Health and Safety Executive (HSE).

To identify the hazards, the cleaning service manager visited the office complex and walked through the areas where cleaning staff would be working, noting things that might pose potential risks. Following this, he consulted the health and safety representatives of the cleaning service about these risks, taking into account the needs of any particular staff members, such as whether they were pregnant or aged under 18.

In order to gather further information, he then had a meeting with the client company during which a number of issues were discussed. These included the client company’s own standard of housekeeping, such as the immediate clearing up of spills and keeping walkways clear, as well as the action to be taken if a fire broke out. He also established what facilities and equipment would be available to the cleaners, including the amount of storage space available, as well as the availability of sinks and taps, etc. and agreed on a method of reporting near-miss accidents and risks discovered by cleaners (e.g. damaged floor tiles).

Following the meeting, the manager created a risk assessment document. He wrote down who could be harmed by each risk or hazard identified and in what way, and he then described what controls, if any, were in existence to manage these hazards. The manager then compared these to the good practice guidance set out on the HSE’s website and identified any areas where improvement was needed.

The manager discussed the findings with the cleaning staff, making sure they understood the risks of the job and how these risks would be monitored. One cleaner, whose first language was not English, had difficulty understanding this, so the manager arranged for translation to be done by a bilingual cleaner from another team. Finally, to ensure that all the cleaning staff had access to a copy of the risk assessment, the manager pinned a copy in the cupboard where cleaning equipment was kept.

Questions 15-21

Complete the flow-chart below.

Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the text for each answer.

Stages followed by manager in carrying out risk assessment
He visited the offices to be cleaned and noted potential risks
He talked to health and safety (15)……………………about the risks
At a meeting, he talked to the client company about – the policy of the company regarding (16)………………..(e.g. clear walkways) – procedures to be followed in case of a (17)………………….. – facilities available to cleaners (e.g. space available for (18)……………………) – a way of (19)……………….risks and hazards
He created a risk assessment document identifying existing controls of risks and hazards
He compared there to information that the HSE provided on its (20)…………………..
He displayed a copy of the risk assessment inside a (21)………………….available to all cleaning staff

Read the text below and answer Questions 22-27.

Preparing For A Virtual Job Interview

Businesses are always looking for new ways to increase efficiency and profits. For example, organisations often reduce costs by conducting virtual job interviews. The video or Skype interview benefits both interviewer and interviewee, especially when an applicant would otherwise need to travel far. Despite the convenience though, it poses unique challenges.

How a virtual interview is the same
The typical interview process usually entails multiple steps. First, there is screening, lasting about thirty minutes. Its purpose is to ensure candidates have the basic requirements. In the second interview, they’re assessed for their technical skills and on whether they would fit the organisation. Virtual interviews follow the same steps so you’ll need to focus on the same core topics. Identify what the critical topics are based on the job description and prepare to talk about them. If you can, gather inside information so you can impress interviewers with your knowledge.

How a virtual interview is different
Normally, you travel somewhere for an interview. One advantage of that is that you aren’t responsible for the place, whereas in a virtual interview you must ensure you have an appropriate location and appropriate equipment. Modern technology is great when it works, but a pain when it doesn’t. So, it’s wise to check you can operate your webcam, especially if you don’t use it often. Test the headset too and find out how intelligible your voice sounds. It’s also wise to establish what software the interviewer is going to work with and give it a trial run.

Probably the biggest problem in a virtual interview is what the camera can see. You want the interviewer to see you as a professional. Having a messy or cluttered room behind you won’t help you achieve this image – a clear white background is usually a safe bet.

The most important part of your preparation is to run through everything first as best you can. Have a friend conduct a rehearsal with you before the big day. This will help you know how to behave in front of the camera. All things considered, though, virtual interviews should be treated like any other type of interview. Being at home requires as much preparation as a traditional interview. If you follow the steps mentioned above, you have every chance of getting the job you want. Good luck!

Questions 22-27

Complete the sentences below.

Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the text for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 22-27 on your answer sheet.

22. Some companies prefer to interview job applicants digitally because of lower………………..
23. As with the standard recruitment process, virtual recruitment opens with…………..
24. Applicants should read any details about the advertised post carefully and pick out important…………………. which they can discuss if necessary.
25. It is a good idea for applicants to check if they can be clearly understood when they use a……………..
26. Applicants may not be familiar with the…………………….that the person conducting the interview will use, so they should try it out.
27. It is very useful to go through a…………………..of the interview, with someone playing the part of the interviewer.

Section 3 – Questions 28-40

Read the text below and answer Questions 28-40.

Tuning Up Your Leadership Skills

A Ever since management expert Peter Drucker compared the job of Chief Executive Officer to that of an orchestra conductor, the business world has been exploring comparisons and inspirations from the world of music. Now Warwick Business School Professors Deniz Ucbasaran and Andy Lockett are hitting all the right notes with their study of famous jazz musicians, Leading Entrepreneurial Teams: Insights From Jazz, providing some essential insights for entrepreneurial team leaders.

Ucbasaran and Lockett (together with Durham Business School Professor Michael Humphries) chose jazz for a number of reasons. For a start, jazz bands are synonymous with creativity, improvisation and innovation, all essential ingredients for entrepreneurship. Jazz groups and their members often operate in uncertain and dynamic environments, characterised by rapid change. Yet through collective endeavour many jazz bands find their own structure and harmony and become profitable enterprises – both creatively and commercially.

B The authors decided to focus on three of the best known names in jazz – Duke Ellington, Miles Davis and Art Blakey. American composer Duke Ellington was a pioneering jazz orchestra leader from the 1920s through to the 1970s. Trumpet player Miles Davis was instrumental in the development of a number of new jazz styles, including bebop and jazz fusion. Jazz drummer Arthur ‘Art’ Blakey became famous as the leader of his band the Jazz Messengers. The research focused on the way that these jazz greats created and ran their musical enterprises. In particular, Ucbasaran and Lockett focused on three specific areas of leadership activity: team formation, team coordination and team turnover.

There were strong similarities in the processes the band leaders used to assemble their diverse teams of talent. In particular, they looked for musicians with a different sound or way of playing, one that was unique to that band member and would improve the overall sound of the band. That feature was as much bound up with the personality of the individual musician as it was to do with their technical proficiency.

C But disparate teams, many different personalities, and high levels of creativity are a recipe for group conflict. And, sure enough, there was plenty of dysfunctional conflict and disruptive clashes of egos and personalities evident in the jazz ensembles. Traditional team leadership theory suggests that to get the best team performance the leader should foster conflict that is productive in its effects, while minimising destructive conflict. But this is difficult when the sources of productive and destructive conflict are the same; that is, differences in personality and thinking. So how do leaders deal with destructive conflict? It didn’t seem to bother the likes of Ellington, Davis and Blakey. Their attitude was ‘the music comes first’. The moments of musical genius when everything came together excused minor problems such as if individuals occasionally turned up late for practice, or stepped out of a performance for a quick snack.

D Teams must coordinate their behaviour and action to achieve an outcome. The team leader can assume a number of different roles when helping the team achieve its objectives. Some leaders are very directive, detailing what tasks they want team members to perform, and how they want them to go about those tasks. But that was not the approach Ellington, Davis and Blakey adopted. Instead, these leaders acted more as facilitators, empowering the musicians to collectively coordinate their behaviour and action to produce the desired outcome. As Ucbasaran and Lockett note, Miles Davis discouraged band members from rehearsing in case it led to musical cliches from over-practice. Similarly, he often asked his musicians to play a piece in an unusual key, so they did not rely on learned fingering patterns. The performers were not left entirely to their own devices though. All three leaders created a general framework within which team members could work, providing guidance but also the freedom to explore, express and make mistakes.

E The third aspect of leadership behaviour that Ucbasaran and her colleagues looked at was managing team turnover – people joining and leaving the team. In the jazz ensembles studied, musicians joined and left on a regular basis. Yet the high turnover of team members, despite the resulting loss of knowledge and skills, was seen in a positive light. That was partly because of the advantages of getting a fresh shot of knowledge, ideas and creativity when new members joined.

A common reason for the jazz musicians leaving was that they felt sufficiently qualified to go and run another band. The three band leaders were understanding about this, particularly as it was a process they had also been through. In some cases, in particular with Art Blakey, they actively encouraged and coached team members to become leaders. As the jazz icons Ellington, Davis and Blakey would no doubt agree, there is no magic score that if followed note by note will make you a great leader of creative talent. However, take an entrepreneur, a few cues from the aforementioned jazz trio, mix in a little improvisation, and you are more likely to hear the sweet sound of success. As Louis Armstrong once sang: ‘Now that’s jazz’.

Questions 28-33

The text has five sections, A-E.

Which section contains the following?

Write the correct letter, A-E, in boxes 28-33 on your answer sheet.

NB You may choose any letter more than once.

28. a summary of the different aspects of leadership that are covered in the study
29. a description of how band leaders sometimes passed on their leadership skills to others
30. a summary of the backgrounds of the band leaders chosen for the study
31. examples of ways in which one band leader encouraged his musicians to be more creative
32. an overview of the main similarities between the work of business people and jazz musicians
33. a description of two contrasting ways of leading a team

Questions 34-36

Do the following statements agree with the information given in the text?

In boxes 34-36 on your answer sheet, write

• TRUE                     if the statement agrees with the information
• FALSE                   if the statement contradicts the information
• NOT GIVEN        if there is no information on this

34. The study by Ucbasaran and Lockett was the first to compare the worlds of music and business.
35. One reason why jazz musicians were chosen for the research is because the setting in which they work is unpredictable.
36. The researchers decided to cover only certain aspects of leadership.

Questions 37-40

Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.

37. When assembling their teams, the band leaders all prioritised players
    1. who had special technical skill.
    2. who were used to working independently.
    3. who had an individual style of their own.
    4. who would get on well with other band members.
38. What obstacle might jazz leaders face in reducing destructive conflict among team members?
    1. They may also reduce productive conflict in the process.
    2. Their team members tend to have especially strong personalities.
    3. They are unaware of the theory concerning different types of conflict.
    4. Their team members may be unwilling to cooperate in reducing this.
39. What approach to group coordination was shared by Ellington, Davis and Blakey?
    1. They allowed musicians to be creative within certain agreed limits.
    2. They increased opportunities for success and reduced chances of failure.
    3. They provided a structure within which musicians could express themselves.
    4. They coordinated the work of their teams so each member contributed equally.
40. Ucbasaran and her colleagues found that the high turnover of members in jazz bands
    1. was eventually reduced by the policies of the band leaders.
    2. was welcomed by band leaders for the benefits it brought.
    3. was due to a shortage of effective band leaders.
    4. was a feature of the growing popularity of jazz.

Cambridge IELTS 13 General Reading Test 4 section 1 The Guardian Newspaper’s Travel answers

1. False
2. False
3. Not given
4. True
5. True
6. True
7. False
8. True

Cambridge IELTS 13 General Reading Test 4 section 1 Running Headphones answers

9. G
10. A
11. B
12. E
13. A
14. F

Cambridge IELTS 13 General Reading Test 4 section 2 A Case Study Of A Risk Assessment For General Office Cleaning answers

15. Representatives
16. Housekeeping
17. Fire
18. Storage
19. Reporting
20. Website
21. Cupboard

Cambridge IELTS 13 General Reading Test 4 section 2 Preparing For A Virtual Job Interview answers

22. Costs
23. Screening
24. Topics
25. Headset
26. Software
27. Rehearsal

Cambridge IELTS 13 General Reading Test 4 section 3 Tuning Up Your Leadership Skills answers

28. B
29. E
30. B
31. D
32. A
33. D
34. False
35. True
36. True
37. C
38. A
39. C
40. B

Cambridge IELTS 5 General Reading Test B

Section 1 – Questions 1-14

Walk For Charity

Dear Friend,

Please join us for our annual Walk for Charity, starting in Weldown, you and your friends can choose a delightful 10, 20 or 30 km route. The money raised will provide support to help people all over the world. Start collecting your sponsors now and then simply come along on the day. Please read the instructions below carefully especially if you require transport to and from Weldown. See you on Sunday 14 May.

V Jessop, Walk Co-ordinator

P.S. Well done to last years’ walkers for helping to raise a grand total of £ 21,000. The money has already been used to build a children’s playground.

START TIMES:

30 km: 8-10 am, 20 km: 8-10.30 am, 10 km: 8-11.30 am

The organisers reserve the right to refuse late comers.

CLOTHING should be suitable for the weather. If rain is forecast, bring some protection and be prepared for all eventualities. It is better to wear shoes that have been worn in rather than ones that are new.

ROUTE MAPS will be available from the registration point. The route will be sign-posted and marshelled. Where the route runs along the road, walkers should keep to one side in single file, facing oncoming traffic at all times. If you need help along the route please inform one of the marshals. Free car parking available in car parks and on streets in Weldown.

BUSES – For the 10 and 20 km routes a bus will be waiting at Fenton to take walkers back to Weldown. The bus will leave every half hour starting at midday. The service is free and there is no need to book.

Questions 1-7

Look at the information on the given page about a walk for charity.

Answer the questions below.

Use NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER from the text for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 1-7 on your answer sheet.

1. What is the starting point for the 30 km walk?
2. What is the latest start time for the 20 km walk?
3. Regarding footwear, what are you warned against wearing?
4. What are the officials who help participants on the route called?
5. Where does the 20 km walk finish?
6. What is the frequency of the Fenton to Weldown bus?
7. Which walk does not pass through Lower Brene?

Question 8-14

Read the information below and answer question 8-14

The Week’s Best

A Wild Rose
(Tuesday 19.00)
This TV drama is about a young private detective employed by a team of New York businessmen who send her to Brazil to look into a series of hotel robberies. When she gets there, she discovers that the hotels, which are owned by the businessmen, have been empty for the last two years and the local authorities have no record of any robberies.

B Animal Planet
(Wednesday 23.00)
This is a classic black-and-white film from the forties in which astronaut Charlie Huston crash-lands on a planet ruled entirely by animals. It is a first-class suspense adventure which also looks at the human condition, although this is not always a successful part of the film.

C Strange Encounter
(Saturday 21.00)
Suspense is skilfully built up in this clever, small-scale supernatural story. A young couple view a deserted old house that they are interested in buying. They meet a strange old lady who tells them of the mystical powers of the house and haw previous owners have been able to travel back through the centuries to meet their. ancestors.

D The Longest Walk
(Tuesday 21.30)
Ffyona Campbell is nearly there. All she has to do now is walk the length of France and Britain and she has succeeded in walking around the world. Tonight she drinks coffee in a tent and tells her story to Janet Street-Porter before she sets off for the Pyrenees mountains.

E Rubicon 5
(Thursday 20.30)
This is a TV film being used to launch a new science fiction series. It has impressive special effects and a strong, believable cast of characters who travel to the twenty-third century. The action takes place in underground cities where the environment is controlled by computers.

F New Science
(Friday 19.30)
This popular half-hour science magazine continues into its twenty-ninth year, proving itself to be a hardy survivor in the television world. Tonight it is presented by Carol Vorderman who introduces five reports, which include computer-driven cars and in-flight ten-pin bowling.

G There and Back Again
(Sunday 22.00)
Paul Theroux’s account of his recent journey from London to Japan and back makes ideal material for this evening’s travel slot. Based on his own novel, the progress of his journey on the railways of Europe and Asia (Victoria station, Paris, Istanbul…) acts as a fascinating travelogue as the inhabitants gradually shift from the West to the East.

Questions 8-14

Look at the seven television programmes A-G on the given page and answer Questions 8-14.

For which programme are the following statements true?

Write the correct letter A-G in boxes 8-14 on your answer sheet.

NB You may use any letter more than once.

8. This programme is in the form of a personal interview.
9. This programme is a documentary about technological developments.
10. These TWO programmes are about time travel.
11. This programme is taken from a book.
12. This film is the introduction to a set of programmes.
13. These TWO programmes are about present-day travellers.
14. This programme is about investigating a possible crime.

SECTION 2 – Question 15-27

BINGHAM REGIONAL COLLEGE

International Students’ Orientation Programme

What is it?
It is a course which will introduce you to the College and to Bingham. It takes place in the week before term starts, from 24th – 28th September inclusive, but you should plan to arrive in Bingham on the 22nd or 23rd September.

Why do we think it is important?
We want you to have the best possible start to your studies and you need to find out about all the opportunities that college life offers. This programme aims to help you do just that. It will enable you to get to know the College, its facilities and services. You will also have the chance to meet staff and students.

How much will it cost?
International students (non-European Union students)
For those students who do not come from European Union (EU) countries, and who are not used to European culture and customs, the programme is very important and you are strongly advised to attend. Because of this, the cost of the programme, exclusive of accommodation, is built into your tuition fees.

EU students
EU students are welcome to take part in this programme for a fee of £195, exclusive of accommodation. Fees are not refundable.

Accommodation costs (international and EU students)
If you have booked accommodation for the year ahead (41 weeks) through the College in one of the College residences (Cambourne House, Hanley House, the Student Village or a College shared house), you do not have to pay extra for accommodation during the Orientation programme. If you have not booked accommodation in the College residences, you can ask us to pre-book accommodation for you for one week only (Orientation Programme week) in a hotel with other international students. The cost of accommodation for one week is approximately £165. Alternatively, you can arrange your own accommodation for that week in a flat, with friends or a local family.

What is included during the programme?
Meals: lunch and an evening meal are provided as part of the programme, beginning with supper on Sunday 23rd September and finishing with lunch at midday on Friday 28th September. Please note that breakfast is not available.

Information sessions: including such topics as accommodation, health, religious matters, welfare, immigration, study skills, careers and other ‘essential information’.

Social activities: including a welcome buffet and a half-day excursion round Bingham.

Transport: between your accommodation and the main College campus, where activities will take place.

Questions 15-20

Do the following statements agree with the information given in the text above?

In boxes 15-20 on your answer sheet, write

• TRUE                           if the statement agrees with the information
• FALSE                         if the statement contradicts the information
• NOT GIVEN             if there is no information on this

15. Participants are advised to arrive one or two days early.
16. The cost of the programme for European Union students, excluding accommodation, is £195.
17. The number of places available is strictly limited.
18. Some students are not charged extra for accommodation during the programme.
19. The College will arrange accommodation with local families.
20. You can obtain breakfast at the College for an extra charge.

Read the information below and answer question 21-27

Student Accommodation

The College offers five basic accommodation options. Here is some information to help you make your choice

A CAMBOURNE HOUSE – self-catering, student residence, located in the town centre about 2 miles from the main College campus. Up to 499 students live in 6, 7 and 8 bedroom flats, all with en-suite shower rooms. Rent is £64 per week, including bills (not telephone). Broadband Internet connections and telephones, with communal kitchen/dining and lounge areas. Parking space is available, with permits costing £60 per term.

B STUDENT VILLAGE – features 3, 4, 5 and 7 bedroom, self-catering shared houses for 250 students close to the main College campus. Rent is £60 per week inclusive of bills (except telephone). Parking is available with permits costing £90 for the academic year.

C HANLEY HOUSE – a second, modern, self-catering residence in the town centre for 152 students. Eighteen rooms per floor with communal kitchens, lounges, bathrooms and toilets. Rent is £53 per week including bills (not telephone). There is no space for parking nearby.

D GLENCARRICK HOUSE – a privately-owned and managed student residence in the town centre above a multi-storey car park, close to a major nightclub and housing 120 students. Rooms are allocated by the College Accommodation Service. Rents range from £58.50 to £68.50 for a single en-suite room or larger en-suite room respectively. A small extra charge is made for electricity.

E HOUSE SHARES – this recent initiative is a range of shared houses for 140 students, conforming to standards set by us to meet all legal safety requirements. A room in a shared house costs between £45 and £55 per week, exclusive of bills, and will be within a 4-mile radius of both campuses. As with halls of residence, the rent is payable termly.

Questions 21-27

Look at the accommodation options A-E in the previous text.

For which options are the following statements true?

Write the correct letter A-E in boxes 21-27 on your answer sheet.

NB You may use any letter more than once.

21. This is possibly inconvenient for car owners.
22. This is best if you like surfing the Web.
23. Of the College residences, this has the fewest students.
24. This is a new option offered by the College.
25. You have to organise parking a year at a tim.
26. This accommodation does not belong to the College.
27. Here you definitely do not have your own bathroom.

Read the information below and answer question 28-40

GLOW-WORMS

A The glow-worm belongs to a family of beetles known as the Lampyridae or fireflies. The fireflies are a huge group containing over 2000 species, with new ones being discovered all the time. The feature which makes fireflies and glow-worms so appealing is their ability to produce an often dazzling display of light. The light is used by the adult fireflies as a signal to attract a mate, and each species must develop its own ‘call-sign’ to avoid being confused with other species glowing nearby. So within any one area each species will differ from its neighbours in some way, for example in the colour or pattern of its light, how long the pulses of light last, the interval between pulses and whether it displays in flight or from the ground.

B The firefly’s almost magical light has attracted human attention for generations. It is described in an ancient Chinese encyclopaedia written over 2000 years ago by a pupil of Confucius. Fireflies often featured in Japanese and Arabian folk medicine. All over the world they have been the inspiration for countless poems, paintings and stories. In Britain, for example, there are plenty of anecdotes describing how glow-worms have been used to read by or used as emergency bicycle lamps when a cyclist’s batteries have failed without warning. Early travellers in the New World came back with similar stories, of how the native people of Central America would collect a type of click beetle and release them indoors to light up their huts. Girls threaded them around their feet to illuminate the forest paths at night.

Fireflies very similar to those we see today have been found fossilised in rocks which were formed about 30 million years ago, and their ancestors were probably glowing long before then. It is impossible to be sure exactly when and where the first firefly appeared. The highest concentrations of firefly species today are to be found in the tropics of South America, which may mean either that this is where they first evolved, or simply that they prefer the conditions there.

Wherever they first arose, fireflies have since spread to almost every part of the globe. Today members of the firefly family can be found almost anywhere outside the Arctic and Antarctic circles.

C As with many insects, the glow-worm’s life is divided into four distinct stages: the egg, the larva (equivalent to the caterpillar of a butterfly), the pupa (or chrysalis) and the adult. The glow-worm begins its life in the autumn as a pale yellow egg. The freshly laid egg is extremely fragile but within a day its surface has hardened into a shell. The egg usually takes about 35 days to hatch, but the exact time varies according to the temperature, from about 27 days in hot weather to more than 45 days in cold weather. By the time it is due to hatch, the glow-worm’s light organ is fully developed, and its glow signals that the egg will soon hatch.

After it has left the egg, the larva slowly grows from a few millimetres into the size and shape of a matchstick. The larval stage is the only time the insect can feed. The larva devotes much of its life to feeding and building up its food reserves so that as an adult it will be free to concentrate all its efforts on the task of finding a mate and reproducing. Throughout its time as a larva, approximately 15 months, the glow-worm emits a bright light. The larva’s light is much fainter than the adult female’s but it can still be seen more than five metres away.

In the final stage of a glow-worm’s life, the larva encases itself in a pupa) skin while it changes from the simple larva to the more complex adult fly. When the adult fly emerges from the pupa the male seeks a female with whom it can mate. After mating, the female lays about 120 eggs. The adult flies have no mouth parts, cannot eat and therefore only live a few days. When people talk of seeing a glow-worm they normally mean the brightly glowing adult female.

D In some countries the numbers of glow-worms have been falling. Evidence suggests that there has been a steady decrease in the British glow-worm population since the 1950s and possibly before that. Possible causes for the decline include habitat destruction, pollution and changes in climate. Thousands of acres of grassland have been built upon and glow-worm sites have become increasingly isolated from each other. The widespread use of pesticides and fertilisers may also have endangered the glow-worm. Being at the top of a food chain it is likely to absorb any pollutants eaten by the snails on which it feeds. The effect of global warming on rainfall and other weather patterns may also be playing a part in the disappearance of glow-worms. A lot more research will be needed, however, before the causes of the glow-worm’s gradual decline are clear.

E Although glow-worms are found wherever conditions are damp, food is in good supply and there is an over-hanging wall, they are most spectacular in caves. For more than 100 years the glow-worm caves in New Zealand have attracted millions of people from all over the world. The caves were first explored in 1887 by a local Maori chief, Tane Tinorau, and an English surveyor, Fred Mace. They built a raft and, with candles as their only light, they floated into the cave where the stream goes underground. As their eyes adjusted to the darkness they saw myriad lights reflecting off the water. Looking up they discovered that the ceiling was dotted with the lights of thousands of glow-worms. They returned many times to explore further, and on an independent trip Tane discovered the upper level of the cave and an easier access. The authorities were advised and government surveyors mapped the caves. By 1888 Tane Tinorau had opened the cave to tourists.

Questions 28-37

The passage has five sections labelled A-E.

Which section contains the following information?

Write the correct letter A-E in boxes 28-33 on your answer sheet.

NB You may use any letter more than once.

28. threats to the glow-worm
29. ways in which glow-worms have been used
30. variations in type of glow-worm
31. glow-worm distribution
32. glow-worms becoming an attraction
33. the life-cycle of a glow-worm

Questions 34-40

Do the following statements agree with the information given in the passage?

In boxes 34-40 on your answer sheet, write

• TRUE                         if the statement agrees with the information
• FALSE                       if the statement contradicts the information
• NOT GIVEN            if there is no information on this

34. Scientists have only recently been able to list the exact number of glow-worm species.
35. The first fireflies appeared 30 million years ago.
36. Glow-worm populations are decreasing faster in some countries than in others.
37. Heat affects the production of glow-worm larvae.
38. Adulthood is the longest stage of a glow-worm’s life.
39. The exact reason why glow-worm numbers are decreasing is unknown.
40. Glow-worms are usually found in wet areas.

Cambridge IELTS 5 General Reading Test 2 section 1 Walk For Charity answers

1. weldown
2. 10.30 (am)
3. new shoes
4. (the) marshals
5. fenton
6. every half hoar
7. 10 kilometre (walk)

Cambridge IELTS 5 General Reading Test 2 section 1 The Week’s Best answers

8. D
9. F
10. C,E
11. G
12. E
13. D,G
14. A

Cambridge IELTS 5 General Reading Test 2 Section 2 answers BINGHAM REGIONAL COLLEGE answers

15. TRUE
16. TRUE
17. NOT GIVEN
18. TRUE
19. FALSE
20. FALSE

Cambridge IELTS 5 General Reading Test 2 section 2 Student Accommodation answers

21. C
22. A
23. D
24. E
25. B
26. D
27. C

Cambridge IELTS 5 General Reading Test 2 section 3 GLOW-WORMS answers

28. D
29. B
30. A
31. B
32. E
33. C
34. NOT GIVEN
35. FALSE
36. NOT GIVEN
37. TRUE
38. FALSE
39. TRUE
40. TRUE

Cambridge IELTS 7 General Reading Test A with answers

SECTION 1: Question 1-14

Read the text below and answer Question 1-7

EASTERN ENERGY

We are here to help and provide you with personal advice on any matters connected with your bill or any other queries regarding your gas and electricity supply.

Moving home
Please give as much notice as possible if you are moving home, but at least 48 hours is required for us to make the necessary arrangements for your gas and electricity supply. Please telephone our 24-hour line on 01316 753219 with details of your move. In most cases we are happy to accept your meter reading on the day you move. Tell the new occupant that Eastern Energy supply the household, to ensure the service is not interrupted. Remember we can now supply electricity and gas at your new address, anywhere in the UK. If you do not contact us, you may be held responsible for the payment for electricity used after you have moved.

Meter reading
Eastern Energy uses various types of meter ranging from the traditional dial meter to new technology digital display meters. Always read the meter from left to right, ignoring any red dials. If you require assistance, contact our 24-hour line on 0600 7310 310.

Energy Efficiency Line
If you would like advice on the efficient use of energy, please call our Energy Efficiency Line on 0995 7626 513. Please do not use this number for any other enquiries.

Special services
Passwords – you can choose a password so that, whenever we visit you at home, you will know it is us. For more information, ring our helpline on 0995 7290 290.

Help and advice
If you need help or advice with any issues, please contact us on 01316 440188.

Complaints
We hope you will never have a problem or cause to complain, but, if you do, please contact our complaints handling team at PO Box 220, Stanfield, ST55 6GF or telephone us on 01316 753270.

Supply failure
If you experience any problems with your electricity supply, please call free on 0600 7838 836,24 hours a day, seven days a week.

Question 1-7

Do the following statements agree with the information given in the text?

In boxes 1-7 on your answer sheet, write

• TRUE             if the statement agrees with the information
• FALSE             if the statement contradicts the information
• NOT GIVEN   if there is no information on this

1. Customers should inform Eastern Energy of a change of address on arrival at their new home.
2. Customers are expected to read their own gas or electricity meters.
3. It is now cheaper to use gas rather than electricity as a form of heating.
4. Eastern Energy supplies energy to households throughout the country.
5. The Energy Efficiency Line also handles queries about energy supply.
6. All complaints about energy supply should be made by phone.
7. Customers are not charged for the call when they report a fault in supply.

Read the text below and answer Questions 8-14.

Using your new microwave oven

A As microwave cooking times are much shorter than other cooking times, it is essential that recommended cooking times are not exceeded without first checking the food.

B Take care when heating small amounts of food as these can easily burn, dry out or catch fire if cooked too long. Always set short cooking times and check the food frequently.

C Take care when heating ‘dry’ foods, e.g. bread items, chocolate and pastries. These can easily burn or catch fire if cooked too long.

D Some processed meats, such as sausages, have non-porous casings. These must be pierced by a fork before cooking, to prevent bursting. Whole fruit and vegetables should be similarly treated.

E When heating soup, sauces and beverages in your microwave oven, heating beyond boiling point can occur without evidence of bubbling. Care should be taken not to overheat.

F When warming up food for a second time, it is essential that it is served ‘piping hot’, i.e. steam is being emitted from all parts and any sauce is bubbling. For foods that cannot be stirred, e.g. pizza, the centre should be cut with a knife to test it is well heated through.

G It is important for the safe operation of the oven that it is wiped out regularly. Use warm, soapy water, squeeze the cloth out well and use it to remove any grease or food from the interior. The oven should be unplugged during this process.

Questions 8-14

The previous text has seven sections, A-G.

Choose the correct heading for each section from the list of headings below.

Write the correct number; i–x, in boxes 8–14 on your answer sheet.

List of Headings

1. Re-heating
2. Foods with skins
3. Keeping your oven clean
4. Standing time
5. Rapid cooking times
6. Using a thermometer
7. Small quantities of food
8. Deep fat frying
9. Foods low in moisture
10. Liquids

8. Section A
9. Section B
10. Section C
11. Section D
12. Section E
13. Section F
14. Section G

SECTION 2: Question 15-27

Read the text below and answer Question 15-20.

CHOOSING PREMISES FOR A NEW BUSINESS

What you need
Three factors dominate the priorities of small businesses looking for premises: cost, cost and cost. Nobody ever has enough money, so there is an overwhelming temptation to go for the cheapest property. It is a mistake that can take decades to rectify – and even threaten the future of a promising business. Ironically some firms swing too far in the other direction, committing themselves to a heavy initial outlay because they believe in the importance of image – and that does not come cheap. Finding the right premises is the real secret. That can, and will, vary enormously according to the type of business. But there are some general rules that apply to any operation.

Location
High street premises are important for shops which rely on passing trade – but these are expensive. Rents fall quickly within a few metres of main roads. Offices, however, need not be located centrally, particularly if most business is done on the phone or via email.

Manufacturing and storage relies heavily on access. Think about how vans and lorries will deliver and collect goods from the premises. Nearby parking can be important for staff, and public transport can be even more so, as traffic restrictions tighten.

Size
This is a crucial decision. Health and Safety laws provide basic guidance on how much room is required per office desk or manufacturing operation. But remember to allow for growth.

Growth
Every small business aims to become a big business, but this prospect can be obstructed if the wrong decisions are made early on. It is important to consider flexibility from the start. Can a building be physically altered internally by knocking down walls or by extending outwards or adding extra floors? Is there spare land next door to expand later if necessary?

Landlords obviously have to agree to any changes so it is important that the contract includes details of what will be allowed and how much extra will be charged on top of the costs of rebuilding or alteration. Planning rules must also be considered. Local authorities are not always open to discussion about the future of premises. They may have rigid rules about increasing density of development. The building may be in a conservation area or near housing, in which case it will be much more difficult to consider changes.

Questions 15-20

Complete the sentences below.

Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the text for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 15-20 on your answer sheet.

15. Some people choose expensive premises because they want to create an impressive……………for their company.
16. Businesses which depend on………………..need to be on or near the principal shopping areas.
17. Businesses which produce goods must check there is……………………to the premises for delivery vehicles.
18. When choosing a building for your premises, find out whether………………could be removed to create more room.
19. Make sure that the………………….states what type of building alterations might be permitted.
20. If business premises are located close to………………, extensions may not be allowed.

Read the text below and answer Question 21-27

CALIFORNIA STATE COLLEGE

WORKING CONDITIONS AND BENEFITS FOR EMPLOYEES

Payday
Employees are paid every other Friday. If Friday is a holiday, payday will be the following Monday. Generally employees pick up the pay checks in their department if not they may be picked up at the Business Office.

Overtime
All time worked over eight hours in one day and forty hours in a workweek, and also the first eight hours worked on the seventh day of work in a workweek is considered overtime for non-exempt employees. The supervisor must approve all overtime before overtime occurs. Hours in excess of eight hours on the seventh day and in excess of twelve hours in one day will be paid at double time. Exempt employees receive no additional compensation for overtime hours.

Parking
All employees who will be parking in a staff parking zone must obtain a parking permit. A monthly pre-tax payroll deduction can be made by visiting Human Resources. If you wish to pay cash, present your staff I.D. and license number to the Cashier’s Office.The Safety Department will ticket cars without a parking permit and a fine will be applied.

I.D. Card
All employees are required to carry an I.D. card. If an employee loses his/her card, there will be an automatic charge of $5.00 to issue a duplicate. If an employee gives up employment, his/her I.D. card must be returned prior to release of final paycheck.

Holidays
All regular and temporary full-time employees generally receive approximately 13 paid holidays during the course of each calendar year Regular part-time employees will receive holiday benefits worked out using a prorated system.The holiday schedule is initiated annually

Personal Holiday
Each employee is granted one extra day as a Personal Holiday at the time of hire, and at the beginning of each calendar year Personal Holiday hours must be taken at one time (eight hours full-time or prorated based on the employee’s time). Employees requesting Personal Holiday will be required to complete ‘Leave Request’ forms. No more than one Personal Holiday is authorized annually

Birthday Holiday
All regular and temporary full-time or part-time employees are entitled to take their birthday off with pay. An employee has a fifteen-day span before and following his/her birthday to take the paid day off. What is known as a grace period through January 15th is given to those employees whose birthdays fall between December 16th and end of the year.

Question 21-27

Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the text for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 21-27 on your answer sheet.

21. Where do most employees collect their wages?
22. Who has to authorise any overtime an employee wishes to do?
23. Who is not paid extra for working more than 40 hours a week?
24. Where should employees go if they wish to have the parking charge taken off their salary?
25. What method is used to calculate part-time employees’ holidays?
26. Which documents must employees fill in to select their Personal Holiday?
27. What is the name of the special entitlement provided to employees with birthdays in the second half of December?

SECTION 3: Question 28-40

Read the text below and answer Question 28-40.

A Very Special Dog
Florence is one of a new breed of dog who is making the work of
the Australian Customs much easier

It is 8.15 a.m. A flight lands at Melbourne’s Tullamarine International Airport. Several hundred pieces of baggage are rushed from the plane onto a conveyor belt in the baggage reclaim annexe. Over the sound of roaring engines, rushing air vents and grinding generators, a dog barks. Florence, a sleek black labrador, wags her tail.

Among the cavalcade of luggage passing beneath Florence’s all-smelling nose, is a nondescript hardback suitcase. Inside the case, within styrofoam casing, packed in loose pepper and coffee, wrapped in freezer paper and heat-sealed in plastic, are 18 kilograms of hashish.

The cleverly concealed drugs don’t fool super-sniffer Florence, and her persistent scratching at the case alerts her handler. Florence is one of a truly new breed: the product of what is perhaps the only project in the world dedicated to breeding dogs solely to detect drugs. Ordinary dogs have a 0.1% chance of making it in drug detection. The new breeding programme, run by the Australian Customs, is so successful that more than 50% of its dogs make the grade.

And what began as a wholly practical exercise in keeping illegal drugs out of Australia may end up playing a role in an entirely different sphere – the comparatively esoteric world of neurobiology. It turns out that it’s not Florence’s nose that makes her a top drug dog, but her unswerving concentration, plus a few other essential traits. Florence could help neurobiologists to understand both what they call ‘attention processing’, the brain mechanisms that determine what a person pays attention to and for how long, and its flip side, problems such as Attention Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD). As many as 3 to 5% of children are thought to suffer from the condition in the US, where the incidence is highest, although diagnosis is often controversial.

The Australian Customs has used dogs to find drugs since 1969. Traditionally, the animals came from pounds
and private breeders. But, in 1993, fed up with the poor success rate of finding good dogs this way, John Vandeloo, senior instructor with the Detector Dog Unit, joined forces with Kath Champness, then a doctoral student at
the University of Melbourne, and set up a breeding programme.

Champness began by defining six essential traits that make a detector dog. First, every good detector dog must love praise because this is the only tool trainers have at their disposal, but the dog must still be able to work for long periods without it. Then it needs a strong hunting instinct and the stamina to keep sniffing at the taxing rate of around 300 times per minute. The ideal detector is also fearless enough to deal with jam-packed airport crowds and the roaring engine rooms of cargo ships.

The remaining two traits are closely related and cognitive in nature. A good detector must be capable of focusing on the task of searching for drugs, despite the distractions in any airport or dockside. This is what neurobiologists call ‘selective attention’. And finally, with potentially tens of thousands of hiding places for drugs, the dog must persevere and maintain focus for hours at a time. Neurobiologists call this ‘sustained attention’.

Vandeloo and Champness assess the dogs’ abilities to concentrate by marking them on a scale of between one and five according to how well they remain focused on a toy tossed into a patch of grass. Ivan scores a feeble one. He follows the toy, gets half-way there, then becomes distracted by places where the other dogs have been or by flowers in the paddock. Rowena, on the other hand, has phenomenal concentration; some might even consider her obsessive. When Vandeloo tosses the toy, nothing can distract her from the searching, not other dogs, not food. And even if no one is around to encourage her, she keeps looking just the same. Rowena gets a five.

A person’s ability to pay attention, like a dog’s, depends on a number of overlapping cognitive behaviours, including memory and learning – the neurobiologist’s attention processing. Attention in humans can be tested by asking subjects to spot colours on a screen while ignoring shapes, or to spot sounds while ignoring visual cues, or to take a ‘vigilance test’. Sitting a vigilance test is like being a military radar operator. Blips appear on a cluttered monitor infrequently and at irregular intervals. Rapid detection of all blips earns a high score. Five minutes into the test, one in ten subjects will start to miss the majority of the blips, one in ten will still be able to spot nearly all of them and the rest will come somewhere in between.

Vigilance tasks provide signals that are infrequent and unpredictable – which is exactly what is expected of the dogs when they are asked to notice just a few odour molecules in the air, and then to home in on the source. During a routine mail screen that can take hours, the dogs stay so focused that not even a postcard lined with 0.5 grams of heroin and hidden in a bulging sack of letters escapes detection.

With the current interest in attentional processing, as well as human conditions that have an attention deficit component, such as ADHD, it is predicted that it is only a matter of time before the super-sniffer dogs attract the attention of neurobiologists trying to cure these conditions.

Questions 28-32

Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.

Write the correct letter in boxes 28-32 on your answer sheet.

28. The drugs in the suitcase
    1. were hidden inside the lining.
    2. had pepper and coffee around them.
    3. had previously been frozen.
    4. had a special smell to repel dogs.
29. Most dogs are not good at finding drugs because
    1. they don’t work well with a handler.
    2. they lack the right training.
    3. the drugs are usually very well hidden.
    4. they lack certain genetic qualities.
30. Florence is a good drug detector because she
    1. has a better sense of smell than other dogs.
    2. is not easily distracted.
    3. has been specially trained to work at airports.
    4. enjoys what she is doing.
31. Dogs like Florence may help scientists understand
    1. how human and dog brains differ.
    2. how people can use both sides of their brain.
    3. why some people have difficulty paying attention.
    4. the best way for people to maintain their focus.
32. In 1993, the Australian Customs
    1. decided to use its own dogs again.
    2. was successful in finding detector dogs.
    3. changed the way it obtained dogs.
    4. asked private breeders to provide more dogs.

Question 33-36

Choose FOUR letters, A-J.

Write the correct letters in boxes 33-36 on your answer sheet.

The writer mentions a number of important qualities that detector dogs must have.

Which FOUR of the following qualities are mentioned by the writer of the text?

1. a good relationship with people
2. a willingness to work in smelly conditions
3. quick reflexes
4. an ability to work in noisy conditions
5. an ability to maintain concentration
6. a willingness to work without constant encouragement
7. the skill to find things in long grass
8. experience as hunters
9. a desire for people’s approval
10. the ability to search a large number of places rapidly

Questions 37-40

Do the following statements agree with the information given in the text?

In boxes 37-40 on your answer sheet, write

• TRUE             if the statement agrees with the information
• FALSE             if the statement contradicts the information
• NOT GIVEN   if there is no information on this

37. Methods of determining if a child has ADHD are now widely accepted.
38. After about five minutes of a vigilance test, some subjects will still notice some blips.
39. Vigilance tests help improve concentration.
40. 40. If a few grams of a drug are well concealed, even the best dogs will miss them.

Cambridge IELTS 7 General Reading Test 1 Answers Section 1 (1-7) EASTERN ENERGY

1. FASLE
2. TRUE
3. NOT GIVEN
4. TRUE
5. FALSE
6. 6. FALSE
7. 7. TRUE

Cambridge IELTS 7 General Reading Test 1 Answers Section 1 (8-14) Using your new microwave oven

8. V
9. VII
10. IX
11. ii
12. x
13. i
14. iii

Cambridge IELTS 7 General Reading Test 1 Answers Section 2 (15-20) CHOOSING PREMISES FOR A NEW BUSINESS

15. image
16. 16. passing trade
17. 17. access
18. 18. walls
19. 19. contract
20. 20. housing

Cambridge IELTS 7 General Reading Test 1 Answers Section 2 (21-27) CALIFORNIA STATE COLLEGE

21. their department
22. (the) supervisor
23. exempt employees
24. Human Resources
25. (a) prorated system
26. leave request forms
27. (a) grace period

Cambridge IELTS 7 General Reading Test 1 Answers Section 3 (28-40) A Very Special Dog

28. B
29. D
30. B
31. C
32. C
33. D (in any order 33-36)
34. E
35. F
36. I
37. FALSE
38. TRUE
39. NOT GIVEN
40. FALSE