Category: IELTS Listening Tests

Section 1: Questions 1-10

Questions 1-5

Complete the form below.

Write NO MORE THAN ONE WORD OR A NUMBER for each answer.

VIDEO LIBRARY APPLICATION FORM

First Names: Louise Cynthia

Address: (1) ……………………

Post code: (2) ……………………
Telephone: 98356712(home), (3) …………………… (work)              

Driver’s licence number: (4) ……………………
Date of birth: 25th (5) ……………………, 1977

Questions 6-8

Circle THREE letters A-F.

What types of films does Louise like?

1. Action
2. Comedies
3. Musicals
4. Romance
5. Westerns
6. Wildlife

Questions 9 and 10

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

9. How much does it cost to join the library? 
10. When will Louise’s card be ready? 

Section 2: Questions 11-13

Complete the notes below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

Expedition Across Attora Mountains

Leader: Charles Owen
Prepared a (11) ……………………….  for the trip
Total length of trip (12) ……………………….
Climbed highest peak in (13) ……………………….

Questions 14 and 15

Circle the correct letter A-C.

14. What took the group by surprise?
    1. the amount of rain
    2. the number of possible routes
    3. the length of the journey
15. How did Charles feel about having to change routes?
    1. He reluctantly accepted it
    2. He was irritate by the diversion
    3. It made no difference to him

Questions 16-18

Circle THREE letters A-F.

What does Charles say about his friends?

1. He met them at one stage on the trip
2.  They kept all their meeting arrangements
3.  One of them helped arrange the transport
4.  One of them owned the hotel they stayed in
5.  Some of them travelled with him
6.  Only one group lasted 96 days

Questions 19 and 20

Circle TWO letters A-E.

What does Charles say about the donkeys?

1. He rode them when he was tired
2. He named them after places
3. One of them died
4. They behaved unpredictably
5. They were very small

Section 3: Questions 21-30

Questions 21-25

Complete the table below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

	TIM	JANE
Day of arrival	Sunday	(21)………………..
Subject	History	(22)………………..
Number of books to read	(23)……………….	(24)………………..
Day of first lecture	Tuesday	(25)………………..

Questions 26-30

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

26. What is Jane’s study strategy in lectures? 
27. What is Tim’s study strategy for reading? 
28. What is the subject of Tim’s first lecture? 
29. What is the title of Tim’s first essay? 
30. What is the subject of Jane’s first essay? 

Section 3: Questions 31-40

Questions 31-36

Complete the table below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Course	Type of course: Durations and level	Entry requirements
Physical fitness instructor	Example: 6 months certificate	None
Sports administrator	(31)…………………….	(32)………………in sports administration
Sports psychologist	(33)…………………..	Degree in psychology
Physical education trainer	Four years degree in education	(34)…………………
Recreation officer	(35)…………………..	None

Questions 36-40

Complete the table below.

Write the appropriate letters A-G against question 36-40.

Job	Main Role
Physical Fitness Instructor	(36) ………..
Sports Administrator	(37) ………..
Sports Psychologist	(38) ………..
Physical Education Teacher	(39)………..
Recreation Officer	(40) ………..

MAIN ROLES

1. the coaching of teams
2. the support of elite athletes
3. guidance of ordinary individuals
4. community health
5. the treatment of injuries
6. arranging matches and venues
7. the rounded development of children

Cambridge IELTS 2 Listening Test 1 Section 1 Answers

1. black
2. 2085
3. 94561309
4. 2020BD
5. July
6. B
7. D
8. F
9. $25
10. next week

Cambridge IELTS 2 Listening Test 1 Section 2 Answer

11. route book
12. 900 miles
13. North America
14. A
15. C
16. B
17. C
18. E
19. B
20. D

Cambridge IELTS 2 Listening Test 1 Section 3 Answer

21. (on) friday
22. biology
23. 57
24. 43
25. wednesday
26. records them
27. skimming
28. French Revolution
29. why study history
30. animal language

Cambridge IELTS 2 Listening Test 1 Section 3 Answers

31. 4 month certificate
32. employment/ job
33. one year diploma
34. none
35. 6 month certificate
36. C
37. F
38. B
39. G
40. D

Section 1 – Questions 1-10

Questions 1-4

Complete the form below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer.

ACCOMMODATION REQUEST FORM

Name: Sara Lim
Age: 23
Length of time in Australia: (1) …………………………..
Present address: Flat 1, 539, (2)………………………….. Road Canterbury 2036
Present course: (3)………………………….. English
Accommodation required from: (4)………………………….. 7th September

Questions 5-7

Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

5. Sara requires a
   1. single room
   2. twin room
   3. triple room
6. She would prefer to live with a
   1. family
   2. single person
   3. couple
7. She would like to live in a
   1. flat
   2. house
   3. studio apartment

Questions 8-10

Complete the sentences below.

Write NO MORE THAN ONE WORD for each answer.

8. The  will be $320.
9. She needs to pay the rent by cash or cheque on a  basis.
10. She needs to pay her part of the  bill

Section 2: Questions 11-14

Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

11. When is this year’s festival being held?
    1. 1-13 January
    2. 5-17 January
    3. 25-31 January
12. What will the reviewer concentrate on today
    1. theatre
    2. dance
    3. exhibitions
13. How many circuses are there in the festival?
    1. one
    2.  two
    3. several
14. Where does Circus Romano perform?
    1. in a theatre
    2. in a tent
    3. in a stadium

Questions 15-20

Complete the notes below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

	Where	Type of performance	Highlights	Type of audience
Circus Romano		clowns and acrobats	music and (15)…………………………..	(16)…………………………..
Circus Electrica	(17)…………………………..	dancers and magicians	aerial displays	(18)…………………………..
Mekong Water Puppets	(19)…………………………..	puppets	seeing the puppeteers at end	(20)…………………………..

Section 3: Questions 21-30

Choose the correct letter, A. B or C.

21. The man wants information on courses for
    1. people going back to college
    2. postgraduate students
    3. business executives
22. The ‘Study for Success’ seminar lasts for
    1. one day
    2. two days
    3. three days
23. In the seminar the work on writing aims to improve
    1. confidence
    2. speed
    3. clarity
24. Reading sessions help students to read
    1. analytically
    2. as fast as possible
    3. thoroughly
25. The seminar tries to
    1. prepare learners physically
    2. encourage interest in learning
    3. develop literacy skills
26. A key component of the course is learning how to
    1. use time effectively
    2. stay healthy
    3. select appropriate materials
27. Students who want to do the ‘Study for Success’ seminar should
    1. register with the Faculty Office
    2. contact their Course Convenor
    3. reserve a place in advance
28. The ‘Learning Skills for University Study’ course takes place on
    1. Monday, Wednesday and Friday
    2. Monday, Tuesday and Wednesday
    3. Monday, Thursday and Friday
29. A feature of this course is
    1. a physical training component
    2. advice on coping with stress
    3. a detailed weekly planner
30. The man chooses the ‘Study for Success’ seminar because
    1. he is over forty
    2. he wants to start at the beginning
    3. he seeks to revise his skills

Section 4: Questions 31-40

Questions 31 & 32

Complete the notes below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer.

New Union Building

Procedures to establish student opinion:
• students were asked to give written suggestions on the building’s design
• these points informed the design of A (31) …………………………..
• (there were (32) ………………………….. respondents)
• results collated and report produced by Union Committee

Questions 33-37
Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

CHOICE OF SITE

	Site One	Site Two	Site Three
Location	city centre near faculty of (33)…………………………..	outskirts near park	out of town near the (34)……………
Advantages and/ or disadvantages	problems with (35)…………………………..and. ………	close to (36)……………	access to living quarters, large site so more (37)…………………

Question 38

Choose TWO letters A-G.

Which TWO facilities did the students request in the new Union building?

1. a library
2. a games room
3. a student health centre
4. a mini fitness centre
5. a large swimming pool
6. a travel agency
7. a lecture theatre

Question 39

Choose the correct letters A, B and C.

Which argument was used AGAINST having a drama theatre?

1. It would be expensive and no students would use it
2. It would be a poor use of resources because only a minority would use it
3. It could not accommodate large production of plays

Question 40

Choose TWO letters A-F.

40. Which TWO security measures have been requested?

1. closed circuit TV
2. show Union card on entering the building
3. show Union card when asked
4. sport searched of bags
5. permanent security office on site

Cambridge IELTS 4 Listening Test 3 section 1 answers

1. 5 year
2. forest
3. academic
4. thursday
5. B
6. B
7. A
8. deposit
9. monthly
10. telephone

Cambridge IELTS 4 Listening Test 3 section 2 answers

11. C
12. A
13. C
14. B
15. lights
16. adults
17. studio theatre
18. whole family
19. city gardens
20. young children

Cambridge IELTS 4 Listening Test 3 section 3 answers

21. A
22. B
23. C
24. A
25. B
26. A
27. C
28. B
29. B
30. B

Cambridge IELTS 4 Listening Test 3 section 4 answers

31. questionnaire
32. about 2000
33. education
34. halls of residence
35. traffic and parking
36. lecture rooms
37. facilities
38. D and F
39. B
40. A and C

Section 1: Questions 1-10

Complete the notes below.

Use NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Library Information

Minimum joining age: 18 years

For registration, must take
• two (1) ………………….  and
• two forms of I.D. e.g. driving licence, (2) ………………….

Cost to join per year (without current student card): (3) …………………. £ 
Number of items allowed: (members of public) (4) ………………….
Login times: four weeks
Fines start at (5) …………………. £ 
Computers can be booked up to (6) …………………. hours in advance
Library holds most national papers,  (7) …………………. , and magazines need (8) ………………….to use photocopier

Creative Writing class
• tutor is John (9) …………………. and
• held on (10) …………………. evenings

Section 2: Questions 11-15

Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

BICYCLES FOR THE WORLD

11. In 1993 Dan Pearman went to Ecuador
    1. as a tourist guide
    2. as part of his studies
    3. as a voluntary worker
12. Dan’s neighbour was successful in business because he
    1. employed carpenters from the area
    2. was the most skilled craftsman in the town
    3. found it easy to reach customers
13. Dan says the charity relies on
    1. getting enough bicycles to send regularly
    2. finding new areas which need the bicycles
    3. charging for the bicycles it sends abroad
14. What does Dan say about the town of Rivas?
    1. It has received the greatest number of bikes
    2. It has almost as many bikes as Amsterdam
    3. Its economy has been totally transformed
15. What problem did the charity face in August 2000?
    1. It couldn’t meet its overheads
    2. It had to delay sending the bikes
    3. It was criticized in the British media

Questions 16 and 17

Write NO MORE THAN ONE WORD OR A NUMBER for each answer.

16. How much money did the charity receive when it won an award? 
17. What is the charity currently hoping to buy? 

Questions 18-20

Which THREE things can the general public do to help the charity Pedal Power?

1. organise a bicycle collection
2. repair the donated bikes
3. donate their unwanted tools
4. do voluntary work in its office
5. hold an event to raise money
6. identify areas that need bikes
7. write to the government

Section 3: Questions 21-30

Choose the table below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

‘STUDENT LIFE’ VIDEO PROJECT

	Cristina	Ibrahim
Enjoyed:	– using the camera – going to British (21)……………	contact with students doing other courses (has asked some to (22)……….with him)
Most useful language practice:	– listening to instructions – learning (23)…………. vocabulary	listening to British students’ language because of: – normal speed – large amount of (24)…………….
General usefulness:	– operating video camera – working with other people: – learning about (25)………… – compromising – (26)…………people who have different views	the importance of (27)………………..
Things to do differently in future:	– decide when to (28)………….each stage at the beginning – make more efforts to (29)……………….with the camera	do not make the film too (30)………………………

Section 4: Questions 31-40

Complete the notes below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

GEOGRAPHY
• more than (31) …………………. times as big as the UK
• most of the area is classified as (32) ………………….

RESEARCH STATIONS
• (33) …………………. is integrated with technical support
• stations contain accommodation, work areas, a kitchen, a (34) …………………. and a gym
• supplies were brought to Zero One station by sledge from a (35) …………………. at the edge of the ice 15 km away
• problem of snow build-ups solved by building stations on (36) …………………. with adjustable legs

FOOD AND DIET
• average daily requirement for an adult in Antarctica is approximately (37) …………………. kilocalories
• rations for field work prepared by process of freeze-drying

RESEARCH
The most important research focuses on climate change, including
– measuring changes in the ice-cap (because of effects on sea levels and (38) ………………….
– analysing air from bubbles in ice to measure (39) …………………. caused by human activity

WORK OPPORTUNITIES
Many openings for (40) …………………. people including
– research assistants, administrative and technical positions

Cambridge IELTS 5 Listening Test 2 section 1 answers

1. photos
2. bank statement
3. 125 per year
4. 8
5. 1.50
6. 48
7. local papers
8. cards
9. grantigham
10. friday

Cambridge IELTS 5 Listening Test 2 section 2 answers

11. C
12. C
13. A
14. C
15. A
16. pound 75,000
17. computers
18. C
19. E
20. F

Cambridge IELTS 5 Listening Test 2 section 3 answers

21. home
22. come to dinner
23. technical
24. slang
25. cooperating
26. persuading
27. editing
28. complete
29. experiment
30. long

Cambridge IELTS 5 Listening Test 2 section 4 answers

31. 58
32. desert
33. science
34. small hospital
35. ship
36. platforms
37. 3500
38. currents
39. pollution
40. young

Section 1: Questions 1-10

Complete the notes below.

Write ONE WORD OR A NUMBER.

Moving to Banford City

Linda recommends living in suburb of: Dalton

Accommodation
• Average rent: (1) ………………………. £  a month

Transport
• Linda travels to work by (2) ……………………….
• Limited (3) ……………………….  in city centre
• Trains to London every (4) ………………………. minutes
• Poor train service at (5) ……………………….

Advantages of living in Banford
• New (6) ………………………. opened recently
• (7) ………………………. has excellent reputation
• Good (8)  ………………………. on Bridge Street

Meet Linda
• Meet Linda on (9)  ………………………. after 5.30 pm
• In the (10) ………………………. opposite the station

Section 2: Questions 11-20

Questions 11-16

Choose SIX answers from the box and write the correct letter A-G next to questions 11-16

What advantages does the speaker mention for each of the following physical activities?

Advantages

1. not dependent on season
2. enjoyable
3. low risk of injury
4. fitness level unimportant
5. sociable
6. fast results
7. motivating

Physical Activities

11. using a gym 
12. running 
13. swimming 
14. cycling 
15. doing yoga 
16. training with a personal trainer 

Questions 17 and 18

Choose TWO letters A-E.

For which TWO reasons does the speaker say people give up going to the gym?

1. lack of time
2. loss of confidence
3. too much effort required
4. high costs
5. feeling less successful than others

Questions 19 and 20

Choose TWO letters A-E,

Which TWO pieces of advice does the speaker give for setting goals?

1. write goals down
2. have achievable aims
3. set a time limit
4. give yourself rewards
5. challenge yourself

Section 3: Questions 21-30

Questions 21-24

Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

Project on using natural dyes to colour fabrics

21. What first inspired Jim to choose this project?
    1. textiles displayed in an exhibition
    2. a book about a botanic garden
    3. carpets he saw on holiday
22. Jim eventually decided to do a practical investigation which involved
    1. using a range of dyes with different fibres
    2. applying different dyes to one type of fibre
    3. testing one dye and a range of fibres
23. When doing his experiments Jim was surprised by
    1. how much natural material was needed to make the dye
    2. the fact that dyes were widely available on the internet
    3. the time that he had to leave the fabric in the dye
24. What problem did Jim have with using tartrazine as a fabric dye?
    1. it caused a slight allergic reaction
    2. it was not a permanent dye on cotton
    3. it was ineffective when used on nylon

Questions 25-30

Choose SIX answers from the options below and write correct letter A-H next to questions 25-30

What problem is identified with each of the following natural dyes?

Problems

1. it is expensive
2. the color is too strong
3. the color is not long lasting
4. it is very poisonous
5. it can damage the fabric
6. the color may be unexpected
7. it is unsuitable for some fabrics
8. it is not generally available

Natural dyes

25. turmeric 
26. Beetroot 
27. Tyrian purple 
28. Lowood 
29. cochineal 
30. metal oxide 

Section 4: Questions 31-40

Complete the notes below.

Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

The sleepy lizard (tiliqua rugose)

Description
• They are common in western and south Australia
• They are brown but recongisable by their blue (31) …,………………….
• They are relatively large
• Their diet consists mainly of (32) ……………………….
• Their main predators are large birds and (33) ……………………….

Navigation study
• One study found that lizards can use the (34) ………………………. to help them navigate

Observations in the wild
• Observations show that these lizards keep the same (35) ………………………. for several years

What people want
• Possible reasons:
o To improve the survival of their young (but little (36) ………………………. has been noted between parents and children)
o To provide (37) ………………………. for female lizards

Tracking study
• A study was carried out using GPS systems attached to the (38) ………………………. of the lizards
• This provided information on the lizards’ location and even the number of
(39)  ………………………. taken
• It appeared that the lizards were trying to avoid one another
• This may be in order to reduce chances of (40) ……………………….

Cambridge IELTS 13 Listening Test 3 section 1 answers

1. 850
2. bike
3. parking
4. 30
5. weekend(s)
6. cinema
7. hospital
8. dentist
9. thursday
10. cafe

Cambridge IELTS 13 Listening Test 3 section 2 answers

11. F
12. D
13. A
14. B
15. C
16. G
17. B
18. C
19. B
20. D

Cambridge IELTS 13 Listening Test 3 section 3 answers

21. C
22. A
23. A
24. B
25. C
26. F
27. H
28. D
29. A
30. E

Cambridge IELTS 13 Listening Test 3 section 4 answers

31. tongue(s)
32. plants
33. snakes
34. sky
35. partner(s)
36. contact
37. protection
38. tail(s)
39. steps
40. injury/ injuries

Part 1: Questions 1-10

Complete the notes below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS OR A NUMBER.

Title of conference: Future directions in computing
Three day cost: (1) ………………………………… £ 
Payment by (2) …………………………………  or on arrival
Accommodation:
Conference centre
• (3)  …………………………………£  per night
• Near to conference rooms
Guest house
• (4)  …………………………………£  per night
• Approximately (5) …………………………………  walk from conference centre
Further documents to be sent:
• (6)  …………………………………
• An application form
Location:
Conference centre is on (7)   …………………………………Park road next to (8)  …………………………………
Taxi costs (9)  …………………………………£  or take bus number (10)   …………………………………from station.

Part 2: Questions 11-13

Which team will do each of the following jobs?

Choose THREE answers from the box and write the correct letter A-D next to questions 11-13

11. checking entrance tickets 
12. preparing refreshments 
13. directing car park traffic 

Teams

1. the blue team
2. the yellow team
3. the green team
4. the red team

Questions 14-20

Complete the table below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER.

TRAVEL EXPO (TEMPORARY STAFF ORIENTATION PRGORAMME)

Time	Event	Detials
9.30 am	Talk by Anne Smith	– information about pay – will give out the (14)…………..forms
10.00 am	Talk by Peter Chang	– will discuss conference centre plan – will explain about arrangements for (15)……………and fire exits
10.30 am	Coffee break	– go to staff canteen on the (16)……………
11.00 am	Video presentation	– go to (17)…………….. – video title: (18)……………..
12.00	Buffet lunch	– go to the (19)……………….. on 1st floor
1.00 pm	Meet the (20)……………
3.00 pm	Finish

Part 3: Questions 21-25

Complete the summary below.

Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

The school of education libraries

The libraries on both sites provide internet access and have a variety of (21) ……………………….. materials on education. The Castle Road library has books on sociology together with (22) ……………………….. and other resources relevant to the majority of (23) ……………………….. school subjects.

The Fordham library includes resources for teaching in (24) ………………………..  education and special needs. Current issues of periodicals are available at both libraries although (25) ……………………….. issues are only available at Fordham.

Questions 26 and 27
Answer the questions below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS OR A NUMBER.

26. Which books cannot be renewed by telephone or email? 
27. How much time is allowed to return recalled books? 

Questions 28-30

Choose THREE letters, A-G.

Which THREE topics do this term’s study skills workshops cover?

1. An introduction to the Internet
2.  How to carry out research for a dissertation
3.  Making good use of the whole range of library services
4.  Planning a dissertation
5.  Standard requirements when writing a dissertation
6.  Using the Internet when doing research
7.  What books and technical resources are available in the library

Part 4: Questions 31-34

Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

31. When did Asiatic lions develop as a separate sub-species?
    1. about 10,000 years ago
    2. about 100,000 years ago
    3. about 1,000,000 years ago
32. Pictures of Asiatic lions can be seen on ancient coins from
    1. Greece
    2. The Middle East 
    3. India
33. Asiatic lions disappeared from Europe
    1. 2,500 years ago
    2. 2,000 years ago 
    3. 1,900 years ago
34. Very few African lions have
    1. a long mane
    2. a coat with varied colours 
    3. a fold of skin on their stomach

Questions 35-40

Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS OR A NUMBER.

THE GIR SANCTUARY

35. The sanctuary has an area of approximately  square kilometers
36. One threat to the lions in the sanctuary is 
37. The ancestors of the Gir Sanctuary lions were protected by a 
38. A large part of lions’  consists of animals belonging to local farmers
39. The lions sometimes  especially when water is short
40. In ancient India a man would fight a lion as a test of 

Cambridge IELTS 6 Listening Test 4 Section 1 Answers

1. 75
2. check/cheque
3. 15
4. 25
5. 10 minute(s’)/min(s’)
6. conference park
7. south
8. library
9. 5
10. 21 A

Cambridge IELTS 6 Listening Test 4 Section 2 Answers

11. D
12. A
13. C
14. tax
15. security
16. ground floor
17. lecture room 311
18. safety at work
19. main hall
20. team leaders

Cambridge IELTS 6 Listening Test 4 Section 3 Answers

21. reference
22. textbooks
23. secondary
24. primary
25. back
26. overdue books
27. 7 working days
28. C OR E OR F (in any order)
29. C OR E OR F (in any order)
30. C OR E OR F (in any order)

Cambridge IELTS 6 Listening Test 4 Section 4 Answers

31. B
32. A
33. B
34. C
35. 1450
36. disease
37. (wealthy) prince
38. diet
39. attack humans
40. leadership

Section 1: Questions 1-10

Questions 1–7

Complete the notes below.

Write ONE WORD AND/ OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Enquiry about booking hotel room for event

Andrew is the Events Manager

Rooms
Adelphi Room
– number of people who can sit down to eat: (1) ……………………….
– has a gallery suitable for musicians
– can go out and see the (2) ……………………….  in pots on the terrace
– terrace has a view of a group of (3) ……………………….

Carlton Room
– number of people who can sit down to eat: 110
– has a (4) ……………………….
– view of the lake

Options
Master of Ceremonies:
– can give a (5)  ………………………. while people are eating
– will provide (6) ………………………. if there are any problems

Accommodation: in hotel rooms or (7) ……………………….

Questions 8–10

Choose THREE answers from the box and write the correct letter, A, B or C, next to Questions 8-10.

What is said about using each of the following hotel facilities?

Availability

1. included in cost of hiring room
2. available at extra charge
3. not available

Hotel facilities

8. outdoor swimming pool 
9. gym 
10. tennis courts 

Section 2: Questions 11-20

Questions 11-16

Choose SIX answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-H, next to Questions 11-16.

What information does the speaker give about each of the following excursions?

Information

1. all downhill
2. suitable for beginners
3. only in good weather
4. food included
5. no charge
6. swimming possible
7. fully booked today
8. transport not included

Excursions

11. dolphin watching 
12. forest walk 
13. cycle trip 
14. local craft tour 
15. observatory trip 
16. horse riding 

Questions 17 and 18

Choose TWO letters A-E.

Which TWO things does the speaker say about the attraction called Musical Favourites?

1. You pay extra for drinks.
2. You must book it in advance.
3. You get a reduction if you buy two tickets.
4. You can meet the performers.
5. You can take part in the show.

Questions 19 and 20

Choose TWO letters, A-E.

Which TWO things does the speaker say about the Castle Feast?

1. Visitors can dance after the meal.
2. There is a choice of food.
3. Visitors wear historical costume.
4. Knives and forks are not used.
5. The entertainment includes horse races.

Section 3: Questions 21-30

Questions 21 – 25

Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

21. What does Trevor find interesting about the purpose of children’s literature?
    1. the fact that authors may not realise what values they’re teaching
    2. the fact that literature can be entertaining and educational at the same time
    3. the fact that adults expect children to imitate characters in literature
22. Trevor says the module about the purpose of children’s literature made him
    1. analyse some of the stories that his niece reads.
    2. wonder how far popularity reflects good quality.
    3. decide to start writing some children’s stories.
23. Stephanie is interested in the Pictures module because
    1. she intends to become an illustrator.
    2. she can remember beautiful illustrations from her childhood.
    3. she believes illustrations are more important than words.
24. Trevor and Stephanie agree that comics
    1. are inferior to books.
    2. have the potential for being useful.
    3. discourage children from using their imagination.
25. With regard to books aimed at only boys or only girls, Trevor was surprised
    1. how long the distinction had gone unquestioned.
    2. how few books were aimed at both girls and boys.
    3. how many children enjoyed books intended for the opposite sex.

Questions 26 – 30

Choose FIVE answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-G, next to Questions 26-30.

What comment is made about each of these stories?

Comments

1. translated into many other languages
2. hard to read
3. inspired a work in a different area of art
4. more popular than the author’s other works
5. original title refers to another book
6. started a new genre
7. unlikely topic

Stories

26. Perrault’s fairy tales 
27. The Swiss Family Robinson 
28. The Nutcracker and The Mouse King 
29. The Lord of the Rings 
30. War Horse 

Section 4: Questions 31–40

Complete the notes below.

Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

The hunt for sunken settlements and ancient shipwrecks

ATLIT-YAM
• was a village on coast of eastern Mediterranean
• thrived until about 7,000 BC
• stone homes had a courtyard
• had a semicircle of large stones round a (31) ……………………….
• cause of destruction unknown – now under the sea
• biggest settlement from the prehistoric period found on the seabed
• research carried out into structures, (32) ………………………. and human remains

TRADITIONAL AUTONOMOUS UNDERWATER VEHICLES (AUVs)
• used in the oil industry, e.g. to make (33) ……………………….
• problems: they were expensive and (34) ……………………….

LATEST AUVs
• much easier to use, relatively cheap, sophisticated

Tests:
• Marzamemi, Sicily: found ancient Roman ships carrying architectural elements made of
(35) ……………………….

Underwater internet:
• (36) ……………………….  is used for short distance communication, acoustic waves for long distance
• plans for communication with researchers by satellite
• AUV can send data to another AUV that has better (37) ……………………….  , for example

Planned research in Gulf of Baratti:
• to find out more about wrecks of ancient Roman ships, including
– one carrying (38) ………………………. supplies; tablets may have been used for cleaning the (39) ……………………….
– others carrying containers of olive oil or (40) ……………………….

Cambridge IELTS 14 Listening Test 4 Section 1 Answers

1. 85
2. roses
3. trees
4. stage
5. speech
6. support
7. cabins
8. C
9. A
10. B

Cambridge IELTS 14 Listening Test 4 Section 2 Answers

11. G
12. D
13. A
14. E
15. F
16. B
17. B
18. D (in any order)
19. A
20. D (in any order)

Cambridge IELTS 14 Listening Test 4 Section 3 Answers

21. A
22. C
23. A
24. B
25. B
26. F
27. E
28. C
29. B
30. G

Cambridge IELTS 14 Listening Test 4 Section 4 Answers

31. spring
32. tools
33. maps
34. heavy
35. marble
36. light
37. cameras
38. medical
39. eyes
40. wine

Section 1: Questions 1-10

Questions 1-4

Complete the notes below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS OR A NUMBER.

DREAMTIME TRAVEL AGENCY

Holiday name: Whale watch experience
Holiday length: 2 days
Type of transportation: (1) ……………………..
Maximum group size: (2) ……………………..
Next tour date: (3) ……………………..
Hotel name: (4) …………………….. The 

Questions 5 and 6

Choose TWO letters A-E.

Which TWO things are included in the price of the tour?

1. fishing trip
2. guided bushwalk
3. reptile park entry
4. table tennis
5. tennis

Questions 7-10

Complete the sentences below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

7. The tour costs $ 
8. Bookings must be made no later than  days in advance.
9. A  deposit is required.
10. The customer’s reference number is 

Section 2: Questions 11-20

Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS.

Brand of cot	Good points	Problems	Verdict
Baby safe	easy to (11)…………….	– did not have any (12)…………… – babies could trap their (13)………. in the side bar	(14)……………
Choice cots	easy to (15)…………..	– side did not drop down – spaces between the bars were (16)…………….	(17)……………..
Mother’s choice	best of cot could be moved	– did not have any (18)…………… – pictures could be removed easily	(19)…………..

Question 20

Complete the notes below.

Write ONE WORD ONLY for the answer.

• Metal should not be rusted or bent
• Edges of cot should not be (20) ………………………..

Section 3: Questions 21-30

Questions 21-23

Choose the correct letter A, B and C.

21. Andrew has worked at the hospital for
    1. two years
    2. three years
    3. five years
22. During the course Andrew’s employers will pay
    1. his fees 
    2. his living costs
    3. his salary
23. The part-time course lasts for
    1. one whole year
    2. 18 months
    3. two years

Questions 24 and 25

Choose TWO letters A-E.

What TWO types of coursework are required each month on the part-time course?

1. a case study
2. an essay
3. a survey
4. a short report
5. a study diary

Questions 26-30

Complete the summary below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Modular Courses

Students study (26)  ……………………….. during each module. A module takes (27)  ………………………..and the work is very (28)  ……………………….. To get a Diploma each student has to study (29) ………………………..  and then work on (30) ………………………..  in depth.

Part 4: Questions 31-35

Complete the sentences below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

31. According to George Bernard Shaw, men are supposed to understand  economics and finance.
32. However, women are more prepared to  about them.
33. Women tend to save for  and a house.
34. Men tend to save for  and for retirement.
35. Women who are left alone may have to pay for  when they are old.

Questions 36-40

Complete the summary below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Saving for the future

Research indicates that many women only think about their financial future when a (36)   ………………………..occurs. This is the worst time to make decisions. It is best for women to start thinking about pensions when they are in their (37) ………………………..  A good way for women to develop their (38)  ……………………….. in dealing with financial affairs would be to attend classes in (39) ………………………..  When investing in stocks and shares, it is suggested that women should put a high proportion of their savings in (40)  ……………………….. In such ways, women can have a comfortable, independent retirement.

Cambridge IELTS 5 Listening Test 1 section 1 answers

1. by minibus
2. 15
3. april 18
4. palisades
5. B
6. D
7. 280
8. 14
9. 20%
10. 39745T

Cambridge IELTS 5 Listening Test 1 section 2 answers

11. move around
12. brakes
13. fingers
14. satisfactory
15. put together
16. too wide
17. dangerous
18. wheels
19. best buy
20. sharp

Cambridge IELTS 5 Listening Test 1 section 3 answers

21. B
22. A
23. C
24. B
25. D
26. full-time
27. one term
28. intensive
29. two modules
30. one topic

Cambridge IELTS 5 Listening Test 1 section 4 answers

31. politics
32. learn
33. children’s education
34. a car
35. nursing care
36. crisis
37. early twenties
38. confidence
39. money management
40. low-risk investments

Part 1: Questions 1-6

Complete the form below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER.

HOMESTAY APPLICATION

Surname: Yuichini
First name: (1) ………………….
Sex: female
Passport number: (2) ………………….
Present address: Room 21C, Willow College
Length of homestay: approx. (3) ………………….
Couse enrolled in: (4) ………………….
Family preferences: no (5) …………………. and no objection to (6) ………………….

Questions 7-10

Answer the questions below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS.

7. What does the student particularly like to eat? 
8. What sport does the student play? 
9. What mode of transport does the student prefer? 
10. When will the student find out her homestay address? 

Part 2: Questions 11-20

Questions 11-14

Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

11. What kind of tour is Sally leading?
    1. a bus tour
    2. a train tour
    3. a walking tour
12. The original buildings on the site were
    1. houses
    2. industrial buildings
    3. shops
13. The local residents wanted to use the site for
    1. leisure
    2. apartment blocks
    3. a sports centre
14. The Tower is at the centre of the
    1. nature reserve
    2. formal gardens
    3. Bicentennial Park

Questions 13-17

Label the plan below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS.

Questions 18-20

Complete the table below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS.

Area	Facility	Activity
The Mangarove	boardwalk	(18)…………………
Frog Pond	outdoor classroom	(19)…………………
The Waterbird Refuge	(20)…………………	Bird watching

Part 3: Questions 21 – 30

Questions 21 and 22

Complete the sentences below.

Write NO MORE THAN ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

The presentation will last 15 minutes.
There will be (21) …………………………  minutes for questions.
The presentation will not be (22) …………………………

Questions 23-26

What do the students decide about each topic for the geography presentation?

Write the correct letter, A, B or C, next to questions 23-26.

1. They will definitely include this topic.
2. They might include this topic.
3. They will not include this topic.

23. Geographical Location 
24. Economy 
25. Overview of Education System 
26. Role of English Language 

Questions 27-30

Complete the table below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS.

Information/ visual aid	Where from?
Overhead projector	the (27)……………..
Map of West Africa	the (28)……………..
Map of the islands	a tourist brochure
Literacy figures	the (29)……………….
(30)………………..on school places	as above

Part 4: Questions 31-33

Monosodium Glutamate (MSG)

31. The speaker says the main topic of the lecture is
    1. the history of monosodium glutamate
    2. the way monosodium glutamate works 
    3. where monosodium glutamate is used
32. In 1908, scientists in Japan 
    1. made monosodium glutamate
    2. began using kombu
    3. identified glutamate
33. What change occurred in the manufacture of glutamate in 1956?
    1. It began to be manufactured on a large scale
    2. The Japanese began extracting it from natural sources
    3. It became much more expensive to produce

Questions 34-40

Complete the notes below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS.

Monosodium Glutamate (MSG)

• MSG contains
o Glutamate (78.2%)
o Sodium (12.2%)
o (34) ………………………… (9.6%)
• Glutamate is found in foods that contain protein such as (35) …………………………  and (36) …………………………
• MSG is used in foods in many different parts of the world.
• In 1908 Kikunae Ikeda discovered a (37) …………………………
• Our ability to detect glutamate makes sense because it is so (38) …………………………  naturally.
• John Prescott suggests that:
o Sweetness tells us that a food contains carbohydrates.
o (39)  tells us that a food contains toxins.
o Saltiness tells us that a food contains (40) …………………………

Cambridge IELTS 7 Listening Test 4 Section 1 Answers

1. Keiko
2. JO6337
3. 4 months
4. (Advanced) English (Studies)
5. (young) children
6. pets
7. seafood
8. tennis
9. trains/(the) train
10. this/that afternoon

Cambridge IELTS 7 Listening Test 4 Section 2 Answers

11. C
12. B
13. A
14. B
15. car park
16. rose garden
17. cafe
18. cycling
19. biology lesson
20. viewing shelter

Cambridge IELTS 7 Listening Test 4 Section 3 Answers

21. 5
22. assessed
23. A
24. B
25. A
26. C
27. media room
28. resources room
29. embassy
30. statistics/stats

Cambridge IELTS 7 Listening Test 4 Section 4 Answers

31. B
32. C
33. A
34. water
35. meat or cheese (In either order)
36. meat or cheese (In either order)
37. 5th/new taste
38. common
39. bitterness
40. minerals