Category: IELTS Listening Tests

Part 1: Questions 1-10

Complete the notes below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS OR A NUMBER.

Title of conference: Future directions in computing
Three day cost: (1) ………………………………… £ 
Payment by (2) …………………………………  or on arrival
Accommodation:
Conference centre
• (3)  …………………………………£  per night
• Near to conference rooms
Guest house
• (4)  …………………………………£  per night
• Approximately (5) …………………………………  walk from conference centre
Further documents to be sent:
• (6)  …………………………………
• An application form
Location:
Conference centre is on (7)   …………………………………Park road next to (8)  …………………………………
Taxi costs (9)  …………………………………£  or take bus number (10)   …………………………………from station.

Part 2: Questions 11-13

Which team will do each of the following jobs?

Choose THREE answers from the box and write the correct letter A-D next to questions 11-13

11. checking entrance tickets 
12. preparing refreshments 
13. directing car park traffic 

Teams

1. the blue team
2. the yellow team
3. the green team
4. the red team

Questions 14-20

Complete the table below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER.

TRAVEL EXPO (TEMPORARY STAFF ORIENTATION PRGORAMME)

Time	Event	Detials
9.30 am	Talk by Anne Smith	– information about pay – will give out the (14)…………..forms
10.00 am	Talk by Peter Chang	– will discuss conference centre plan – will explain about arrangements for (15)……………and fire exits
10.30 am	Coffee break	– go to staff canteen on the (16)……………
11.00 am	Video presentation	– go to (17)…………….. – video title: (18)……………..
12.00	Buffet lunch	– go to the (19)……………….. on 1st floor
1.00 pm	Meet the (20)……………
3.00 pm	Finish

Part 3: Questions 21-25

Complete the summary below.

Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

The school of education libraries

The libraries on both sites provide internet access and have a variety of (21) ……………………….. materials on education. The Castle Road library has books on sociology together with (22) ……………………….. and other resources relevant to the majority of (23) ……………………….. school subjects.

The Fordham library includes resources for teaching in (24) ………………………..  education and special needs. Current issues of periodicals are available at both libraries although (25) ……………………….. issues are only available at Fordham.

Questions 26 and 27
Answer the questions below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS OR A NUMBER.

26. Which books cannot be renewed by telephone or email? 
27. How much time is allowed to return recalled books? 

Questions 28-30

Choose THREE letters, A-G.

Which THREE topics do this term’s study skills workshops cover?

1. An introduction to the Internet
2.  How to carry out research for a dissertation
3.  Making good use of the whole range of library services
4.  Planning a dissertation
5.  Standard requirements when writing a dissertation
6.  Using the Internet when doing research
7.  What books and technical resources are available in the library

Part 4: Questions 31-34

Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

31. When did Asiatic lions develop as a separate sub-species?
    1. about 10,000 years ago
    2. about 100,000 years ago
    3. about 1,000,000 years ago
32. Pictures of Asiatic lions can be seen on ancient coins from
    1. Greece
    2. The Middle East 
    3. India
33. Asiatic lions disappeared from Europe
    1. 2,500 years ago
    2. 2,000 years ago 
    3. 1,900 years ago
34. Very few African lions have
    1. a long mane
    2. a coat with varied colours 
    3. a fold of skin on their stomach

Questions 35-40

Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS OR A NUMBER.

THE GIR SANCTUARY

35. The sanctuary has an area of approximately  square kilometers
36. One threat to the lions in the sanctuary is 
37. The ancestors of the Gir Sanctuary lions were protected by a 
38. A large part of lions’  consists of animals belonging to local farmers
39. The lions sometimes  especially when water is short
40. In ancient India a man would fight a lion as a test of 

Cambridge IELTS 6 Listening Test 4 Section 1 Answers

1. 75
2. check/cheque
3. 15
4. 25
5. 10 minute(s’)/min(s’)
6. conference park
7. south
8. library
9. 5
10. 21 A

Cambridge IELTS 6 Listening Test 4 Section 2 Answers

11. D
12. A
13. C
14. tax
15. security
16. ground floor
17. lecture room 311
18. safety at work
19. main hall
20. team leaders

Cambridge IELTS 6 Listening Test 4 Section 3 Answers

21. reference
22. textbooks
23. secondary
24. primary
25. back
26. overdue books
27. 7 working days
28. C OR E OR F (in any order)
29. C OR E OR F (in any order)
30. C OR E OR F (in any order)

Cambridge IELTS 6 Listening Test 4 Section 4 Answers

31. B
32. A
33. B
34. C
35. 1450
36. disease
37. (wealthy) prince
38. diet
39. attack humans
40. leadership

Section 1: Questions 1-10

Questions 1–7

Complete the notes below.

Write ONE WORD AND/ OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Enquiry about booking hotel room for event

Andrew is the Events Manager

Rooms
Adelphi Room
– number of people who can sit down to eat: (1) ……………………….
– has a gallery suitable for musicians
– can go out and see the (2) ……………………….  in pots on the terrace
– terrace has a view of a group of (3) ……………………….

Carlton Room
– number of people who can sit down to eat: 110
– has a (4) ……………………….
– view of the lake

Options
Master of Ceremonies:
– can give a (5)  ………………………. while people are eating
– will provide (6) ………………………. if there are any problems

Accommodation: in hotel rooms or (7) ……………………….

Questions 8–10

Choose THREE answers from the box and write the correct letter, A, B or C, next to Questions 8-10.

What is said about using each of the following hotel facilities?

Availability

1. included in cost of hiring room
2. available at extra charge
3. not available

Hotel facilities

8. outdoor swimming pool 
9. gym 
10. tennis courts 

Section 2: Questions 11-20

Questions 11-16

Choose SIX answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-H, next to Questions 11-16.

What information does the speaker give about each of the following excursions?

Information

1. all downhill
2. suitable for beginners
3. only in good weather
4. food included
5. no charge
6. swimming possible
7. fully booked today
8. transport not included

Excursions

11. dolphin watching 
12. forest walk 
13. cycle trip 
14. local craft tour 
15. observatory trip 
16. horse riding 

Questions 17 and 18

Choose TWO letters A-E.

Which TWO things does the speaker say about the attraction called Musical Favourites?

1. You pay extra for drinks.
2. You must book it in advance.
3. You get a reduction if you buy two tickets.
4. You can meet the performers.
5. You can take part in the show.

Questions 19 and 20

Choose TWO letters, A-E.

Which TWO things does the speaker say about the Castle Feast?

1. Visitors can dance after the meal.
2. There is a choice of food.
3. Visitors wear historical costume.
4. Knives and forks are not used.
5. The entertainment includes horse races.

Section 3: Questions 21-30

Questions 21 – 25

Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

21. What does Trevor find interesting about the purpose of children’s literature?
    1. the fact that authors may not realise what values they’re teaching
    2. the fact that literature can be entertaining and educational at the same time
    3. the fact that adults expect children to imitate characters in literature
22. Trevor says the module about the purpose of children’s literature made him
    1. analyse some of the stories that his niece reads.
    2. wonder how far popularity reflects good quality.
    3. decide to start writing some children’s stories.
23. Stephanie is interested in the Pictures module because
    1. she intends to become an illustrator.
    2. she can remember beautiful illustrations from her childhood.
    3. she believes illustrations are more important than words.
24. Trevor and Stephanie agree that comics
    1. are inferior to books.
    2. have the potential for being useful.
    3. discourage children from using their imagination.
25. With regard to books aimed at only boys or only girls, Trevor was surprised
    1. how long the distinction had gone unquestioned.
    2. how few books were aimed at both girls and boys.
    3. how many children enjoyed books intended for the opposite sex.

Questions 26 – 30

Choose FIVE answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-G, next to Questions 26-30.

What comment is made about each of these stories?

Comments

1. translated into many other languages
2. hard to read
3. inspired a work in a different area of art
4. more popular than the author’s other works
5. original title refers to another book
6. started a new genre
7. unlikely topic

Stories

26. Perrault’s fairy tales 
27. The Swiss Family Robinson 
28. The Nutcracker and The Mouse King 
29. The Lord of the Rings 
30. War Horse 

Section 4: Questions 31–40

Complete the notes below.

Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

The hunt for sunken settlements and ancient shipwrecks

ATLIT-YAM
• was a village on coast of eastern Mediterranean
• thrived until about 7,000 BC
• stone homes had a courtyard
• had a semicircle of large stones round a (31) ……………………….
• cause of destruction unknown – now under the sea
• biggest settlement from the prehistoric period found on the seabed
• research carried out into structures, (32) ………………………. and human remains

TRADITIONAL AUTONOMOUS UNDERWATER VEHICLES (AUVs)
• used in the oil industry, e.g. to make (33) ……………………….
• problems: they were expensive and (34) ……………………….

LATEST AUVs
• much easier to use, relatively cheap, sophisticated

Tests:
• Marzamemi, Sicily: found ancient Roman ships carrying architectural elements made of
(35) ……………………….

Underwater internet:
• (36) ……………………….  is used for short distance communication, acoustic waves for long distance
• plans for communication with researchers by satellite
• AUV can send data to another AUV that has better (37) ……………………….  , for example

Planned research in Gulf of Baratti:
• to find out more about wrecks of ancient Roman ships, including
– one carrying (38) ………………………. supplies; tablets may have been used for cleaning the (39) ……………………….
– others carrying containers of olive oil or (40) ……………………….

Cambridge IELTS 14 Listening Test 4 Section 1 Answers

1. 85
2. roses
3. trees
4. stage
5. speech
6. support
7. cabins
8. C
9. A
10. B

Cambridge IELTS 14 Listening Test 4 Section 2 Answers

11. G
12. D
13. A
14. E
15. F
16. B
17. B
18. D (in any order)
19. A
20. D (in any order)

Cambridge IELTS 14 Listening Test 4 Section 3 Answers

21. A
22. C
23. A
24. B
25. B
26. F
27. E
28. C
29. B
30. G

Cambridge IELTS 14 Listening Test 4 Section 4 Answers

31. spring
32. tools
33. maps
34. heavy
35. marble
36. light
37. cameras
38. medical
39. eyes
40. wine

Section 1: Questions 1-10

Questions 1-4

Complete the notes below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS OR A NUMBER.

DREAMTIME TRAVEL AGENCY

Holiday name: Whale watch experience
Holiday length: 2 days
Type of transportation: (1) ……………………..
Maximum group size: (2) ……………………..
Next tour date: (3) ……………………..
Hotel name: (4) …………………….. The 

Questions 5 and 6

Choose TWO letters A-E.

Which TWO things are included in the price of the tour?

1. fishing trip
2. guided bushwalk
3. reptile park entry
4. table tennis
5. tennis

Questions 7-10

Complete the sentences below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

7. The tour costs $ 
8. Bookings must be made no later than  days in advance.
9. A  deposit is required.
10. The customer’s reference number is 

Section 2: Questions 11-20

Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS.

Brand of cot	Good points	Problems	Verdict
Baby safe	easy to (11)…………….	– did not have any (12)…………… – babies could trap their (13)………. in the side bar	(14)……………
Choice cots	easy to (15)…………..	– side did not drop down – spaces between the bars were (16)…………….	(17)……………..
Mother’s choice	best of cot could be moved	– did not have any (18)…………… – pictures could be removed easily	(19)…………..

Question 20

Complete the notes below.

Write ONE WORD ONLY for the answer.

• Metal should not be rusted or bent
• Edges of cot should not be (20) ………………………..

Section 3: Questions 21-30

Questions 21-23

Choose the correct letter A, B and C.

21. Andrew has worked at the hospital for
    1. two years
    2. three years
    3. five years
22. During the course Andrew’s employers will pay
    1. his fees 
    2. his living costs
    3. his salary
23. The part-time course lasts for
    1. one whole year
    2. 18 months
    3. two years

Questions 24 and 25

Choose TWO letters A-E.

What TWO types of coursework are required each month on the part-time course?

1. a case study
2. an essay
3. a survey
4. a short report
5. a study diary

Questions 26-30

Complete the summary below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Modular Courses

Students study (26)  ……………………….. during each module. A module takes (27)  ………………………..and the work is very (28)  ……………………….. To get a Diploma each student has to study (29) ………………………..  and then work on (30) ………………………..  in depth.

Part 4: Questions 31-35

Complete the sentences below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

31. According to George Bernard Shaw, men are supposed to understand  economics and finance.
32. However, women are more prepared to  about them.
33. Women tend to save for  and a house.
34. Men tend to save for  and for retirement.
35. Women who are left alone may have to pay for  when they are old.

Questions 36-40

Complete the summary below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Saving for the future

Research indicates that many women only think about their financial future when a (36)   ………………………..occurs. This is the worst time to make decisions. It is best for women to start thinking about pensions when they are in their (37) ………………………..  A good way for women to develop their (38)  ……………………….. in dealing with financial affairs would be to attend classes in (39) ………………………..  When investing in stocks and shares, it is suggested that women should put a high proportion of their savings in (40)  ……………………….. In such ways, women can have a comfortable, independent retirement.

Cambridge IELTS 5 Listening Test 1 section 1 answers

1. by minibus
2. 15
3. april 18
4. palisades
5. B
6. D
7. 280
8. 14
9. 20%
10. 39745T

Cambridge IELTS 5 Listening Test 1 section 2 answers

11. move around
12. brakes
13. fingers
14. satisfactory
15. put together
16. too wide
17. dangerous
18. wheels
19. best buy
20. sharp

Cambridge IELTS 5 Listening Test 1 section 3 answers

21. B
22. A
23. C
24. B
25. D
26. full-time
27. one term
28. intensive
29. two modules
30. one topic

Cambridge IELTS 5 Listening Test 1 section 4 answers

31. politics
32. learn
33. children’s education
34. a car
35. nursing care
36. crisis
37. early twenties
38. confidence
39. money management
40. low-risk investments

Part 1: Questions 1-6

Complete the form below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER.

HOMESTAY APPLICATION

Surname: Yuichini
First name: (1) ………………….
Sex: female
Passport number: (2) ………………….
Present address: Room 21C, Willow College
Length of homestay: approx. (3) ………………….
Couse enrolled in: (4) ………………….
Family preferences: no (5) …………………. and no objection to (6) ………………….

Questions 7-10

Answer the questions below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS.

7. What does the student particularly like to eat? 
8. What sport does the student play? 
9. What mode of transport does the student prefer? 
10. When will the student find out her homestay address? 

Part 2: Questions 11-20

Questions 11-14

Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

11. What kind of tour is Sally leading?
    1. a bus tour
    2. a train tour
    3. a walking tour
12. The original buildings on the site were
    1. houses
    2. industrial buildings
    3. shops
13. The local residents wanted to use the site for
    1. leisure
    2. apartment blocks
    3. a sports centre
14. The Tower is at the centre of the
    1. nature reserve
    2. formal gardens
    3. Bicentennial Park

Questions 13-17

Label the plan below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS.

Questions 18-20

Complete the table below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS.

Area	Facility	Activity
The Mangarove	boardwalk	(18)…………………
Frog Pond	outdoor classroom	(19)…………………
The Waterbird Refuge	(20)…………………	Bird watching

Part 3: Questions 21 – 30

Questions 21 and 22

Complete the sentences below.

Write NO MORE THAN ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

The presentation will last 15 minutes.
There will be (21) …………………………  minutes for questions.
The presentation will not be (22) …………………………

Questions 23-26

What do the students decide about each topic for the geography presentation?

Write the correct letter, A, B or C, next to questions 23-26.

1. They will definitely include this topic.
2. They might include this topic.
3. They will not include this topic.

23. Geographical Location 
24. Economy 
25. Overview of Education System 
26. Role of English Language 

Questions 27-30

Complete the table below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS.

Information/ visual aid	Where from?
Overhead projector	the (27)……………..
Map of West Africa	the (28)……………..
Map of the islands	a tourist brochure
Literacy figures	the (29)……………….
(30)………………..on school places	as above

Part 4: Questions 31-33

Monosodium Glutamate (MSG)

31. The speaker says the main topic of the lecture is
    1. the history of monosodium glutamate
    2. the way monosodium glutamate works 
    3. where monosodium glutamate is used
32. In 1908, scientists in Japan 
    1. made monosodium glutamate
    2. began using kombu
    3. identified glutamate
33. What change occurred in the manufacture of glutamate in 1956?
    1. It began to be manufactured on a large scale
    2. The Japanese began extracting it from natural sources
    3. It became much more expensive to produce

Questions 34-40

Complete the notes below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS.

Monosodium Glutamate (MSG)

• MSG contains
o Glutamate (78.2%)
o Sodium (12.2%)
o (34) ………………………… (9.6%)
• Glutamate is found in foods that contain protein such as (35) …………………………  and (36) …………………………
• MSG is used in foods in many different parts of the world.
• In 1908 Kikunae Ikeda discovered a (37) …………………………
• Our ability to detect glutamate makes sense because it is so (38) …………………………  naturally.
• John Prescott suggests that:
o Sweetness tells us that a food contains carbohydrates.
o (39)  tells us that a food contains toxins.
o Saltiness tells us that a food contains (40) …………………………

Cambridge IELTS 7 Listening Test 4 Section 1 Answers

1. Keiko
2. JO6337
3. 4 months
4. (Advanced) English (Studies)
5. (young) children
6. pets
7. seafood
8. tennis
9. trains/(the) train
10. this/that afternoon

Cambridge IELTS 7 Listening Test 4 Section 2 Answers

11. C
12. B
13. A
14. B
15. car park
16. rose garden
17. cafe
18. cycling
19. biology lesson
20. viewing shelter

Cambridge IELTS 7 Listening Test 4 Section 3 Answers

21. 5
22. assessed
23. A
24. B
25. A
26. C
27. media room
28. resources room
29. embassy
30. statistics/stats

Cambridge IELTS 7 Listening Test 4 Section 4 Answers

31. B
32. C
33. A
34. water
35. meat or cheese (In either order)
36. meat or cheese (In either order)
37. 5th/new taste
38. common
39. bitterness
40. minerals

Part 1: Questions 1-10

Complete the notes below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS.

Transport from Airport to Milton

Distance: 147 miles
Options:
• Car hire – don’t want to drive
• (1) ……………………….. – expensive
• Greyhound Bus
o $15 single, $27.50 return
o Direct to the (2) ………………………..
o Long (3) ………………………..
• Airport Shuttle
o (4) ………………………..  service
o Every 2 hours
o $35 single, $65 return
o Need to (5) ………………………..

Questions 6-10

Complete the booking form below.

Write ONE WORD OR A NUMBER.

AIRPORT SHUTTLE BOOKING FORM

To: Milton
Date: (6)……………..	No. of passengers: 1
Bus time: (7)……………pm	Type of ticket: single
Name: Jane (8)………………
Flight No: (9)………………..	From: London Heathrow
Address in Milton: Vacation Motel, 24 Kitchener Street
Fare: $ 35
Credit card number: (Visa) (10)…………………..

Part 2: Questions 11-20

Questions 11-16

Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

11. PS Camping has been organising holidays for
    1. 15 years
    2. 20 years
    3. 25 years
12. The company has most camping sites in
    1. France
    2. Italy
    3. Switzerland
13. Which organised activity can children do every day of the week?
    1. football
    2. drama
    3. model making
14. Some areas of the sites have a ‘no noise’ rule after
    1. 9.30 p.m
    2. 10.00 p.m
    3. 10.30 p.m
15. The holiday insurance that is offered by PS Camping
    1. can be charged on an annual basis
    2. is included in the price of the holiday 
    3. must be taken out at the time of booking
16. Customers who recommend PS Camping to friends will receive
    1. a free gift
    2. an upgrade to a luxury tent
    3. a discount

Questions 17-20

Write the correct letter A, B or C next to questions 17-20

What does the speaker say about the following items?

17. barbeques 
18. toys 
19. cool boxes 
20. mops and buckets 

1. They are provided in all tents.
2. They are found in central areas of the campsite.
3. They are available on requests.

Part 3: Questions 21-30

Questions 21-23

Complete the notes below.

Write ONE WORD ONLY.

DIFFERENCES BETWEEN INDIVIDUALS IN THE WORKPLACE

Individuals bring different:
• Ideas
• (21) ………………………..
• Learning experiences
Work behavior differences are due to:
• Personality
• (22) ………………………..
Effects of diversity on companies:
• Advantage: diversity develops (23) ………………………..
• Disadvantages: diversity can cause conflict

Questions 24-27

Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

24. Janice thinks that employers should encourage workers who are
    1. potential leaders
    2. open to new ideas
    3. good at teamwork
25. Janice suggests that managers may find it difficult to
    1. form successful groups
    2. balance conflicting needs
    3. deal with uncooperative workers
26. Janice believes employers should look for job applicants who
    1. can think independently
    2. will obey the system
    3. can solve problems
27. Janice believes managers should
    1. demonstrate good behavior
    2. encourage co-operation early on
    3. increase financial incentives

Questions 28-30

Complete the sentences below.

Write ONE WORD ONLY.

28. All managers need to understand their employees and recognise their company’s 
29. When managing change, increasing the company’s  may be more important than employee satisfaction.
30. During periods of change, managers may have to cope with increased amounts of 

Part 4: Questions 31-40

Questions 31-35

Complete the notes below.

Write ONE WORD ONLY.

SEMINAR ON ROCK ART

Preparation for fieldwork trip to Namibia in (31) 
Rock art in Namibia may be
• Paintings
• Engravings
Earliest explanation of engravings of animal footprints
They were used to help (32) ……………………….. learn about tracking.

But:
• Why are the tracks usually (33)  ………………………..?
• Why are some engravings realistic and other realistic?
• Why are the unrealistic animals sometimes half (34) ……………………….. ?
More recent explanation
Wise men may have been trying to control wild animals with (35) ………………………..

Questions 36-40

Complete the sentences below.

Write ONE WORD ONLY.

36. If you look at a site from a  , you reduce visitor pressure.
37. To camp on a site may be disrespectful to people from that 
38. Undiscovered material may be damaged by 
39. You should avoid  or tracing rock art as it is so fragile.
40. In general, your aim is to leave the site 

Cambridge IELTS 7 Listening Test 1 Section 1 Answers

1. (a) taxi/cab
2. city centre/center
3. wait
4. door-to-door
5. reserve (a seat)
6. (the) 17th (of) October
7. 12.30
8. Thomson
9. AC936
10. 3303 8450 2045 6837

Cambridge IELTS 7 Listening Test 1 Section 2 Answers

11. B
12. A
13. B
14. C
15. C
16. A
17. C
18. A
19. C
20. B

Cambridge IELTS 7 Listening Test 1 Section 3 Answers

21. attitude(s)
22. gender/sex
23. creativity/creativeness
24. A
25. B
26. A
27. B
28. culture
29. profit(s)
30. stress/strain

Cambridge IELTS 7 Listening Test 1 Section 4 Answers

31. April
32. children
33. repeated
34. human
35. magic
36. distance
37. culture
38. fire(s)
39. touching
40. intact

Section 1: Questions 1-10

Complete the notes below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer.

GOODBYE PARTY FOR JOHN

Venue: (1) …………………………..
Invitations (Tony)
Who to invite: John and his wife
Director
The (2) …………………………..
All the teachers
All the (3) …………………………..
Date for sending invitations: (4) …………………………..
Present (Lisa)
Collect money during the: (5) …………………………..
Suggested amount per person: (6) …………………………..
Check prices for: CD Players
(7) …………………………..
Coffee maker
Ask guests to bring: snacks
(8) …………………………..
(9) …………………………..
Ask student representative to prepare a: (10) …………………………..

Section 2:  Questions 11-20

Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

11. To find out how much holidays cost, you should press button 
    1. one 
    2. two
    3. three
12. Travelite currently offer walking holidays
    1. only in Western Europe
    2. all over Europe
    3. outside Europe
13. The walks offered by Travelite
    1. cater for a range of walking abilities
    2. are planned by guides from the local area
    3. are for people with good fitness levels
14. On Travelite holidays, people holidaying alone pay
    1. the same as other clients
    2. only a little more than other clients
    3. extra only if they stay in a large room
15. Entertainment is provided
    1. when guests request it 
    2. most nights
    3. every night

Questions 16-20

Complete the table below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER.

Length of holiday	Cost per person	Special offers included in price
3 days	(16) $…………………………..	pick up from the (17)…………………………..
7 days	$ 350	– book of (18)………………………….. – maps
14 days	(19) $…………………………..	as above plus membership of a (20)…………………………..

Section 3 : Questions 21-30

Complete the table below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER.

Experiment number	Equipment	Purpose
Experiment 1	(21)…………………………..and a table	to show how things move on a cushion of air
Experiment 2	lots of paperclips	to show why we need standard (22)…………………………..
Experiment 3	(23)…………………………..and a jar of water	to show how (24)…………………………..grow
Experiment 4	cardboard, colored pens and a (25)…………………………..	to teach children about how (26)…………………………..is made up
Experiment 5	a drill, an old record, a pin, paper, a bolt	to make a record player in order to learn about recording sound

Questions 27-30

Choose your answers from the box and write the letters A-H next to questions 27-30

What problems do the speakers identify for each experiment?

Experiment 1: (27) ………………………..
Experiment 2: (28) ………………………..
Experiment 3: (29) ………………………..
Experiment 4: (Example) F
Experiment 5: (30) ………………………..

Problems

1. too messy
2. too boring
3. too difficult
4. too much equipment
5. too long
6. too easy
7. too noisy
8. too dangerous

Section 4 : Questions 31-40

Complete the notes below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER.

SHARKS IN AUSTRALIA

Length largest caught: 16 mts
Weight heaviest: (31)  ……………………….. kgs
Skeleton cartilages
Skin texture rough barbs
Swimming aide fins and (32) …………………………..
Food gathered from the ocean (33) …………………………..
Sharks locate food by using their (34) …………………………..

Questions 35-38

35. Shark meshing uses nets laid
    1. along the coastline
    2. at an angle to the beach
    3. from the beach to the sea
36. Other places that have taken up shark meshing include
    1. South Africa
    2. New Zealand 
    3. Tahiti
37. The average number of sharks caught in nets each year is 
    1. 15
    2. 150
    3. 1,500
38. Most sharks are caught in
    1. spring 
    2. summer 
    3. winter

Questions 39 and 40

Which TWO factors reduce the benefits of shark nets?

1. nets wrongly positioned
2. strong waves and currents
3. too many fish
4. sharks cat holes in nets 
5. moving sands
6. nets too short
7. holes in nets scare sharks

Section 1 Answers

1. shopping / variety of shopping
2. guided tours
3. more than 12/ over 12
4. notice board
5. 13th February
6. Tower of London
7. Bristol
8. American Museum
9. student newspaper
10. Yentob

Section 2 Answers

11. coal & firewood (IN EITHER ORDER, BOTH REQUIREDFOR ONE MARK)
12. coal & firewood (IN EITHER ORDER, BOTH REQUIREDFOR ONE MARK)
13. local craftsmen
14. Woodside
15. Ticket Office
16. Gift Shop
17. (main) Workshop
18. Showroom
19. Café
20. cottages

Section 3 Answers

21. A
22. C
23. E
24. B
25. C
26. FC
27. D
28. A
29. B
30. G

Section 4 Answers

31. cities/environment
32. windy
33. humid
34. shady/shaded
35. dangerous
36. leaves
37. ground
38. considerably reduce / decrease/filter
39. low
40. space / room

Section 1: Questions 1-10

Questions 1-5

Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

1. What does Peter want to drink?
   1. tea
   2. coffee
   3. a cold drink
2. What caused Peter problems at the bank?
   1. The exchange rate was down
   2. He was late
   3. The computers weren’t working
3. Who did Peter talk to at the bank?
   1. an old friend
   2. an American man
   3. a German man
4. Henry gave Peter a map of
   1. the city
   2. the bus routes
   3. the train system
5. What do Peter and Sally decide to order? 
   1. food and drinks 
   2. just food
   3. just drinks

Questions 6-8

Complete the notes below using words from the options given below.

Art gallery
Cathedral
Castle
Gardens
Markets

Tourist attractions open all day: (6) ………………………….. and Gardens
Tourist attractions NOT open on Mondays: (7) ………………………….. and Castle
Tourist attractions which have free entry: (8) ………………………….. and Markets

Questions 9 and 10

Complete the sentences below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

9. The first place Peter and Sally will visit is the …………………………..
10. At the Cathedral, Peter really wants to …………………………..

Part 2: Questions 11-20

Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

11. The Counselling Service may contact tutors if
    1. they are too slow in marking assignments
    2. they give students a lot of work
    3. they don’t inform students about their progress
12. Stress may be caused by
    1. new teachers
    2. time pressure
    3. unfamiliar subject matter
13. International students may find stress difficult to handle because
    1. they lack support from family and friends
    2. they don’t have time to make new friends
    3. they find it difficult to socialise
14. A personal crisis may be caused by
    1. studying for too long overseas 
    2. business problems in the student’s own country
    3. disruptions to personal relationships
15. Students may lose self-esteem if
    1. they have to change courses
    2. they don’t complete a course
    3. their family puts too much pressure on them
16. Students should consult Glenda Roberts if
    1. their general health is poor
    2. their diet is too strict
    3. they can’t eat the local food
17. Students in financial difficulties can receive
    1. assistance to buy books
    2. a loan to pay their course fees
    3. a no-interest loan to cover study expenses
18. Loans are also available to students who
    1. can’t pay their rent
    2. need to buy furniture
    3. can’t cover their living expenses
19. The number of students counselled by the service last year was
    1. 214
    2. 240
    3. 2,600
20. The speaker thinks the Counselling Service
    1. has been effective in spite of staff shortages
    2. in under used by students
    3. has suffered badly because of staff cuts

Part 3: Questions 21-24

Complete the notes below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer.

DETAILS OF ASSIGNMENT

Part 1 Essay: Title ‘Assess the two methods of (21) ………………………….. in social science research
Number of words: (22) …………………………..
Part 2 Small scale study: Choose one method
Gather data from at least (23)………………………….. subjects
Part 3 Report on study: Number of words: (24) …………………………..

Questions 25 and 26

Choose TWO letters A-E.

What TWO disadvantages of the questionnaire form of data collection do the students discuss?

1. The data is sometimes invalid
2.  Too few people may respond
3.  It is less likely to reveal the unexpected
4.  It can only be used with literate populations
5.  There is a delay between the distribution and return of questionnaires

Questions 27-30

Complete the table below.

Write NO MORE THREE TWO WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Author	Title	Publisher	Year of publication
(27)…………………………..	sample surveys in social science research
Bell	(28)…………………………..	(29)…………………………..
Wilson	interviews that work	Oxford University Press	(30)…………………………..

Part 4: Questions 31 and 32

Choose the correct letter A, B and C.

31. Corporate crime is generally committed
    1. against individuals
    2. by groups
    3. for companies
32. Corporate crime does NOT include 
    1. employees stealing from their company 
    2. unintentional crime by employees
    3. fraud resulting from company policy

Questions 33-38

Complete the notes below.

Write NO MORE THREE TWO WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Corporate crime has been ignored by:
• The (33) ………………………….. e.g. films
• (34) …………………………..
Reasons:
• Often more complex and needing (35) …………………………..
• Less human interest than conventional crime
• Victims often (36) …………………………..
Effects:
• Economic costs
o May appear unimportant to (37) …………………………..
o Can make large (38) ………………………….. for company

Questions 39 and 40

Choose TWO letters A-F.

The oil tanker explosion was an example of a crime which

1. was no-one’s fault
2. was not a corporate crime
3. was intentional
4. was caused by indifference
5. has tragic results
6. made a large profit for the company

Cambridge IELTS 4 Listening Test 2 section 1 answers

1. C
2. C
3. B
4. B
5. A
6. cathedral
7. markets
8. garden
9. art gallery
10. climb the tower

Cambridge IELTS 4 Listening Test 2 section 2 answers

11. C
12. B
13. A
14. C
15. B
16. C
17. A
18. B
19. B
20. A

Cambridge IELTS 4 Listening Test 2 section 3 answers

21. collecting data
22. 1500
23. 5
24. 3000-4000
25. B
26. C
27. Mehta
28. survey research
29. London University
30. 1988

Cambridge IELTS 4 Listening Test 2 section 4 answers

31. C
32. A
33. mass media
34. academic circles
35. specialist knowledge
36. unaware
37. individual customers
38. illegal profits
39. D
40. E

Section 1: Questions 1-10

Complete the form below.

Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

CRIME REPORT FORM

Type of crime: theft

Personal information

Example: Name – Louise Taylor

Nationality:                    (1) ……………………….
Date of birth:                  14 December 1977
Occupation:                   interior designer
Reason for visit:            business (to buy antique (2)  ……………………….)
Length of stay:               two months
Current address:           (3) ………………………. Apartments (No 15)

Details of theft
Items stolen:                 – a wallet containing approximately (4) ……………………….£ 
– a (5) 
Date of theft: (6) ……………………….

Possible time and place of theft
Location:     outside the (7) ……………………….  at about 4 pm
Details of suspect:  – some boys asked for the (8) ………………………. then ran off
– one had a T-shirt with a picture of a tiger
– he was about 12, slim build with (9) ………………………. hair

Crime reference number allocated – (10) ……………………….

Section 2: Questions 11 – 20

Questions 11 and 12

Choose TWO letters, A-E.

Induction talk for new apprentices

Which TWO pieces of advice for the first week of an apprenticeship does the manager give?

1. get to know colleagues
2. learn from any mistakes
3. ask lots of questions
4. react positively to feedback
5. enjoy new challenges

Questions 13 and 14

Choose TWO letters, A-E.

Which TWO things does the manager say mentors can help with?

1. confidence-building
2. making career plans
3. completing difficult tasks
4. making a weekly timetable
5. reviewing progress

Questions 15 – 20

Write the correct letter, A, B or C, next to Questions 15-20.

What does the manager say about each of the following aspects of the company policy for apprentices?

1. It is encouraged.
2. There are some restrictions.
3. It is against the rules.

Company policy for apprentices

15. Using the internet 
16. Flexible working 
17. Booking holidays 
18. Working overtime 
19. Wearing trainers 
20. Bringing food to work 

Section 3: Questions 21-30

Questions 21 – 25

Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

Cities built by the sea

21. Carla and Rob were surprised to learn that coastal cities
    1. contain nearly half the world’s population.
    2. include most of the world’s largest cities.
    3. are growing twice as fast as other cities.
22. According to Rob, building coastal cities near to rivers
    1. may bring pollution to the cities.
    2. may reduce the land available for agriculture.
    3. may mean the countryside is spoiled by industry.
23. What mistake was made when building water drainage channels in Miami in the 1950s?
    1. There were not enough of them.
    2. They were made of unsuitable materials.
    3. They did not allow for the effects of climate change.
24. What do Rob and Carla think that the authorities in Miami should do immediately?
    1. take measures to restore ecosystems
    2. pay for a new flood prevention system
    3. stop disposing of waste materials into the ocean
25. What do they agree should be the priority for international action?
    1. greater coordination of activities
    2. more sharing of information
    3. agreement on shared policies

Questions 26 – 30

What decision do the students make about each of the following parts of their presentation?

Choose FIVE answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-G, next to Questions 26-30.

Decisions

1. use visuals
2. keep it short
3. involve other students
4. check the information is accurate
5. provide a handout
6. focus on one example
7. do online research

Parts of the presentation

26. Historical background 
27. Geographical factors 
28. Past mistakes 
29. Future risks 
30. International implications 

Section 4: Questions 31 – 40

Complete the notes below.

Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

Marine renewable energy (ocean energy)

Introduction
More energy required because of growth in population and (31) ……………………….
What’s needed:
• renewable energy sources
• methods that won’t create pollution

Wave energy
Advantage: waves provide a (32)  ………………………. source of renewable energy
Electricity can be generated using offshore or onshore systems
Onshore systems may use a reservoir

Problems:
• waves can move in any (33) ……………………….
• movement of sand, etc. on the (34) ………………………. of the ocean may be affected

Tidal energy
Tides are more (35) ………………………. than waves
Planned tidal lagoon in Wales:
• will be created in a (36)  ………………………. at Swansea
• breakwater (dam) containing 16 turbines
• rising tide forces water through turbines, generating electricity
• stored water is released through (37) ………………………. , driving the turbines in the reverse direction

Advantages:
• not dependent on weather
• no (38) ………………………. is required to make it work
• likely to create a number of (39) ……………………….

Problem:
• may harm fish and birds, e.g. by affecting (40) ………………………. and building up silt

Ocean thermal energy conversion
Uses a difference in temperature between the surface and lower levels Water brought to the surface in a pipe.

Cambridge IELTS 14 Listening Test 1 Section 1 Answers

1. Canadian
2. furniture
3. park
4. 250
5. phone
6. 10(th) September
7. museum
8. time
9. blond(e)
10. 87954 82361

Cambridge IELTS 14 Listening Test 1 Section 2 Answers

11. A, C (IN EITHER ORDER)
12. A, C (IN EITHER ORDER)
13. B, E (IN EITHER ORDER)
14. B, E (IN EITHER ORDER)
15. B
16. B
17. C
18. A
19. A
20. C

Cambridge IELTS 14 Listening Test 1 Section 3 Answers

21. B
22. A
23. C
24. B
25. A
26. B
27. A
28. F
29. G
30. C

Cambridge IELTS 14 Listening Test 1 Section 4 Answers

31. industry
32. constant
33. direction
34. floor
35. predictable
36. bay
37. gates
38. fuel
39. jobs
40. migration

Section 1: Questions 1-10

Complete the notes below.

Write NO MORE THAN ONE WORD OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Public Library
The library re-opened last month

The library now has
• A seating area with magazines
• An expanded section for books on (1) ……………………….
• A new section on local (2) ……………………….
• A community room for meetings (also possible to (3)  ………………………. there)
• A new section of books for (4) ……………………….

For younger children
• The next Science club meeting: experiments using things from your (5) ……………………….
• Reading challenge: read six books during the holidays

For adults
• This Friday: a local author talks about a novel based on a real (6) ……………………….
• IT support is available on Tuesday-no (7) ……………………….  is necessary
• Free check of blood (8) ………………………. and cholesterol levels

Other information
• The library shop sells wall charts, cards and (9) ……………………….
• Evenings and weekends: free (10) ………………………. is available

Section 2: Questions 11-20

Questions 11 and 12

Choose TWO letters A-E.

Which TWO age groups are taking increasing numbers of holidays with BC Travel?

1. 16-30 years
2. 31-42 years
3. 43-54 years
4. 55-64 years
5. over 65 years

Questions 13 and 14

Choose TWO letters A-E.

Which TWO are the main reasons given for the popularity of activity holidays?

1. clients make new friends
2. clients learn a useful skill
3. clients learn about a different culture
4. clients are excited by the risk involved
5. clients find them good value for money

Questions 15-17

Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

15. How does BC Travel plan to expand the painting holidays?
    1. by adding to the number of locations
    2. by increasing the range of levels
    3. by employing more teachers
16. Why are BC Travel’s cooking holidays unusual?
    1. they only use organic foods
    2. they have an international focus
    3. they mainly involve vegetarian dishes
17. What does the speaker say about the photography holidays?
    1. clients receive individual tuition
    2. the tutors are also trained guides
    3. advice is given on selling photographs

Questions 18-20

Complete the table below.

Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

FITNESS HOLIDAY

Location	Main focus	Other comments
Ireland and Italy	General fitness	– personally designed programme – also reduces (18)……………
Greece	(19)……………….control	– includes exercise on the beach
Morocco	Mountain biking	– wide variety of levels – one holiday that is specially designed for (20)…………………

Section 3: Questions 21-26

Complete the flow chart below.

Choose SIX answers from the options A-H given below.

A. Patterns	B. Names	C. Sources	D. Questions
E. Employees	F. Solutions	G. Headings	H. Officials

STAGES IN DOING A TOURISM CASE STUDY
RESEARCH

• Locate and read relevant articles, noting key information and also (21) ………………………. identify a problem or need
• Select interviewees – these may be site (22) ………………………. , visitors for city (23) ……………………….
• Prepare and carry out interview. If possible collect statistics.
• Check whether (24)  of interviewees can be used

ANALYSIS
• Select relevant information and try to identify (25) ……………………….
• Decide on the best form of visuals

WRITING THE CASE STUDY
• Give some background writing the main sections
• Do not end with (26) ……………………….

Questions 27-30

Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

The Horton Castle Site

27. Natalie and Dave agree one reason why so few people visit Horton Castle is that
    1. the publicity is poor
    2. it is difficult to get to
    3. there is little there of interest
28. Natalie and Dave agree that the greatest problem with a visitor centre could be
    1. covering the investment costs
    2. finding a big enough space for it
    3. dealing with planning restrictions
29. What does Dave say about conditions in the town of Horton?
    1. there is a lot of unemployment
    2. there are few people of working age
    3. there are opportunities for skilled worker
30. According to Natalie, one way to prevent damage to the castle site would be to
    1. insist visitors have a guide
    2. make visitors keep to the paths
    3. limit visitor numbers

Section 4: Questions 31-40

Complete the notes below.

Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

The effects of environmental change on birds

Mercury (Hg)
• Highly toxic
• Released into the atmosphere from coal
• In water it may be consumed by fish
• It has also recently been found to affect birds which feed on (31) ……………………….

Research on effects of mercury on birds
• Claire Varian Ramos is investigating:
o The effects on birds’ (32)  ………………………. or mental processes e.g. memory
o The effects on bird song (usually learned from a bird’s (33) ………………………. )
• Findings:
o Songs learned by birds exposed to mercury are less (34) ……………………….
o This may have a negative effect on birds’ (35) ……………………….
• Lab based studies:
o Allow more (36) ……………………….  for the experimenter

Implications for humans
• Migrating birds such as (37)  ………………………. containing mercury may be eaten by humans
• Mercury also causes problems in learning (38) ……………………….
• Mercury in a mother’s body from (39)  ………………………. may affect the unborn child
• New regulations for mercury emissions will affect everyone’s energy (40) ……………………….

Cambridge IELTS 12 Listening Test 3 Section 1 Answers

1. travel
2. history
3. study
4. teenagers
5. kitchen
6. crime
7. appointment/ booking
8. sugar
9. stamps
10. parking

Cambridge IELTS 12 Listening Test 3 Section 2 Answers

11. D
12. E
13. A
14. C
15. C
16. B
17. A
18. stress
19. weight
20. families

Cambridge IELTS 12 Listening Test 3 Section 3 Answers

21. C
22. E
23. H
24. B
25. A
26. F
27. A
28. C
29. B
30. B

Cambridge IELTS 12 Listening Test 3 Section 4 Answers

31. insects
32. behaviour
33. father
34. complex
35. reproduction
36. control
37. ducks
38. language
39. food
40. cost/ price

Part 1: Questions 1-5

Complete the notes below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Children’s Art and Craft Workshops
• Adults must accompany children under (1) ……………
• Cost: £2.50
• Workshops held in: Winter House, (2) …………… Street
• Security device: must push the (3) …………… to open door
• Should leave car behind the (4) ……………
• Book workshops by phoning the (5) …………… (on 200765)

Questions 6-10

Complete the table below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

Date	Workshop title	Children advised to wear	Please bring (if possible)
16/11	building (6)……………..	(7)………………….	(8)…………………..
23/11	(9)………………	nothing special	(10)…………………

Section 2: Questions 11-14

Complete the sentences below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

TRAIN INFORMATION

11. Local services depart from  railway station.
12. National services depart from the  railway station.
13. Trains for London depart every  each day during the week.
14. The price of a first class ticket includes 

Questions 15-17

Complete the form below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Type of ticket	Details
Standard opne	no restrictions
Supersave	travel after 8.45
Special	travel after (15)……………….and at weekends
(16)…………………	buy at least six days ahead limited numbers (17)………………essential

Questions 18-20

Which THREE attractions can you visit at present by train from Trebirch?

1. a science museum
2. a theme park
3. a climbing wall
4. a mining museum
5. an aquarium
6. a castle
7. a zoo

Section 3: Questions 21-30

Complete the form below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Target previously agreed	Work completed	Further action suggested
Investigate suitable data analysis software	– read IT (21)…………… – spoken to Jane Prince, Head of the (22)……………	sign up for some software practice sessions
Prepare a (23)……………….for survery	– completed and sent for review	add questions in section three on (24)…………
Further reading about discipline	– read Banerjee – N.B. could not find Ericsson’s essays on managing the (25)……………………	obtain from library through special loans service

New target	Work completed	Timing
Do further work on Chapter 1 (give the title: Context (26)………………	– add statistics on the (27)………… in various zones – include more references to works dated after (28)………………	by the (29)………………….
Prepare list of main sections for Chapter 2	– use index cards to help in oranisation	before stating the (30)………………..

Section 4: Questions 31-37

31. Some photographs of a horse running showed
    1. all feet off the ground
    2. at least one foot on the ground
    3. two feet off the ground
32. The Scotsman employed by Edison
    1. designed a system to use the technology Edison had invited
    2. used available technology to make a new system
    3. was already an expert in motion picture technology
33. One major problem with the first system was that
    1. only one person could be filmed
    2. people could only see very short films
    3. the camera was very heavy
34. Rival systems started to appear in Europe after people had
    1. been told about the American system
    2. seen the American system
    3. used the American system
35. In 1895, a famous new system was developed by
    1. a French team working alone
    2. a Fernch and German team working together
    3. a German team who invented the word ‘cinema’
36. Longer filmes were not made at the time because of problems involving
    1. the subject matters
    2. the camera
    3. the film projector
37. The ‘Lantham Loop’ invention relied on
    1. removing tension between the film reels
    2. adding three more films reels to the system
    3. making one of the film reels more effective

Questions 38-40

Complete the sentences below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

38. The first motion picture was called The 
39. were used for the first time on film in 1926.
40. Subtitles were added to The Lights of New York because of its 

Cambridge IELTS 6 Listening Test 2 Section 1 Answers

1. 8
2. (in/on) Tamer
3. green button
4. library
5. education department
6. castles
7. old clothes
8. bottle tops
9. undersea worlds
10. silver paper

Cambridge IELTS 6 Listening Test 2 Section 2 Answers

11. king street
12. central
13. half hour / 30 minutes
14. refreshments
15. 10.15
16. advance
17. (seat) reservations
18. C OR D OR G (in any order)
19. C OR D OR G (in any order)
20. C OR D OR G (in any order)

Cambridge IELTS 6 Listening Test 2 Section 3 Answers

21. catalog(ue)s
22. computer centre
23. checklist
24. teaching experience
25. classroom
26. review
27. schools
28. ((the) year) 2000
29. end of term
30. research

Cambridge IELTS 6 Listening Test 2 Section 4 Answers

31. A
32. B
33. C
34. A
35. A
36. C
37. A
38. great train robbery
39. sound effects
40. poor sound quality

Section 1: Questions 1-10

Complete the form below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER.

CAR INSURANCE

Name: Patrick Jones
Address: (1) …………………… , Greendale
Contact number: (2) ……………………
Size of car engine: 1200cc
Type of car: Manufacturer: Hewton
Model: (3) ……………………
Year: 1997
Previous insurance company: (4) ……………………
Any insurance claims in the last five year? Yes
If yes, give brief details: Car was (5)  in 1999
Name(s) of other driver(s): Simon (6) ……………………
Relationship to main driver: (7) ……………………
Uses of car: Social and (8) ……………………
Start date: 31st January
Recommended insurance arrangement: Name of company: (9) ……………………
Annual Cost: (10) ……………………  $ 

Part 2: Questions 11-20

Questions 11 and 12

Label the map below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS.

Questions 13-18

Complete the table below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS OR A NUMBER.

	Attraction	Further information
STOP A: Main booking office First boat: 8 am Last boat: (13)………….pm	Palace	– has lovely (14)……………..
STOP B:	(15)……………..	– has good (16)……………….of city centre
STOP C:	Museum	– bookshop specializing in the (17)………………of the local area
STOP D:	Entertainment Complex	– (18)……………….cinema – bowling alley – video games arcade

Questions 19 and 20

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

19. How often do the Top Bus Company tours run? 
20. Where can you catch a Number One Sightseeing Tour from? 

Section 3: Questions 21-26

Questions 21-26

Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

21. The Antarctic Centre was established in Christchurch because
    1. New Zealand is a member of the Antarctic Treaty
    2. Christchurch is geographically well positioned
    3. the climate of Christchurch is suitable
22. One role of the Antarctic Centre is to
    1. provide expeditions with suitable equipment
    2. provide researchers with financial assistance
    3. ensure that research is internationally relevant
23. The purpose of the Visitors’ Centre is to
    1. provide accommodation
    2. run training sessions
    3. show people what Antarctica is like
24. Dr Merrywhether says that Antarctica is
    1. unlike any other country
    2.  extremely beautiful
    3. too cold for tourists
25. According to Dr Merrywhether, Antarctica is very cold because
    1. of the shape of the continent
    2. it is surrounded by a frozen sea
    3. it is an extremely dry continent
26. Dr Merrywhether thinks Antarctica was part of another continent because
    1. he has done his own research in the area
    2. there is geological evidence of this
    3. it is very close to South America

Questions 27 and 28

Complete the table below.

Write ONE WORD OR TWO NUMBERS.

ANTARCTIC TREATY

Date	Event
1870	polar search meeting
(27)……………to………….	1st international polar year
1957	Antarctic treaty was proposed
1959	Antarctic treaty was (28)…………………….

Questions 29 and 30

Choose TWO letters A-E.

Which TWO achievements of the Antarctic Treaty are mentioned by the speakers?

1. no military use
2.  animals protected
3.  historic sites reserved
4.  no nuclear testing
5.  fishing rites protected

Section 4: Questions 31-40

Questions 31-35

Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

Left and Right Handedness in Sport

31. Anita first felt the Matthews article was of value when she realised
    1. how it would help her difficulties with left-handedness
    2. the relevance of connections he made with music
    3. the impressive size of his research project
32. Anita feels that the findings on handedness will be of value in
    1. helping sportspeople identify their weaknesses
    2. aiding sportspeople as they plan tactics for each game
    3. developing suitable training programmes for sportspeople
33. Anita feels that most sports coaches
    1. know nothing about the influence of handedness
    2. focus on the wrong aspects of performance
    3. underestimate what science has to offer sport
34. A German study showed there was greater ‘mixed handedness’ in musicians who
    1. started playing instruments in early youth
    2. Blplay a string instrument such as the violin
    3. practise a great deal on their instrument
35. Studies on ape behaviour show that
    1. apes which always use the same hand to get food are most successful
    2. apes have the same proportion of left- and right-handers as humans
    3. more apes are left-handed than right-handed

Questions 36-40

Complete the table below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS OR A NUMBER.

Sport	Best laterality	Comments
Hockey	mixed laterality	– hockey stick has to be used in (36)…………… – mixed-handed players found to be much more (37)……………than others
Tennis	single laterality	– gives a larger relevant field of (38)………….. – cross lateral players make (39)……………….too late
Gymnastics	cross laterality	– gymnasts’ (40)………………..is important for performances

Cambridge IELTS 7 Listening Test 2 Section 1 Answers

1. 27 bank road
2. (a) dentist
3. sable
4. northern star
5. stolen
6. Paynter
7. brother-in-law
8. (travel(ling/ing)) (to) work
9. red flag
10. 450

Cambridge IELTS 7 Listening Test 2 Section 2 Answers

11. city bridge
12. newton
13. 6.30
14. (formal) garden
15. (tower) restaurant
16. view(s)
17. history
18. 7 screen
19. every 20 minutes
20. (from/ the) Central Station

Cambridge IELTS 7 Listening Test 2 Section 3 Answers

21. B
22. A
23. C
24. B
25. A
26. B
27. 1882 (to / -) (18)83
28. signed
29. A or D (In either order)
30. A or D (In either order)

Cambridge IELTS 7 Listening Test 2 Section 4 Answers

31. C
32. B
33. C
34. A
35. A
36. 2 directions
37. confident
38. lvision
39. corrections
40. balance

Section 1: Questions 1-10

Questions 1-4

1. The respondent works in
   1. the professions
   2. business
   3. other
2. The respondent has a salary of
   1. £ 0-15,000 a year
   2. £ 15,000-35,000 a year
   3. over £35,000 a year
3. The respondent watched TV for
   1. relaxation
   2. entertainment
   3. information
4. Every day the respondent watches TV for
   1. 30 min – 1 hour
   2. 1 hour – 2 hours
   3. more than 2 hours

Questions 5-7

Choose TWO letters A-E

5. The respondent mainly watches TV
   1. in the early morning
   2. around midday
   3. in the afternoon
   4. in the early evening
   5. at night
6. 6. On the new channel the respondent would like to see more
   1. children’s programmes
   2. documentaries
   3. local service programmes
   4. travel programmes
   5. health programmes
7. The respondent would advise the new channel to
   1. spend more money on drama
   2. train their broadcasters to higher standards
   3. improve sound quality
   4. broadcast interviews with famous people
   5. talk more to customers

Questions 8-10

Circle the correct letter A-C.

8. The respondent feels that adverts should occur only
   1. 10 minutes
   2. 15 minutes
   3. 20 minutes
9. The respondent would like to attend special promotions if
   1. expenses are paid
   2. he is invited specially
   3. they are held locally
10. The respondent would like to receive
    1. no mail
    2. requested mail
    3. all mail

Section 2: Questions 11-14

Questions 11-14

Circle FOUR letters A-G.

Which FOUR activities of the Union are mentioned by the speaker?

1. raising money for good causes
2. political campaigning
3. running a new agency
4. running a supermarket
5. providing cheap tickets
6. helping with accommodation
7. providing catering services

Questions 15 and 16

Circle TWO letters A-E.

Which TWO of the following can you get advice about from the Union?

1. immigration
2. grants
3. medical problems
4. personal problems
5. legal matters

Questions 17-20

Write the appropriate letters A-C against questions 17-20.

What are the locations of the following places in Radford?

1. part of the Metro Tower Building
2. in the main square in the centre of the town
3. some distance from the centre of the town

17. the hi-tech fitness centre 
18. the ice rink 
19. the new cinema 
20. the Theatre Royal 

Section 3: Questions 21-30

Questions 21-23

Complete the notes below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer.

DISSERTATION INFORMATION
Hand-in-date: (21) ……………………….
Length: (22) ………………………. to 
Extra programme offered on: (23) ……………………….

Question 24-26

Complete the table below.

DISSERTATION TIMETABLE

Date	Action
31 January	basic bibliography
7 February	(24)………………..
February – March	(25)……………….
(26)……………….to……………….	write up work
21 May	hand in work

Questions 27-30

What is Dr Simon’s opinions on the following points?

Tick column A if he is in favour
Tick column B if he has no strong opinion either way
Tick column C if he is against

	A	B	C
27. Buying a computer	…..	…..	…..
28. Reading previous year’s dissertation	…..	…..	…..
29. Using questionnaires as main research instrument	…..	…..	…..
30. Interviewing tutors	…..	…..	…..

Section 4: Questions 31-40

Questions 31-37

Circle the correct letters A-C.

31. The driest continent is
    1. Australia
    2. Africa
    3. Antarctica
32. The evaporation rate in Australia is
    1. lower than Africa
    2. higher than Africa
    3. about the same as Africa
33. Rainfall in Australia hardly penetrates the soil because
    1. the soil is too hard
    2. the soil is too hot
    3. plants use it up
34. In sandy soils water can
    1. evaporate quickly
    2. seep down to rock
    3. wash the soil away
35. Water is mainly pumped up for
    1. people to drink
    2. animals to drink
    3. watering crops
36. Natural springs are located
    1. in unexplored parts of Australia
    2. quite commonly over all Australia
    3. in a few areas of Australia
37. Underground water supplies
    1. 18% of Australia’s water
    2. 48% of Australia’s water
    3. 80% of Australia’s water

Questions 38-40

Circle THREE letters A-E.

Which THREE of the following uses of dam water are mentioned?

1. providing water for livestock
2. watering farmland
3. providing water for industry
4. controlling flood water
5. producing hydro-electric power

Cambridge IELTS 2 Listening Test 3 Section 1 Answers

1. B
2. C
3. A
4. B
5. A, E
6. A, C
7. C, E
8. B
9. C
10. B

Cambridge IELTS 2 Listening Test 3 Section 2 Answers

11. A
12. C
13. E
14. G
15. B
16. E
17. C
18. A
19. A
20. B

Cambridge IELTS 2 Listening Test 3 Section 3 Answers

21. 21 May
22. 18000-20000
23. research methods
24. plan
25. research
26. march to may
27. A
28. A
29. C
30. B

Cambridge IELTS 2 Listening Test 3 Section 4 Answers

31. C
32. B
33. C
34. B
35. B
36. C
37. A
38. B
39. D
40. E