Category: IELTS Listening Tests

Section 1 – Questions 1-10

Complete the notes below.

Write NO MORE THAN one word only for each answer.

HIRING A PUBLICH ROOM

• Example
  • The main Hall seats …………………200………………………..
• Room and cost
  • The (1) ……………………………………………… room seats 100
  • Cost of main hall for Saturday evening: (2)……………………………………………… £  + £250 deposit (3)………………………………………………  payment is required)
  • Cost includes use of tables and chairs and also (4) ……………………………………………… 
  • Additional charge for use of the kitchen: £25
• Before the charge
  • Will need a (5) ………………………………………………  licence
  • Need to contact caretaker (Mr Evans) in advance to arrange (6) ……………………………………………… 
• During the event
  • The building is no smoking
  • The band should use the (7)………………………………………………   door at the back
  • Don’t touch the system that controls the volume
  • For microphones, contact the caretaker
• After the event
  • Need to know the (8)………………………………………………   for the cleaning cupboard
  • The (9)………………………………………………   must be washed and rubbish placed in black bags
  • All (10)………………………………………………   must be taken down
  • Chairs and tables must be piled up

SECTION 2 – Questions 11-20

Questions 11-14

Complete the notes below.

Write ONE WORD for each answer.

Fiddy Working Heritage Farm

Advice about visiting the farm

Visitors should
• Take care not to harm any (11) ……………………………………………… 
• Not touch any (12) ……………………………………………… 
• Wear (13) ……………………………………………… 
• Not bring (14) ………………………………………………  into the farm, with certain exceptions

Questions 15-20

Label the map below.

Write the correct letter A-I, next to questions 15-20.

15. Scarecrow …………………………..	16. Maze …………………………..
17. Café …………………………..	18. Black Barn …………………………..
19. Covered picnic area …………………………..	20. Fiddy house …………………………..

SECTION 3 – Questions 21 – 30

Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

Study on Gender in Physics

21. The students in Akira Miyake’s study were all majoring in
    1.  physics
    2.  psychology or physics
    3.  science, technology, engineering or mathematics
22. The aim of Miyake’s study was to investigate
    1. what kind of women choose to study physics
    2. a way of improving women’s performance in physics
    3. whether fewer women than men study physics at college
23. The female physics students were wrong to believe that
    1.  the teachers marked them in an unfair way
    2.  the male students expected them to do badly
    3.  their test results were lower than the male students’
24. Miyake’s team asked the students to write about
    1.  what they enjoyed about studying physics
    2.  the successful experiences of other people
    3.  something that was important to them personally
25. What was the aim of the writing exercise done by the subjects?
    1.  to reduce stress
    2.  to strengthen verbal ability
    3.  to encourage logical thinking
26. What surprised the researchers about the study?
    1.  how few students managed to get A grades
    2.  the positive impact it had on physics results for women
    3.  the difference between male and female performance
27. Greg and Lisa think Miyake’s results could have been affected by
    1.  the length of the writing task
    2.  the number of students who took part
    3.  the information the students were given
28. Greg and Lisa decide that in their own project, they will compare the effects of
    1.  two different writing tasks
    2.  a writing task with an oral task
    3.  two different oral tasks
29. The main finding of Smolinsky’s research was that class teamwork activities
    1.  were most effective when done by all-women groups
    2.  had no effect on the performance of men or women
    3.  improved the results of men more than of women
30. What will Lisa and Greg do next?
    1.  talk to a professor
    2.  observe a science class
    3.  look at the science timetable

SECTION 4 – Questions 31 – 40

Complete the notes below.

Write ONE WORD ONLY.

Ocean Biodiversity

• Biodiversity hotspots
  • areas containing many different species
  • important for locating targets for (31) ……………………………………….
  • at first only identified on land
• Boris Worm, 2005
  • identified hotspots for large ocean predators, e.g. sharks
  • found that ocean hotspots:
    • were not always rich in (32) ……………………………………….
    • had higher temperatures at the (33) ……………………………………….
    • had sufficient (34) ………………………………………. in the water
• Lisa Ballance, 2007
  • looked for hotspots for marine (35) ……………………………………….
  • found these were all located where ocean currents meet
• Census of Marine Life
  • found new ocean species living:
    • under the (36) ……………………………………….
    • near volcanoes on the ocean floor
• Global Marine Species Assessment
  • want to list endangered ocean species, considering:
    • population size
    • geographical distribution
    • rate of (37) ……………………………………….
  • Aim: to assess 20,000 species and make a distribution (38) ……………………………………….  for each one
• Recommendations to retain ocean biodiversity
  • increase the number of ocean reserves
  • establish (39) ……………………………………….  corridors (e.g. for turtles)
  • reduce fishing quotas
  • catch fish only for the purpose of (40) ………………………………………. 

Section 1 HIRING A PUBLICH ROOM Answers Cambridge IELTS 11 Listening Test 1

1. Charlton
2. £115 / one hundred (and) fifteen
3. cash
4. parking
5. music
6. entry
7. stage
8. code
9. floors / floor
10. decorations / decoration

Section 2 Answers Cambridge IELTS 11 Listening Test 1

11. animals / animal
12. tools / tool
13. shoes
14. dogs / dog
15. F
16. G
17. D
18. H
19. C
20. A

Section 3 Answers Cambridge IELTS 11 Listening Test 1

21. C
22. B
23. B
24. C
25. A
26. B
27. C
28. A
29. B
30. A

Section 4 Answers Cambridge IELTS 11 Listening Test 1

31. conservation
32. foods / food
33. surface
34. oxygen / O2
35. mammals
36. ice
37. decline / declining / decrease
38. map
39. migration
40. consumption

Section 1 – Questions 1-10

Questions 1-6

Complete the notes below.

Write NO MORE THAN one word only for each answer.

THORNDYKE’S BUILDERS

Example Customer heard about Thorndyke’s from a	……………………friend……………………….
Name:	Eddith (1)……………………………………………………
Address:	Flat 4, (2)…………………………………………………… Park Flats, Behind the (3)……………………………………………………
Phone number:	875934
Best time to contact customer:	during the (4) ……………………………………………………
Where to park:	opposite entrance next to the (5) …………………………………………………… Need full quote showing all the jobs and the (6) ……………………………………………………

Questions 7-10

Complete the notes below.

Write NO MORE THAN one word only for each answer.

Area	Work to be done	Notes
Kitchen	– replace the (7)……………..in the door – paint wall above the (8)…………….	– fix tomorrow – strip paint and plaster approximately one (9)……………in advance
Garden	one (10)………………..needs replacing (end of garden)

SECTION 2 – Questions 11-20

Questions 11-15

Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

MANHAM PORT

11. Why did a port originally develop at Manham?
    1.  It was safe from enemy attack
    2.  It was convenient for river transport
    3.  It had a good position on the sea coast

12. What caused Manham’s sudden expansion during the Industrial Revolution?
    1.  the improvement in mining techniques
    2.  the increase in demand for metals
    3.  the discovery of tin in the area

13. Why did rocks have to be sent away from Manham to be processed?
    1.  shortage of fuel
    2.  poor transport systems
    3.  lack of skills among local people

14. What happened when the port declined in the twentieth century?
    1.  The workers went away
    2.  Traditional skills were lost
    3.  Buildings were used for new purposes

15. What did the Manham Trust hope to do?
    1.  discover the location of the original port
    2.  provide jobs for the unemployed
    3.  rebuild the port complex

Questions 16-20

complete the notes below

Choose SIX answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-l, next to questions 15-20.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS.

TOURIST ATTRACTIONS IN MUSEUM

Place	Features and activities	Advice
Copper mine	specially adapted miners’ (16)………………….take visitors into the mountain	the mine is (17)……………..and enclosed – unsuitable for children and animals
Village school	classrooms and a special exhibition of (18)……………….	a (19)…………………..is recommended
‘The George’ (old sailing ship)	the ship’s wheel (was lost but has now been restored)	children should not use the (20)………………

SECTION 3 – Questions 21 – 30

Questions 21 and 22

Choose two letters, A-E.

Which TWO skills did Laura improve as a result of her work placement?

1.  communication
2.  design
3.  IT
4.  marketing
5.  organisation

Questions 23 and 24

Choose two letters, A-E.

Which TWO immediate benefits did the company get from Laura’s work placement?

1.  updates for its software
2.  cost savings
3.  an improved image
4.  new clients
5.  a growth in sales

Questions 25-30

What source of information should Tim use at each of the following stages of the work placement?

Choose SIX answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-G, next to questions 25-30.

Source of information

1. company manager
2. company’s personnel department
3. personal tutor
4. psychology department
5. mentor
6. university careers officer
7. internet

Stages of work placement procedure

25. obtaining booklet 
26. discussing options 
27. getting updates 
28. responding to invitation for interview 
29. informing about outcome of interview 
30. requesting a reference

SECTION 4 – Questions 31 – 40

Questions 31-33

Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

Nanotechnology: technology on a small scale

31. The speaker says that one problem with nanotechnology is that
    1. it could threaten our way of life
    2. it could be used to spy on people
    3.  t is misunderstood by the public

32. According to the speaker, some scientists believe that nano-particles
    1.  should be restricted to secure environments
    2.  should be used with more caution
    3.  should only be developed for essential products

33. In the speaker’s opinion, research into nanotechnology
    1.  has yet to win popular support
    2.  could be seen as unethical
    3.  ought to be continued

Questions 34-40

Complete the notes below.

Write ONE WORD ONLY.

Uses of Nanotechnology

Transport
• Nanotechnology could allow the development of stronger (34)……………………………………………..
• Planes would be much lighter in weight.
• (35) …………………………………………….. travel will be made available to the masses.

Technology
• Computers will be even smaller, faster, and will have a greater (36)……………………………………………..
• (37) …………………………………………….. energy will become more affordable.

The Environment
• Nano-robots could rebuild the ozone layer.
• Pollutants such as (38)……………………………………………..  could be removed from water more easily.
• There will be no (39) …………………………………………….. from manufacturing.

Health and Medicine
• New methods of food production could eradicate famine.
• Analysis of medical (40) …………………………………………….. will be speeded up.
• Life expectancy could be increased.

Section 1 Answers Cambridge 10 Listening Test 4

1. Pargetter
2. east
3. library
4. morning(s)
5. postbox
6. prices
7. glass
8. cooker
9. week
10. fence

Section 2 Answers Cambridge 10 Listening Test 4

11. B
12. B
13. A
14. A
15. C
16. trains
17. dark
18. games
19. guided tours
20. ladder(s)

Section 3 Answers Cambridge 10 Listening Test 4

21. A, E (in any order)
22. A, E (in any order)
23. B, C (in any order)
24. B, C (in any order)
25. D
26. F
27. G
28. B
29. E
30. C

Section 4 Answers Cambridge 10 Listening Test 4

31. C
32. B
33. C
34. metal(s)
35. space
36. memory
37. solar
38. oil
39. waste
40. tests

Section 1 – Questions 1-10

Complete the notes below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Early Learning Children Centre Enrolment Form

Example Parent or guardian: ……………Carol Smith…………….

Personal details: Child’s name: Kate Age: (1) …………………………………………………. Address: (2) …………………………………………………. Road, Woodside 4032 Phone: 33459865

Childcare information Days enrolled for: Monday and (3) …………………………………………………. Start time: (4)…………………………………………………. am Childcare group: the (5)…………………………………………………. group Which meals are required each day? ………………………………………………….(6)  Medical conditions: need ………………………………………………….(7)  Emergency contact: Jenny ………………………………………………….(8)  Relationship to child: ………………………………………………….(9)

Fees Will pay each ………………………………………………….(10)

SECTION 2 – Questions 11-20

Questions 11 and 12

Choose TWO letters, A-E.

Which TWO things does Alice say about the Dolphin Conservation Trust?

1.  Children make up most of the membership
2.  It’s the country’s largest conservation organisation
3.  It helps finance campaigns for changes in fishing practices
4.  It employs several dolphin experts full-time
5.  Volunteers help in various ways

Questions 13-15

Choose TWO letters, A-E.

13. Why is Alice so pleased the Trust has won the Charity Commission award?
    1.  It has brought in extra money
    2.  It made the work of the trust better known
    3.  It has attracted more members.

14. Alice says oil exploration causes problems to dolphins because of
    1.  noise
    2.  oil leaks
    3.  movement of ships

15. Alice became interested in dolphins when
    1.  she saw one swimming near her home
    2.  she heard a speaker at her school
    3.  she read a book about them

Questions 16-20

Which dolphin does Alice make each of the following comments about?

Write the correct letters A, B, C or D, next to questions 16-20.

Dolphins

1. Moondancer
2. Echo
3. Kiwi
4. Samson

Comments

16. It has not been seen this year 
17. It is photographed more than the others 
18. It is always very energetic 
19. It is the newest one in the scheme 
20. It has an unusual shape

SECTION 3 – Questions 21 – 30

Questions 21-25

Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

Theatre Studies Course

21. What helped Rob to prepare to play the character of a doctor?
    1. the stories his grandfather told him
    2. the times when he watched his grandfather working
    3. the way he imagined his grandfather at work
22. In the play’s first scene, the boredom of village life was suggested by
    1. repetition of words and phrases
    2. scenery painted in dull colours
    3. long pauses within conversations
23. What has Rob learned about himself through working in a group?
    1. He likes to have clear guidelines
    2. He copes well with stress
    3. He thinks he is a good leader
24. To support the production, research material was used which described
    1. political developments
    2. changing social attitudes
    3. economic transformations
25. What problem did the students overcome in the final rehearsal?
    1. one person forgetting their words
    2. an equipment failure
    3. the injury of one character

Questions 26-30

What action is needed for the following stages in doing the ‘year abroad’ option?

Choose FIVE answers from the box given and write the correct letter, A-G, next to questions 26-30

Action

1. be on time
2. get a letter of recommendation
3. plan for the final year
4. make sure the institution’s focus is relevant
5. show ability in Theatre Studies
6. make travel arrangements and bookings
7. ask for help

Stages in doing the ‘year abroad’ option

26. in the second year of the course 
27. when first choosing where to go 
28. when sending in your choice 
29. when writing your personal statement 
30. when doing the year abroad

SECTION 4 – Questions 31 – 40

Complete the notes below.

Write one world only for each answer

‘Self-regulatory focus theory’ and leadership

• Self-regulatory focus theory
  • People’s focus is to approach pleasure or avoid pain
  • Promotion goals focus on (31) …………………………………………
  • Prevention goals emphasise avoiding punishment

• Factors that affect people’s focus
  • The Chronic Factor
    • • comes from one’s (32) …………………………………………
    • The (33) ………………………………………… Factor
    • • we are more likely to focus on promotion goals when with a (34) …………………………………………
    • • we are more likely to focus on prevention goals with our boss

• How people’s focus affects them
  • Promotion Focus: People think about an ideal version of themselves, their (35)  and their gains.
  • Prevention Focus: People think about their ‘ought’ self and their obligations

• Leaders
  • Leadership behaviour and (36) ………………………………………… affects people’s focus
  • Transformational Leaders:
    • • pay special attention to the (37)…………………………………………  of their followers
    • • passionately communicate a clear (38)………………………………………… 
    • • inspire promotion focus in followers
  • Transactional Leaders:
    • create (39) ………………………………………… to make expectations clear
    • emphasise the results of a mistake
    • inspire prevention focus in followers

• Conclusion
  • Promotion Focus is good for jobs requiring (40) …………………………………………
  • Prevention Focus is good for work such as a surgeon Leaders’ actions affect which focus people use.

Section 1 Answers Cambridge 10 Listening Test 3

1. 4
2. 46 wombat
3. thursday
4. 8.30
5. red
6. lunch
7. glasses
8. BALL
9. aunt
10. month

Section 2 Answers Cambridge 10 Listening Test 3

11. C, E (In any order)
12. C, E (In any order)
13. B
14. A
15. C
16. B
17. C
18. D
19. D
20. A

Section 3 Answers Cambridge 10 Listening Test 3

21. C
22. A
23. A
24. B
25. B
26. E
27. D
28. A
29. G
30. C

Section 4 Answers Cambridge 10 Listening Test 3

31. achievement(s)
32. personality / character
33. situational
34. friend
35. aspirations / ambitions
36. style
37. development
38. vision
39. structures
40. innovation(s)

Section 1 – Questions 1-10

Complete the notes below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Transport Survey

Example Travelled to town today:	by …………….bus………………..
Name:	Lusia (1)…………………………………………..
Address”	(2) ……………………………………White Stone Road
Area:	Bradfield
Postcode:	(3) ……………………………………
Occupation:	(4) ……………………………………
Reason for visit to town:	to go to the (5) ……………………………………
Suggestions for improvement:
	– better (6) ……………………………………
	– Have more footpaths
	– More frequent (7) ……………………………………
Things that would encourage cycling to work:
	– Having (8) …………………………………… parking places for bicycles
	– Being able to use a (9) …………………………………… at work
	– The opportunity to have cycling (10) ……………………………………  on busy roads

SECTION 2 – Questions 11-20

Questions 11-14

Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

New city developments

11. The idea for the two new developments in the city came from
    1.  local people
    2.  the City Council
    3.  the SWRDC

12. What is unusual about Brackenside pool?
    1.  its architectural style
    2.  its heating system
    3.  its method of water treatment

13. Local newspapers have raised worries about
    1.  the late opening date
    2.  the post of the project
    3.  the size of the facilities

14. What decision has not yet been made about the pool?
    1.  whose statue will be at the door
    2.  the exact opening times
    3.  who will open it

Questions 15-20

Which feature is related to each of the following areas of the world represented in the playground?

Choose SIX answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-l, next to questions 15-20.

FEATURES

A ancient forts	B waterways	C ice and snow
D jewels	E local animals	F mountains
G music and film	H space travel	I volcanoes

Areas of the world

15. Asia 
16. Antarctica 
17. South America 
18. North America 
19. Europe 
20. Africa 

SECTION 3 – Questions 21 – 30

Questions 21 and 22

Choose THREE letters, A-E.

Which TWO hobbies was Thor Heyerdahl very interested in as a youth?

1.  camping
2.  climbing
3.  collecting
4.  hunting
5.  reading

Questions 23 and 24

Choose THREE letters, A-E.

Which do the speakers say are the TWO reasons why Heyerdahl went to live on an island?

1. to examine ancient carvings
2.  to experience an isolated place
3.  to formulate a new theory
4.  to learn survival skills
5.  to study the impact of an extreme environment

Questions 25-30

Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

The later life of Thor Heyerdahl

25. According to Victor and Olivia, academics thought that Polynesian migration from the east was impossible due to
    1.  the fact that Eastern countries were far away
    2.  the lack of materials for boat building
    3.  the direction of the winds and currents

26. Which do the speakers agree was the main reason for Heyerdahl’s raft journey?
    1.  to overcome a research setback
    2.  to demonstrate a personal quality
    3.  to test a new theory

27. What was most important to Heyerdahl about his raft journey?
    1.  the fact that he was the first person to do it
    2.  the speed of crossing the Pacific
    3.  the use of authentic construction methods

28. Why did Heyerdahl go to Easter Island?
    1.  to build a stone statue
    2.  to sail a reed boat
    3.  to learn the local language

29. In Olivia’s opinion, Heyerdahl’s greatest influence was on
    1.  theories about Polynesian origins
    2.  the development of archaeological methodology
    3.  establishing archaeology as an academic subject

30. Which criticism do the speakers make of William Oliver’s textbook?
    1.  Its style is out of date
    2.  Its content is over-simplified
    3.  Its methodology is flawed

SECTION 4 – Questions 31 – 40

Complete the notes below.

Write one world only for each answer

THE FUTURE OF MANAGEMENT

Business markets

• greater (31)…………………………………………   among companies
• increase in power of large (32)…………………………………………   companies
• rising (33)…………………………………………  in certain countries

External influences on businesses

• more discussion with (34) ………………………………………… before making business decisions
• environmental concerns which may lead to more (35)…………………………………………

Business structures

• more teams will be formed to work on a particular (36)…………………………………………
• businesses may need to offer hours that are (37)…………………………………………  , or the chance to work remotely

Management styles

• increasing need for managers to provide good (38)…………………………………………
• changes influenced by (39)…………………………………………  taking senior roles

Changes in the economy

• service sector continues to be important
• increasing value of intellectual property
• more and more (40)…………………………………………  workers

Section 1 Answers Cambridge 10 Listening Test 2

1. Hardie
2. 19
3. GT82LC
4. hairdresser
5. dentist
6. lighting
7. trains
8. safe
9. shower
10. training

Section 2 Answers Cambridge 10 Listening Test 2

11. A
12. C
13. C
14. A
15. E
16. F
17. D
18. H
19. A
20. B

Section 3 Answers Cambridge 10 Listening Test 2

21. B, C (In any order)
22. B, C (In any order)
23. B, E (In any order)
24. B, E (In any order)
25. A
26. C
27. C
28. A
29. B
30. A

Section 4 Answers Cambridge 10 Listening Test 2

31. competition
32. global
33. demand
34. customers
35. regulation
36. project
37. flexible
38. leadership
39. women
40. self-employed

Section 1 – Questions 1-12

Questions 1-5

Circle the appropriate letter

1. Where is the administration building?

2. How many people are waiting in the queue?
   1. 50
   2. 100
   3. 200
   4. 300
3. What does the woman order for lunch?

4. What does the woman order to drink?

5. How much money does the woman give the man?
   1. $2.00
   2. $3.00
   3. $3.50
   4. $5.00

Questions 6-10

Complete the registration form using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS.

Name of student:	(6) ………………………………………………………………..
Address:	(7) Flat 5/ ………………………………………………………
Town:	(8) ………………………………………………………………..
Tel:	(9) ………………………………………………………………..
Course:	(10) ………………………………………………………………

Questions 11-12

11. What did the man buy for her to eat?

12. What must the students do as part of registration at the university?
    1. Check the notice board in the Law Faculty
    2. Find out about lectures
    3. Organise tutorial groups
    4. Pay the union fees

SECTION 2 – Questions 13- 21

Complete the notes below using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

Student Banking

Recommended Banks	Location
Barclays	Realty Square
National Westminster	Example: Preston Park
Lloyds	City Plaza
Midland	(13) ………………………………………………..

Funding

• Must provide (14) ……………………………… I can support myself.

• Services will depend on personal circumstances and discretion of Bank Manager.

Opening an account

• Take with me: (15) ……………………………… and letter of enrolment.

• Recommended account: (16) …………………………………………………

• Bank supplies: (17) ………………………….. and chequecard which guaranteescheques.

Other services

• Cashcard: (you can (18) ………………………………… cash at any time.)

• Switch/Delta cards: (take the money (19) …………………….. the account.)

Overdraft

• Must have (20) …………………………………………….

•Sometimes must pay interest.

Opening times

• Most banks open until (21) ……………………………….. during the week.

• Some open for a limited time on Saturdays

SECTION 3 – Questions 22 – 31

Questions 22-25

Complete the factsheet.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

FACTSHEET – Aluminium Cans

• (22)……………………………………………….  produced every day in the US — more cans produced than nails or
(23)……………………………………………….
• each can weighs 0.48 ounces — thinner than two

(24)……………………………………………….
• can take more than 90 pounds of pressure per square inch — over (25)……………………………………………….  the pressure of a car tyre.

Questions 26-31

Label the aluminium can.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

SECTION 4 – Questions 32– 42

Complete the table Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer

Purpose of the mini lecture

To experience To find out about (32) …………………………………………….. (33)………………………………………………….

The three strands of Sports Studies are:

a b c a

Sports psychology Sports (34) ………………………………………. Sports physiology The psychologists work with

a	The psychologists work with (35)……………………………………………………………. They want to discover what (36)…………………………………………………………….
b	Sports marketing looks at (37)……………………………………………………………. Sport now competes with (38)……………………………………………………………. Spectators want (39)…………………………………………………………….
c	Sports physiology is also known as (40) …………………………………………………………. Macro levels look at (41) …………………………………………………………. Micro level looks at (42) ………………………………………………………….

Answer Notes:
( ): Answer between parenthesis is optional. Example> 21. A lot (of people)
/ : Another possible answer. Example> 22. A lot of people / Too many people

Section 1 Answers Cambridge 1 Listening Test 4

1. C
2. A
3. B
4. D
5. D
6. Julia Perkins (must be correct spelling with capital letters)
7. 15 Waratah Road (must be correct spelling of Waratah with capital letter)
8. Brisbane (must have capital letter)
9. to be advised / not connected / no phone / none (blank not acceptable)
10. first year law (must have all three words)
11. C
12. D

Section 2 Answers Cambridge 1 Listening Test 4

13. C
14. D
15. hope street (must have capitals)
16. evidence
17. passport
18. current (account) / student (account)
19. chequebook
20. withdraw / draw (out) / take out
21. directly from / right out of
22. permission of bank / permission from bank
23. 4.30 pm or / to 5 pm

Section 3 Answers Cambridge 1 Listening Test 4

22. 300 million
23. paper clips
24. magazine pages / pieces of paper / pages
25. three times
26. thicker
27. label
28. (a) dome
29. flange (correct spelling)
30. 25%
31. scored opening

Section 4 Answers Cambridge 1 Listening Test 4

32. university lecture
33. sports studies (programme)
34. management
35. top athletes
36. makes winners / makes them / people win
37. market forces
38. (other) leisure activities
39. entertainment / to be entertained
40. exercise science
41. fitness testing / body measurements
42. cellular research / cellular change / body cells

Section 1 – Questions 1-12

Questions 1-4

Circle the appropriate letter

Example

How does the woman travel every day?

A by car
B by bus
C on foot Answer
D by train

1. What are the parking regulations on campus?
   1. undergraduate parking allowed
   2. postgraduate parking allowed
   3. staff parking only allowed
   4. no student parking allowed
2. The administration office is in
   1. Block B.
   2. Block D.
   3. Block E.
   4. Block G.
3. If you do not have a parking sticker, the following action will be taken:
   1. wheel clamp your car.
   2. fine only.
   3. tow away your car and fine.
   4. tow away your car only.

4. Which picture shows the correct location of the Administration office?

Questions 5-10

Complete the application form using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS

Application for parking sticker

Name: (5)…………………………………………..
Address: Flat 13 (6)…………………………………………..
Suburb: (7)…………………………………………..
Faculty: (8)…………………………………………..
Registration Number: (9)…………………………………………..
Make of car: (10)…………………………………………..

Questions 11 and 12

11. Cashier’s office opens at
    1. 12.15
    2. 2.00
    3. 2.15
    4. 4.30

12. Where must the sticker be displayed?

…………………………………………..

SECTION 2 – Questions 13- 23

Complete the notes below using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

Date the museum was opened	(13)
The museum consists of a building and	(14)
Handicapped toilet door shows	Example: a weelchair
The Education Centre is signposted by	(15)
If you lose your friends, meet at the	(16)
Warning about The Vampire	(17)
How often are the tours of The Vampire?	(18)
Person featured in today’s video	(19)
The Leisure Gallery shows how Australian culture is influenced by	(20)
The Picture Gallery contains pictures by	(21)
Cost of family membership of the museum	(22)
“Passengers and the Sea” includes a collection of	(23)

SECTION 3 – Questions 24 – 32

Questions 24-27

Circle the correct answer.

24. Mark is going to talk briefly about
    1. marketing new products.
    2. pricing strategies.
    3. managing large companies.
    4. setting sales targets.
25. According to Susan, air fares are lowest when they
    1. include weekend travel.
    2. are booked well in advance.
    3. are non-refundable.
    4. are for business travel only.
26. Mark thinks revenue management is
    1. interesting.
    2. complicated.
    3. time-consuming.
    4. reasonable.
27. The airline companies want to
    1. increase profits.
    2. benefit the passenger.
    3. sell cheap seats.
    4. improve the service.

Questions 28-32

Complete the notes using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer

Two reasons for the new approach to pricing are:

(28) ……………………………………………………………….. and

(29) ……………………………………………………………….. .

In future people will be able to book airline tickets (30) …………………………………………… .

Also being marketed m this way are (31) …………………………………………………… and

(32) ……………………………………………………….. .

SECTION 4 – Questions 33– 42

Questions 33-37

Complete the table Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer

SPACE MANAGEMENT

RESEARCH METHOD	INFORMATION PROVIDED
Questionnaires	what customers think about(33) …………………………………………………
(34) ……………………………………..	how customers move around supermarket aisles
Eye movement (35) ……………………………………..	the most eye-catching areas of the shop
Computer programs e.g. (36) ……………………………….	the best (37) …………………………………. for an article in the shop

Questions 38-42

Label the cliagiam Wiite NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each anmer

A SUPERMARKET AISLE

Answer Notes:
( ): Answer between parenthesis is optional. Example> 21. A lot (of people)
/ : Another possible answer. Example> 22. A lot of people / Too many people

Section 1 Answers Cambridge 1 Listening Test 3

1. B
2. D
3. C
4. A
5. Richard Lee (must have correct spelling of“Lee “ and capitals)
6. 30 Enmore road (must have correct spelling and capitals)
7. Newport (must have correct spelling and capital “N”)
8. architecture
9. LJX058K
10. Ford
11. C
12. (on the) (front) window / windscreen

Section 2 Answers Cambridge 1 Listening Test 3

13. November 1991
14. (historic) ships
15. green arrows
16. information desk
17. stairs to climb / lots of stairs
18. every hour
19. captain cook
20. the sea
21. Australian artists / painters
22. $70
23. souvenirs

Section 3 Answers Cambridge 1 Listening Test 3

24. B
25. C
26. D
27. A
28. law has changed / law changes / changes in law
29. (powerful) computer programs
30. from home (computer)
31. hotels / hotel beds / rooms
32. hire cars

Section 4 Answers Cambridge 1 Listening Test 3

33. displays / products / displays and products
34. (hidden) TV cameras
35. recorder / recording
36. “Spaceman”
37. position / shelf / spot / place
38. walk (straight / right) past / ignore / pass
39. at eye level / near customers’ eyes
40. hotspots
41. special offers
42. chocolates

Section 1 – Questions 1-10

Complete the notes.

Use NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

Kate	Kate
Her first impression of the town	Example quiet
Type of accommodation	(1)…………….
Her feelings about the accommodation	(2)…………….
Her feelings about the students	(3)…………….
Name of course	Environmental Studies
Difficulties experienced on the course	(4)……………..
Suggestions for improving the course	(5)……………..

Luki	Luki
First type of accommodation	(6)…………….
Problem with the first accommodation	(7)…………….
Second type of accommodation	(8)…………….
Name of course	(9)……………
Comments about the course	computer room busy
Suggestions for improving the course	(10)………………..

SECTION 2 – Questions 11-20

Complete the notes below by writing NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS in the spaces provided.

There are many kinds of bicycles available:

racing

touring

(11) ……………………………………….ordinary.

They vary in price and (12) ………………………………………… .

Prices range from $50.00 to (13) ………………………………….. .

Single speed cycles are suitable for (14) ………………………….. .

Three speed cycles are suitable for (15) …………………………… .

Five and ten speed cycles are suitable for longer distances, hills and (16) ……………………………………… .

Ten speed bikes are better because they are (17) ………………………. inprice but (18) ……………………………….. .

Buying a cycle is like (19) …………………………… .

The size of the bicycle is determined by the size of the (20) ……………………………………… .

SECTION 3 – Questions 21 – 32

Questions 21-24

Circle the correct answer.

21. At first Fiona thinks that Martin’s tutorial topic is
    1. inappropriate
    2. dull
    3. interesting
    4. fascinating
22. According to Martin, the banana
    1. has only recently been cultivated
    2. is economical to grow
    3. is good for your health
    4. is his favourite food
23. Fiona listens to Martin because she
    1. wants to know more about bananas
    2. has nothing else to do today
    3. is interested in the economy of Australia
    4. wants to help Martin
24. According to Martin, bananas were introduced into Australia from
    1. India
    2. England
    3. China
    4. Africa

Questions 25-30

Complete Martin’s notes Use NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

Commercially grown banana plant
• Each banana tree produces (25) ……………………. of bananas
• On modern plantations in tropical conditions a tree can bear fruit after
(26) ……………………. 
• Banana trees prefer to grow (27) …………………….   and they require rich soil and
(28) ……………………. 
• The fruit is often protected by (29) ……………………. 
• Ripe bananas emit a gas which helps other (30) ……………………. 

Questions 31-32

Circle the TWO correct boxes.

Consumption of Australian bananas

1. Europe
2. Asia
3. New Zealand
4. Australia
5. Other

SECTION 4 – Questions 33 – 41

Questions 33-35

Circle the correct answer.

According to the first speaker:

33. The focus of the lecture series is on
    1. organising work and study
    2. maintaining a healthy lifestyle
    3. coping with homesickness
    4. settling in at university
34. The lecture will be given by
    1. the president of the Union
    2. the campus doctor
    3. a sports celebrity
    4. a health expert

According to the second speaker:

35. This week’s lecture is on
    1. campus food
    2. dieting
    3. sensible eating
    4. saving money

Questions 36-39

Complete the notes.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

A balanced diet
• A balanced diet will give you enough vitamins for normal daily living.
• Vitamins in food can be lost through (36)…………………………………..
• Types of vitamins:
– Fat soluble vitamins are stored by the body.
– Water soluble vitamins – not stored, so you need a (37)…………………………………..

Getting enough vitamins
• Eat (38)…………………………………..  of foods
• Buy plenty of vegetables and store them in (39)…………………………………..

Questions 40-41

Complete the diagram by writing NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS in the boxes provided.

Example Answer

……………………….sugar, try to avoid

salt and butter

40. ……………………………………….. milk, lean meat, fish, nuts, eggs.

41. ……………………………………….. bread, vegetables and fruits.

Answer Notes:
( ): Answer between parenthesis is optional. Example> 21. A lot (of people)
/ : Another possible answer. Example> 22. A lot of people / Too many people

Section 1 Answers Cambridge 1 Listening Test 2

1. student accommodation / hostel
2. awful food
3. not friendly / kept to themselves (do not accept “lonely”)
4. lecturers (too) busy
5. lectures / fortnightly meetings
6. family / homestay
7. lot of noise / children made noise / difficult to study
8. student house
9. (Bachelor of) computing
10. reserve computer time

Section 2 Answers Cambridge 1 Listening Test 2

11. mountain
12. quality
13. $2000
14. short / casual rides
15. town riding / shopping
16. serious touring
17. similar / almost the same
18. better quality (components)
19. buying clothes
20. frame

Section 3 Answers Cambridge 1 Listening Test 1

21. B
22. C
23. D
24. B
25. one bunch
26. 15 months
27. uphill / on hillsides
28. lots of water / plenty of water
29. plastic bags
30. bananas / ones (to) ripen
31. C, D ( In any order)
32. C, D ( In any order)

Section 4 Answers Cambridge 1 Listening Test 1

33. B
34. D
35. C
36. cooking
37. (regular) daily intake
38. (a) variety
39. the dark / the fridge / a cool place / a dark place
40. eat in moderation / not too much
41. eat lots / eat most

Section 1 – Questions 1-10

Questions 1-5

Circle the appropriate letter.

Example Answer

What has the woman lost? A. a brief case

A. a brief case B. a suitcase

C. a handbag D. a wallet

Questions 6-10

Complete the form below.

Write NO MORE THAN three WORDS for each answer.

PERSONAL DETAILS FORM

Name	Mary (6)……………………………………………………………………
Address	Flat 2 (7)……………………………….(8)……………………………………………………….. Road Canterbury
Telephone	(9)……………………………………………………………………
Estimated value of lost item	(10) £ ……………………………………………………………………

SECTION 2 – Questions 11-21

Questions 11-13

Circle the THREE other items which are mentioned in the news headlines.

NEWS HEADLINES

1. Rivers flood in the north
2. Money promised for drought victims – Example
3. Nurses on strike in Melbourne
4. Passengers rescued from ship
5. Passengers rescued from plane
6. Bus and train drivers national strike threat
7. Teachers demand more pay
8. New uniform for QANTAS staff
9. National airports under new management

Questions 14-21

Complete the notes below by writing NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS in the spaces provided.

The Government plans to give (14)…………………………….. $  to assist the farmers. This money was to be spent on improving Sydney’s (15)……………………………..  but has now been re-allocated. Australia has experienced its worst drought in over fifty years. Farmers say that the money will not help them because it is (16)……………………………..

An aeroplane which was carrying a group of (17)……………………………..  was forced to land just (18)……………………………..  minutes after take-off. The passengers were rescued by
(19) …………………………….. The operation was helped because of the good weather. The passengers thanked the (20)……………………………..  for saving their lives but unfortunately they lost their (21)……………………………..

SECTION 3 – Questions 22 – 31

Questions 22-25

Circle the appropriate letter.

22. The orientation meeting
    1. took place recently
    2. took place last term
    3. will take place tomorrow
    4. will take place next week
23. Attendance at lectures is
    1. optional after 4 pm
    2. closely monitored
    3. difficult to enforce
    4. sometimes unnecessary
24. Tutorials take place
    1. every morning
    2. twice a week
    3. three mornings a week
    4. three afternoons a week
25. The lecturer’s name is
    1. Roberts
    2. Rawson
    3. Rogers
    4. Robertson

Questions 26-31

Complete the notes below using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS.

Course Requirements

Tutorial Paper:

• A piece of work ON A given topic. Students must:
• (26)……………………………………………………………………………………………  for 25 minutes
• (27)……………………………………………………………………………………………
• give to lecturer for marking

Essay Topic:

• usually (28)……………………………………………………………………………………………
• Type of exam:
• (29)……………………………………………………………………………………………

Library:

• important books are in (30)……………………………………………………………………………………………
• Focus of course: focus on (31)……………………………………………………………………………………………

SECTION 4 – Questions 32 – 41

Questions 32-33

Circle the appropriate letter.

32. The speaker works within the Faculty of
    1. Science and Technology
    2. Arts and Social Sciences
    3. Architecture
    4. Law
33. The faculty consists firstly of
    1. subjects
    2. degrees
    3. divisions
    4. departments

Questions 34-36

Complete the notes with NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS.

• The subjects taken in the first semester in this course are psychology, sociology, (34)…………………………………………………………………………………………… and ……………………………………………………………………………………………
• Students may have problems with (35)……………………………………………………………………………………………  and (36)……………………………………………………………………………………………

Questions 37-41

Circle the appropriate letter.

37. The speaker says students can visit her
    1. every morning
    2. some mornings
    3. mornings only
    4. Friday morning
38. According to the speaker, a tutorial
    1. is a type of lecture
    2. is less important than a lecture
    3. provides a chance to share views
    4. provides an alternative to groupwork
39. When writing essays, the speaker advises the students to
    1. research their work well
    2. name the books they have read
    3. share work with their friends
    4. avoid using other writers’ ideas
40. The speaker thinks that plagiarism is
    1. a common problem
    2. an acceptable risk
    3. a minor concern
    4. a serious offence
41. The speaker’s aims are to
    1. introduce students to university expectations.
    2. introduce students to the members of staff.
    3. warn students about the difficulties of studying.
    4. guide students round the university.

Answer Notes:
( ): Answer between parenthesis is optional. Example> 21. A lot (of people)
/ : Another possible answer. Example> 22. A lot of people / Too many people

Section 1 Answers Cambridge 1 Listening Test 1

1. A
2. C
3. D
4. D
5. C
6. Prescott (must be correct spelling with capital “P”)
7. 41
8. fountain (must have capital “F”)
9. 752239
10. £65 / 65 pound

Section 2 Answers Cambridge 1 Listening Test 1

11. E, F, H (in any order)
12. E, F, H (in any order)
13. E, F, H (in any order)
14. $ 250 million
15. roads / road system
16. too late
17. school children / boys
18. 3
19. boats / pleasure crafty / boats and pleasure craft
20. pilot
21. (musical) instruments

Section 3 Answers Cambridge 1 Listening Test 1

22. A
23. B
24. C
25. A
26. talk / give a talk
27. write up work
28. can choose
29. open book
30. closed reserve
31. vocational (subjects) / (preparing for) work / employment

Section 4 Answers Cambridge 1 Listening Test 1

32. B
33. C
34. history and economics
35. (meeting) deadlines (for essays)
36. attendance
37. B
38. C
39. B
40. D
41. A

Section 1 – Questions 1-10

Questions 1-5

Complete the information below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

City Library

Head Librarian	Example: Mrs. Phillips
Hours	(1) to 4: 30
Books
Ground floor	(2)……………………………………….
Second floor	Adult collection
Third floor	(3)……………………………………….
Book carts
Brown cart	books to re-shelve
Black cart	books to (4)……………………………………….
White cart	books to (5)……………………………………….

Questions 6-10

Complete the library schedule below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Activity	Location	Day and Time
Story Time	Children’s Room	(6) ……………………at 11:00
Family (7) ……………………	Reference Room	Saturday at (8) ……………………
Lecture Series	(9) ……………………Room	Friday at (10)……………………

SECTION 2 – Questions 11-20

Questions 11-15

Choose FIVE letters, A-I.

Which FIVE activities are available at Golden Lake Resort?

1. swimming
2. boating
3. waterskiing
4. fishing
5. tennis
6. golf
7. horseback riding
8. hiking
9. arts and crafts

Questions 16-20

Complete the schedule below.

Write NO MORE THAN ONE WORD for each answer.

Night	Activity
Sunday	(16)………………………..
Monday	Dessert Night
Tuesday	(17)……………………….. Night
Wednesday	(18)………………………..
Thursday	(19)………………………..
Friday	Talent Show
Saturday	(20)………………………..

SECTION 3 – Questions 21 – 30

Questions 21-23

Choose THREE letters, A-E.

Which THREE thing are the students required to submit to their professor?

1. a written summary maps
2. a case study
3. charts and graphs
4. a list of resources used
5. a video

Questions 24-25

Answer the questions below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

What two sources of information will the students use when preparing their presentation?

(24)…………………………………

What will the students show during their presentation?

(25)…………………………………

Questions 26-30

Choose the correct letter, A, B, or C.

26. Only rescue birds that are
    1. all alone.
    2. obviously hurt.
    3. sitting on the ground.
27. Protect yourself by wearing
    1. gloves
    2. a hat
    3. protective glasses
28. Put the bird in a
    1. cage
    2. box
    3. bag
29. Keep the bird calm by
    1. Petting it
    2. talking to it
    3. leaving it alone
30. When transporting the bird
    1. speak quietly.
    2. play music.
    3. drive very slowly

SECTION 4 – Questions 31 – 40

Questions 31-33

Complete the information about the Great Barrier Reef.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

The Great Barrier Reef is made up of 3.000 (31)……………………….. and 600 (32)…………………………………

Over 400 kinds of (33)………………………….. can be found there.

Questions 34-38

Choose FIVE letters, A-I.

Which FIVE of these kinds of animals inhabiting the Great Barrier Reef are mentioned?

1. sharks
2. starfish
3. seahorses
4. clams
5. whales
6. dolphins
7. sea turtles
8. crocodiles
9. frogs

Questions 39-40

Answer the questions below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

39. What causes coral bleaching?
    • …………………………..
40. What has been one response to this problem?
    • ………………………..

Section 1 Answers Cambridge 10 Listening Test 1

1. 8:30
2. reference books
3. children’s books
4. be repaired/repair
5. be sold/sell
6. Thursday
7. movies
8. 2:30
9. meeting
10. 6:30

Section 2 Answers Cambridge 10 Listening Test 1

11. A, B, D, G, I (In any order)
12. A, B, D, G, I (In any order)
13. A, B, D, G, I (In any order)
14. A, B, D, G, I (In any order)
15. A, B, D, G, I (In any order)
16. film/movie
17. discussion
18. lectures
19. games
20. dance

Section 3 Answers Cambridge 10 Listening Test 1

21. A, C, E (In any order)
22. A, C, E (In any order)
23. A, C, E (In any order)
24. interviews, journal articles
25. photos (of birds)
26. B
27. A
28. B
29. C
30. A

Section 4 Answers Cambridge 10 Listening Test 1

31. individual reefs / coral reefs
32. islands
33. coral(s)
34. A, D, E, H, I (in any order)
35. A, D, E, H, I (in any order)
36. A, D, E, H, I (in any order)
37. A, D, E, H, I (in any order)
38. A, D, E, H, I (in any order)
39. rising sea temperatures
40. shading the reef/shading

Section 1: Questions 1-10

Questions 1-4

Complete the table below.

Write ONE WORD ONLY.

HEALTH CENTRES

Name of centre	Doctors’ name	Advantage
The Harvey Clinic	Dr. Green	especially good with (1) …………………………
The (2) ………………………… Health Practice	Dr. Fuller	offers (3) ………………………… appointments
The Shore Lane Health Centre	Dr. (4) …………………………

Questions 5 and 6

Choose TWO letters A-E.

Which TWO of the following are offered free of charge at Shore Lane Health Centre?

1. acupuncture
2. employment medicals
3. sports injury therapy
4. travel advice
5. vaccinations

Questions 7-10

Complete the table below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS OR A NUMBER.

Talks for patients at Shore Lane Health Centre

Subject of talk	Date/ time	Location	Notes
Giving up smoking	25th Feb at 7 pm	room 4	useful for people with asthma or (7) …………………………problems
Healthy eating	1st March at 5 pm	the (8)…………………………(Shore Lane)	anyone welcome
Avoiding injuries during exercise	9th March at (9) …………………………	room 6	for all (10) …………………………

Section 2: Questions 11-20

Label the diagram below.

Choose THREE answers from the box and write the correct letters A-E.

Questions 14-18

Where can each of the following items be found?

Choose FIVE answers from the options and write the correct letter A-G.

Locations

1. in box on washing machine
2. in cupboard on landing
3. in chest of drawers
4. next to window in living room
5. on shelf of back door
6. on top of television
7. under kitchen sink

14. Pillows
15. Washing powder
16. Key
17. Light bulbs
18. Map

Questions 19 and 20

Complete the notes below.

Write ONE WORD OR A NUMBER.

The best place to park in town – next to station
Phone number for takeaway pizzas – (19) …………………………
Railway museum closed on (20) …………………………

Section 3: Questions 21 and 22

Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

21. In her home country, Kira had
    1. completed a course
    2. done two years of a course
    3. found her course difficult
22. To succeed with assignments, Kira had to
    1. read faster
    2. write faster
    3. change her way of thinking

Questions 23-25

Complete the sentences below.

Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

23. Kira says that lecturers are easier to than those in her home country.
24. Paul suggests that Kira may be more than when she was studying before.
25. Kira says that students want to discuss things that worry them or that them very much.

Questions 26-30

Answer the questions below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

26. How did the students do their practical sessions?
27. In the second semester how often did Kira work in a hospital?
28. How much full-time work did Kira do during the year?
29. Having completed the year, how does Kira feel?
30. In addition to the language, what do overseas students need to become familiar with?

Section 4: Questions 31-40

Questions 31-36

Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

Wildlife in city gardens

31. What led the group to choose their topic?
    1. They were concerned about the decline of one species
    2. They were interested in the effects of city growth
    3. They wanted to investigate a recent phenomenon
32. The exact proportion of land devoted to private gardens was confirmed by
    1. consulting some official documents
    2. taking large-scale photos
    3. discussions with town surveyors
33. The group asked garden owners to
    1. take part in formal interviews
    2. keep a record of animals they saw
    3. get in contact when they saw a rare species
34. The group made their observations in gardens
    1. which had a large number of animal species
    2. which they considered to be representative
    3. which had stable populations of rare animals
35. The group did extensive reading on
    1. wildlife problems in rural areas
    2. urban animal populations
    3. current gardening practices
36. The speaker focuses on three animal species because
    1. a lot of data has been obtained about them
    2. the group were most interested in them
    3. they best indicated general trends

Questions 37-40

Complete the table below. Write ONE WORD ONLY.

Animals	Reason for population increase in gardens	Comments
(37)………………	suitable stretches of water	massive increase in urban population
Hedgehogs	safe from (38)…………….when in cities	easy to (39)………………..them accurately
Song Thrushes	– a variety of (40)………………to eat – more nesting places available	large survey starting soon

Section 1 Answers Cambridge 9 Listening Test 4

1. babies
2. Eschol
3. evening
4. Gormley
5. B
6. E
7. heart
8. primary school
9. 4.30
10. ages

Section 2 Answers Cambridge 9 Listening Test 4

11. B
12. C
13. E
14. B
15. E
16. D
17. A
18. C
19. 732281
20. thursday

Section 3 Answers Cambridge 9 Listening Test 4

21. A
22. C
23. approach
24. mature
25. interest
26. groups
27. every 2 days
28. 2 weeks
29. confident
30. education system

Section 4 Answers Cambridge 9 Listening Test 4

31. C
32. A
33. B
34. B
35. A
36. C
37. frogs
38. predators
39. count
40. seeds

Section 1: Questions 1-10

Questions 1-5

Complete the table below.

Write ONE WORD OR A NUMBER.

Apartments	Facilities	Other information	Cost
Rose Garden Apartments	studio flat	entertainment programme: Greek dancing	£ 219
Blue Bay Apartments	large salt water swimming pool	– just (1)…………….meters from beach – near shops	£ 275
(2)………………Apartments	terrace	watersports	£ 490
The Grand	Greek paintings and (3)…………..	– overlooking (4)…………. – near a supermarket and disco	(5) £…………

Questions 6-10

Complete the table below.

Write ONE WORD OR A NUMBER.

GREEK ISLAND HOLIDAYS

Insurance benefits	Maximum amount
Cancellation	(6) £………………….
Hospital	£ 600, additional benefit allows a (7)………………to travel to resort
(8)……………………departure	up to £ 1000 depends on reason
Personal belongings	up to £ 3000, £ 500 for one (9)……………

Name of Assistant Manager: Ben (10)………………..

Section 2: Questions 11-20

Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

WINRIDGE FOREST RAILWAY PARK

11. Simon’s idea for a theme park came from
    1. his childhood hobby
    2. his interest in landscape design
    3. his visit to another park
12. When they started, the family decided to open the park only when
    1. the weather was expected to be good
    2. the children weren’t at school
    3. there were fewer farming commitments
13. Since opening, the park has had
    1. 50,000 visitors
    2. 1,000,000 visitors
    3. 1,500,000 visitors

Questions 14-18

What is currently the main area of work of each of the following people?

Choose FIVE answers from the box and write the correct letter A-H next to questions 14-18.

Area of work

A advertising	B animal care	C building	D educational links
E engine maintenance	F food and drink	G sales	H staffing

People

14. Simon
15. Liz
16. Sarah
17. Duncan
18. Judith

Questions 19 and 20

Complete the table below.

Write ONE WORD OR A NUMBER.

Feature	Size	Biggest challenge	Target age group
Railway	1.2 km	making tunnels
Go-kart arema	(19)…………..sq mt	removing mounds on the track	(20)……………..year olds

Section 3: Questions 21-30

Complete the notes below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS OR A NUMBER.

Study Skills Tutorial – Caroline Benning

Dissertation topic: the (21) …………………………
Strengths: (22) ………………………… and Computer modeling
Weaknesses: lack of background information
Poor (23) ………………………… skills

Possible strategy	Benefits	Problems
Peer group discussion	increase (24) …………………………	dissertations tend to contain the same (25) …………………………
Use the (26) ………………………… service	provides structured programme	limited (27) …………………..
Consult study skills books	are a good source of reference	can be too (28)……………….

Recommendations: use a card index and Real all notes (29) …………………………
Next tutorial date: (30) ………………………… January

Section 4: Questions 31-40

31. The owners of the underground house
    1. had no experience of living in a rural area
    2. were interested in environmental issues
    3. wanted a professional project manager
32. What does the speaker say about the site of the house?
    1. The land was quite cheap
    2. Stone was being extracted nearby
    3. It was in a completely unspoilt area

Questions 33-40

Complete the notes below.

Write ONE WORD OR A NUMBER.

THE UNDERGROUND HOUSE

Design
• Built in the earth, with two floors
• The south-facing side was constructed of two layers of (33) …………………………
• Photovoltaic tiles were attached
• A layer of foam was used to improve the (34) ………………………… of the building

Special features
• To increase the light, the building has many internal mirrors and (35) …………………………
• In future, the house may produce more (36) ………………………… than it needs
• Recycled wood was used for the (37) ………………………… of the house
• The system for processing domestic (38) ………………………… is organic

Environmental issues
• The use of large quantities of (39) ………………………… in construction was environmentally harmful
• But the house will have paid its ‘environmental debt’ within (40) …………………………

Section 1 Answers Cambridge 9 Listening Test 3

1. 300
2. sunshade
3. balcony
4. forests
5. 319
6. 10,000
7. relative
8. missed
9. item
10. Ludlow

Section 2 Answers Cambridge 9 Listening Test 3

11. C
12. A
13. C
14. E
15. H
16. F
17. C
18. G
19. 120
20. 5 to 12

Section 3 Answers Cambridge 9 Listening Test 3

21. fishing industry
22. statistics
23. note-taking
24. confidence
25. ideas
26. student support
27. places
28. general
29. 3 times
30. 25

Section 4 Answers Cambridge 9 Listening Test 3

31. B
32. A
33. glass
34. insulation
35. windows
36. electricity
37. floors
38. waste
39. concrete
40. 15 years

Section 1: Questions 1-10

Complete the form below.

Write ONE WORD OR A NUMBER.

ACCOMODATION FORM – STUDENT INFORMATION

Type of accommodation: hall of residence
Name: Anu (1) …………………………………..
Date of birth: (2) …………………………………..
Country of origin: India
Course of study: (3) …………………………………..
Number of years planned in hall: (4) …………………………………..
Preferred catering arrangement: half board
Special dietary requirements: no (5) ………………………………….. (red)
Preferred room type: a single (6) …………………………………..
Interests: the (7) ………………………………….. and badminton
Priorities in choice of hall: to be with other students who are (8) …………………………………..
To live outside the (9) …………………………………..
To have a (10) ………………………………….. area for socializing

Section 2: Questions 11-20

Questions 11-13

Complete the table below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS.

PARKS AND OPEN SPACES

Name of place	Of particular interest	Open
Halland Common	source of river Ouse	24 hours
Hot Island	many different (11) …………………………………..	between (12) ………………………………….. and …………………………………..
Longfield Country Park	reconstruction of a 2,000 year old (13) ………………………………….. with activities for children	daylight hours

Questions 14-16

Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

Longfield Park

14. As part of Monday’s activity, visitors will
    1. prepare food with herbs
    2. meet a well-known herbalist
    3. dye cloth with herbs
15. For the activity on Wednesday,
    1. only group bookings are accepted
    2. visitors should book in advance
    3. attendance is free
16. For the activity on Saturday, visitors should
    1. come in suitable clothing
    2. make sure they are able to stay for the whole day
    3. tell the rangers before the event what they wish to do

Questions 17-20

Label the map below.

Write the correct letter A-I next to questions 17-20.

17. bird hide …………………………
18. dog-walking area …………………………
19. flower garden …………………………
20. wooded area …………………………

Section 3: Questions 21-24

Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

Self-Access Centre

21. Students want to keep the Self-Access Centre because
    1. they enjoy the variety of equipment
    2. they like being able to work on their own
    3. it is an important part of their studies
22. 22. Some teachers would prefer to
    1. close the Self-Access Centre
    2. move the Self-Access Centre elsewhere
    3. restrict access to the Self-Access Centre
23. The students’ main concern about using the library would be
    1. the size of the library
    2. difficulty in getting help
    3. the lack of materials
24. The Director of Studies is concerned about
    1. the cost of upgrading the centre
    2. the lack of space in the centre
    3. the difficulty in supervising the centre

Questions 25-30

Complete the notes below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS.

Necessary improvements to the existing Self-Access Centre
Equipment
Replace computers to create more space
Resources
The level of the (25) ………………………… materials, in particular, should be more clearly shown.
Update the (26) ………………………… collection.
Buy some (27) ………………………… and divide them up.
Use of the room
Speak to the teachers and organize a (28) ………………………… for supervising the centre.
Install an (29) …………………………
Restrict personal use of (30) ………………………… on computers.

Section 3: Questions 31-40

Complete the notes below.

Write ONE WORD ONLY.

Business Culture

Power Culture
Characteristics of organisation:	– small – (31) ………………………… power source – few rules and procedures – communication by (32) …………………………
Advantages:	– can act quickly
Disadvantages:	– might not act (33) …………………………
Suitable employee:	– not afraid of (34) ………………………… – does not need job security
Role Culture
Characteristics of organisation:	– large, many (35)……………. – specialized departments – rules and procedures e.g. job (36) ………………………… and rules for discipline
Advantages:	– economies of scale – successful when (37) ………………………… ability is important
Disadvantages:	– slow to see when (38) ………………………… is needed – slow to react
Suitable employee:	– does not want (39) …………………………
Task Culture
Characteristics of organisation:	– project oriented – in competitive market or making product with short life
Advantages:	– (40) …………………………

Section 1 Answers Cambridge 9 Listening Test 2

1. Bhatt
2. 31 March
3. nursing
4. 2
5. meat
6. bedsit
7. theatre
8. mature/ older
9. town
10. shared

Section 2 Answers Cambridge 9 Listening Test 2

11. trees
12. Friday/ Sunday
13. farm
14. C
15. B
16. A
17. A
18. I
19. F
20. E

Section 3 Answers Cambridge 9 Listening Test 2

21. C
22. B
23. B
24. C
25. reading
26. CD
27. workbooks
28. timetable
29. alarm
30. emails

Section 4 Answers Cambridge 9 Listening Test 2

31. central
32. conversations
33. effectively
34. risks
35. levels
36. descriptions
37. technical
38. change
39. responsibility
40. flexible